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Chemistry & Products

64 questions

1. On the pH scale, which value represents a neutral solution at room temperature?

a.0
b.7
c.10
d.14

The pH scale runs from 0 to 14. A value of 7 is neutral (the pH of pure water). Below 7 is acidic; above 7 is alkaline.

2. What is the approximate natural pH range of healthy hair and skin?

a.1.5 to 3.0
b.3.5 to 4.0
c.4.5 to 5.5
d.7.0 to 8.0

Healthy hair and skin sit in a slightly acidic range of about 4.5 to 5.5. This is often called the acid mantle and helps protect against bacteria and moisture loss.

3. A change from pH 5 to pH 7 represents how much of a change in hydrogen ion concentration?

a.100 times less acidic
b.10 times less acidic
c.2 times less acidic
d.No change

The pH scale is logarithmic, so each whole number is a tenfold change. Two units (pH 5 to pH 7) means the solution is 10 x 10 = 100 times less acidic.

4. Sodium hydroxide hair relaxers (commonly called 'lye relaxers') typically have a pH of approximately:

a.5 to 6
b.7 to 8
c.9 to 10
d.12 to 14

Sodium hydroxide relaxers are very alkaline, with a pH of about 12 to 14. The high pH swells and breaks disulfide bonds quickly, so processing must be timed carefully to avoid scalp burns.

5. Which statement best describes a 'no-lye' relaxer compared to a 'lye' relaxer?

a.No-lye relaxers contain sodium hydroxide and process faster
b.No-lye relaxers use guanidine hydroxide and tend to be gentler on the scalp but can leave hair drier
c.No-lye relaxers are neutral in pH and require no neutralizer
d.No-lye relaxers are stronger than lye relaxers

No-lye relaxers most commonly use guanidine hydroxide (mixed on site from calcium hydroxide and guanidine carbonate). They are generally less irritating to the scalp but can leave more mineral deposits, making hair feel drier.

6. Which chemical bond is broken when hair is permanently waved or relaxed?

a.Hydrogen bonds
b.Salt bonds
c.Disulfide bonds
d.Peptide bonds

Permanent waving and chemical relaxing both break and reform the disulfide bonds in keratin. Hydrogen and salt bonds are only temporarily broken by water or heat styling.

7. In a cold permanent wave, which chemical acts as the reducing agent that breaks disulfide bonds?

a.Ammonium thioglycolate
b.Hydrogen peroxide
c.Sodium hydroxide
d.Sodium bromate

Cold waves use ammonium thioglycolate (ATG) as the waving lotion. It is a reducing agent that breaks disulfide bonds at room temperature. The neutralizer (usually hydrogen peroxide or sodium bromate) then re-forms the bonds in the new shape.

8. The neutralizer applied after the waving lotion in a permanent wave is an example of what type of chemical reaction?

a.Hydrolysis
b.Neutralization (acid-base only)
c.Reduction
d.Oxidation

The neutralizer (typically hydrogen peroxide) oxidizes the broken disulfide bonds, allowing them to re-form in the curled shape. Even though the product is called a 'neutralizer,' the chemistry is an oxidation reaction.

9. Which category of hair color coats the outside of the hair shaft and washes out in one to two shampoos?

a.Demi-permanent
b.Temporary
c.Semi-permanent
d.Permanent

Temporary colors (rinses, color sprays, gels) coat only the cuticle and rinse out in one to two shampoos. They do not penetrate the cortex.

10. Which type of hair color penetrates into the cortex and chemically lightens natural pigment while depositing new color?

a.Temporary color
b.Semi-permanent color
c.Permanent color (oxidative)
d.Color-depositing conditioner

Permanent (oxidative) color is mixed with a developer (hydrogen peroxide). It penetrates the cortex, lightens existing melanin, and deposits new color molecules that are too large to wash out.

11. A client wants to deposit color only, with no lift, and have it gradually fade over 4 to 6 weeks. Which product is most appropriate?

a.Demi-permanent color with low-volume developer
b.30 volume developer with permanent color
c.Sodium hydroxide relaxer
d.Temporary color rinse

Demi-permanent (deposit-only) color uses a low-volume developer (typically 5 to 10 volume). It deposits color, gives slight conditioning, and fades gradually with no significant lift.

12. What does the 'volume' rating on hydrogen peroxide developer indicate?

a.The thickness of the cream
b.The amount of oxygen gas released per volume of liquid
c.The pH of the developer
d.The number of ounces in the bottle

Developer volume refers to the volume of oxygen gas released per volume of peroxide. 10 volume means each unit of peroxide releases 10 units of oxygen. Higher volume = more lift.

13. Which developer volume is typically used for deposit-only color and toners with no lift?

a.10 volume
b.20 volume
c.30 volume
d.40 volume

10 volume developer (about 3% hydrogen peroxide) deposits color and tones without lifting. 20 vol gives one to two levels of lift; 30 vol gives two to three; 40 vol gives the maximum lift used for high-lift color.

14. 20 volume developer is approximately what percentage of hydrogen peroxide by weight?

a.3%
b.5%
c.6%
d.12%

20 volume developer is approximately 6% hydrogen peroxide. 10 vol is about 3%, 30 vol about 9%, and 40 vol about 12%.

15. A formula calls for a 1:2 mixing ratio of color to developer. If you use 2 ounces of color, how much developer should you add?

a.1 ounce
b.2 ounces
c.3 ounces
d.4 ounces

A 1:2 ratio means two parts developer for every one part color. 2 oz color x 2 = 4 oz developer.

16. What is the primary cleansing ingredient in shampoo?

a.Emulsifier
b.Surfactant (detergent)
c.Humectant
d.Preservative

Shampoos clean using surfactants (surface-active agents). One end of the molecule attracts water (hydrophilic) and the other attracts oil and dirt (lipophilic), allowing soils to be rinsed away.

17. A 'pH-balanced' shampoo is formulated to a pH of approximately:

a.4.5 to 5.5
b.6.0 to 6.5
c.7.0 (neutral)
d.8.0 to 9.0

pH-balanced shampoos are formulated to roughly match the natural pH of hair and skin (about 4.5 to 5.5). This helps the cuticle lie flat and reduces dryness and irritation.

18. Which type of shampoo is best for removing mineral and product buildup before a chemical service?

a.Moisturizing shampoo
b.Color-safe shampoo
c.Clarifying shampoo
d.Dry shampoo

Clarifying shampoos contain stronger surfactants or chelating agents that remove hard-water minerals, chlorine, and styling product residue. They are useful before chemical services but can be drying with frequent use.

19. Alpha hydroxy acids (AHAs) such as glycolic and lactic acid act primarily on the skin by:

a.Killing bacteria deep in the dermis
b.Exfoliating the surface of the stratum corneum
c.Bleaching pigment in the cortex
d.Tightening the underlying muscle

AHAs are water-soluble acids that loosen the bonds between dead surface skin cells (corneocytes), promoting gentle exfoliation. They work on the surface of the stratum corneum, not in the dermis.

20. Salicylic acid (a beta hydroxy acid) is especially useful for which type of skin?

a.Dry, mature skin
b.Sensitive, rosacea-prone skin
c.Oily, acne-prone skin
d.Sun-damaged hyperpigmented skin

Salicylic acid (BHA) is oil-soluble, so it can penetrate through sebum into pores. This makes it useful for oily and acne-prone skin to clear clogged follicles.

21. Retinoids (vitamin A derivatives) are used in skin care primarily to:

a.Increase cell turnover and stimulate collagen
b.Provide chemical sunscreen protection
c.Disinfect the surface of the skin
d.Neutralize chemical relaxers

Retinoids speed up cell turnover and stimulate collagen and elastin production, making them popular for anti-aging and acne treatment. They can cause dryness and increased sun sensitivity.

22. What does the 'SPF' number on a sunscreen primarily measure?

a.Protection against UVA radiation
b.Protection against UVB radiation
c.Protection against infrared radiation
d.Hours the product lasts on the skin

SPF (Sun Protection Factor) measures protection against UVB rays, which cause sunburn. For UVA protection (which causes aging), look for 'broad-spectrum' on the label.

23. Under Cal/OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard, a salon must keep a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) for:

a.Only products used on minors
b.Only products that contain alcohol
c.Only products purchased from out of state
d.Every hazardous chemical product used in the salon

8 CCR §5194 requires employers to maintain an SDS for each hazardous chemical present in the workplace and to make them readily accessible to employees during their shift.

8 CCR §5194

24. How many sections does a Safety Data Sheet contain under the current Globally Harmonized System (GHS) format?

a.8
b.12
c.16
d.24

GHS-formatted SDSs have 16 standardized sections, ranging from product identification (Section 1) to other information (Section 16), including first aid, handling, and toxicology.

8 CCR §5194

25. Methyl methacrylate (MMA) liquid monomer is:

a.Prohibited from use on the nails of clients in California
b.Allowed only with written client consent
c.The standard ingredient in acrylic nail systems
d.Used as a UV gel base coat

Business and Professions Code §7315 prohibits the use of MMA liquid monomer on clients in California. Ethyl methacrylate (EMA) is the legal alternative for acrylic nail systems.

BPC §7315

26. Hair with low porosity tends to:

a.Absorb chemicals very quickly because the cuticle is open
b.Resist chemical penetration because the cuticle lies flat
c.Hold color longer because the cortex is exposed
d.Process the same as high-porosity hair

Low-porosity hair has tightly packed cuticle scales that resist absorbing water and chemicals. It may require longer processing or a presoftener. High-porosity hair absorbs and releases chemicals quickly.

27. Before a permanent wave, a strand test is performed mainly to:

a.Check the client's blood pressure
b.Measure the room humidity
c.Calculate the developer cost
d.Determine processing time and curl result on this specific hair

A strand test (also called a test curl) shows how the client's hair will respond to the wave solution so the stylist can choose the right product and time, preventing over- or under-processing.

28. Under California sanitation rules, salon chemical products should be stored:

a.Anywhere in the salon convenient to the operator
b.In the restroom, away from clients
c.In a labeled, closed container in a clean, dry area separate from food
d.In open bowls so they can be quickly accessed

16 CCR §979 requires products to be properly labeled and stored in clean, dry areas, separate from food, and in closed containers when not in use to avoid contamination or spills.

16 CCR §979

29. Leftover chemical color and developer should be disposed of by:

a.Pouring it down the storm drain
b.Following the manufacturer's SDS guidance and local hazardous-waste rules
c.Storing it in an open bowl for the next client
d.Burning it in the parking lot

SDS Section 13 covers disposal. Used chemicals must be disposed of according to the manufacturer's directions and local hazardous-waste regulations, not into storm drains or open containers.

30. Which section of an SDS tells the cosmetologist what to do if the chemical is splashed in the eyes?

a.Section 4 — First-Aid Measures
b.Section 9 — Physical and Chemical Properties
c.Section 13 — Disposal Considerations
d.Section 16 — Other Information

Section 4 (First-Aid Measures) of a GHS-formatted SDS lists the immediate steps to take for eye, skin, inhalation, and ingestion exposure.

31. After a chemical service that raises the hair's pH (such as relaxing or permanent color), an acidic 'normalizing' or finishing rinse is used to:

a.Open the cuticle to add more color
b.Lighten the hair further
c.Lower the pH and help the cuticle lie flat
d.Disinfect the scalp

Acidic finishing rinses bring the hair back toward its natural pH (around 4.5 to 5.5). This helps the cuticle close, locks in color, and reduces frizz.

32. A solution at pH 3 contains how many more hydrogen ions than a solution at pH 6?

a.3 times more
b.30 times more
c.1,000 times more
d.10,000 times more

The pH scale is logarithmic and inverted: each whole-number drop multiplies hydrogen-ion concentration by 10. Going from pH 6 to pH 3 is a 3-unit drop, so 10 x 10 x 10 = 1,000 times more hydrogen ions.

33. When an alkaline product such as ammonia is applied to the hair, the cuticle layer:

a.Swells and lifts open, allowing chemicals to enter the cortex
b.Closes tightly to seal in moisture
c.Detaches completely from the cortex
d.Becomes electrically charged but does not move

Alkaline solutions (pH above the natural 4.5 to 5.5 range) swell the hair shaft and lift the imbricated cuticle scales. The raised cuticle is what allows oxidative color, lighteners, and waving solutions to reach the cortex.

34. A bleach manufacturer specifies a 1:2 ratio of lightener powder to developer. If you scoop 1 ounce of powder, how many ounces of developer do you add?

a.0.5 ounce
b.2 ounces
c.3 ounces
d.4 ounces

A 1:2 powder-to-developer ratio means two parts developer per one part powder. 1 oz powder x 2 = 2 oz developer. Using less developer than directed produces a stiff, dry paste that overheats and can scorch hair.

35. Approximately what percentage of hydrogen peroxide by weight is in a 40-volume developer?

a.3%
b.6%
c.9%
d.12%

Volume rating divided by roughly 3.3 gives the percent peroxide: 10 vol is about 3%, 20 vol about 6%, 30 vol about 9%, and 40 vol about 12%. 40 vol is reserved for high-lift permanent color and is not used for on-scalp bleach.

36. Compared with a thiol-based (ammonium thioglycolate) perm, a sulfite-based 'true acid' perm typically:

a.Has a near-neutral to slightly acidic pH and produces a softer, less aggressive curl
b.Has a higher pH and processes faster than thio waves
c.Uses sodium hydroxide as its reducing agent
d.Requires no neutralizer because no bonds are broken

Sulfite (acid) waves use ammonium sulfite or bisulfite at a pH near 6.5 to 7. They swell the hair less than alkaline thio waves, so they create a softer curl and are gentler on porous or color-treated hair, though processing time is longer.

37. Surfactants in shampoo are classified by the electrical charge of their head group. Which charge class is the primary CLEANSING surfactant in most shampoos?

a.Cationic (positive)
b.Nonionic (no charge)
c.Anionic (negative)
d.Amphoteric (both charges)

Anionic surfactants such as sodium lauryl sulfate carry a negative charge and produce strong lather and grease removal, so they are the main cleansing detergents. Cationic agents condition, amphoterics are mild, and nonionics are used as emulsifiers and solubilizers.

38. Cationic surfactants such as quaternary ammonium compounds are most often found in:

a.Deep-cleansing clarifying shampoos
b.Conditioners and detangling rinses
c.Permanent waving solutions
d.Hard-surface salon disinfectant sprays only

Cationic (positively charged) surfactants are attracted to the negatively charged sites on damaged hair. They neutralize static, smooth the cuticle, and help detangling, which is exactly what conditioners are designed to do.

39. Which statement comparing sodium lauryl sulfate (SLS) and sodium laureth sulfate (SLES) is most accurate?

a.They are the same molecule with different brand names
b.SLS is non-foaming while SLES produces lather
c.SLS is cationic and SLES is anionic
d.SLES has added ethoxylate units that make it milder and less irritating to skin and scalp than SLS

Both are anionic sulfate cleansers, but SLES has been ethoxylated (extra polyethylene glycol units inserted into the molecule). The added bulk makes SLES gentler on skin and eyes than the smaller, more aggressive SLS while keeping good foam.

40. Which skin-care ingredient functions as a HUMECTANT by drawing water from the air and from deeper skin layers to the surface?

a.Glycerin
b.Mineral oil
c.Zinc oxide
d.Benzoyl peroxide

Glycerin is a classic humectant; its hydroxyl groups bind water molecules and pull them toward the stratum corneum. Mineral oil is an occlusive, zinc oxide is a physical sunscreen, and benzoyl peroxide is an acne-fighting oxidizer.

41. Among the common alpha hydroxy acids used in chemical exfoliants, which acid has the SMALLEST molecule and therefore the deepest penetration into the stratum corneum?

a.Lactic acid
b.Glycolic acid
c.Mandelic acid
d.Citric acid

Glycolic acid has the smallest molecular size of the common AHAs, so it penetrates fastest and deepest. Lactic acid is larger and is preferred when extra hydration is desired; mandelic and citric acids are larger still and act more gently on the surface.

42. Which list correctly orders these retinoids from WEAKEST to STRONGEST as they appear at the same concentration?

a.Tretinoin, retinaldehyde, retinol
b.Retinaldehyde, retinol, tretinoin
c.Retinol, retinaldehyde, tretinoin
d.Retinol, tretinoin, retinaldehyde

Retinoids must be converted into retinoic acid in the skin to act. Retinol takes two conversion steps, retinaldehyde takes one, and tretinoin (retinoic acid) is already active. Fewer steps means stronger and faster effect at the same percentage.

43. A broad-spectrum SPF 30 sunscreen blocks approximately what percentage of UVB radiation when applied correctly?

a.Less than 50%
b.About 75%
c.About 90%
d.About 97%

SPF math: SPF 15 blocks about 93% of UVB, SPF 30 about 97%, and SPF 50 about 98%. The jump from 30 to 50 only adds 1 percent more protection, so reapplication every two hours matters more than chasing a higher number.

44. Which pair of active ingredients indicates that a sunscreen is a PHYSICAL (mineral) sunscreen rather than a chemical one?

a.Zinc oxide and titanium dioxide
b.Avobenzone and oxybenzone
c.Octinoxate and octocrylene
d.Homosalate and octisalate

Physical (mineral) sunscreens use zinc oxide and/or titanium dioxide to sit on the skin and reflect or scatter UV light. The other ingredients listed are organic UV filters that absorb UV energy and convert it to heat, defining chemical sunscreens.

45. A new cosmetologist wants to know the product name, manufacturer, and emergency contact for a chemical in the dispensary. Which section of the GHS Safety Data Sheet contains that information?

a.Section 8 — Exposure Controls / Personal Protection
b.Section 1 — Identification
c.Section 9 — Physical and Chemical Properties
d.Section 14 — Transport Information

Section 1 (Identification) of the GHS 16-section SDS lists the product identifier, manufacturer name, address, and emergency phone number. Cal/OSHA's 8 CCR §5194 requires this sheet to be accessible to every employee on shift.

8 CCR §5194

46. Which SDS section lists the recommended ventilation, gloves, and eye protection required when working with a chemical?

a.Section 2 — Hazard Identification
b.Section 4 — First-Aid Measures
c.Section 8 — Exposure Controls / Personal Protection
d.Section 14 — Transport Information

Section 8 of a GHS-formatted SDS gives exposure limits and the engineering controls and personal protective equipment (gloves, eye protection, ventilation, respirator if needed) that the employer must provide under 8 CCR §5194.

8 CCR §5194

47. Most lotions, conditioners, and creamy hair colors are oil-in-water (O/W) emulsions, meaning:

a.Water droplets are suspended inside a continuous oil phase
b.There is no water present; only oils and waxes
c.Oil and water form two separate layers that are shaken together at use
d.Oil droplets are dispersed throughout a continuous water phase

In an oil-in-water emulsion, tiny oil droplets are suspended in a much larger continuous water phase, stabilized by an emulsifier. O/W products feel lighter and less greasy, which is why they dominate lotions and rinse-out conditioners. W/O is the reverse (water-in-oil) and feels heavier.

48. Oxidative (permanent) hair color and developer that have already been mixed should be:

a.Used immediately and any leftover discarded; never stored for later use
b.Capped and refrigerated for up to 30 days
c.Stored in an open bowl on the counter until the next client
d.Diluted with water and saved for the next root touch-up

Once color and peroxide are combined, the oxidation reaction begins. The mixture loses strength, can build dangerous pressure if sealed in a bottle, and is unsafe to apply later. Mix only what you need and discard leftover per the SDS.

49. From a molecular standpoint, why does methyl methacrylate (MMA) carry a much higher allergy and damage risk than ethyl methacrylate (EMA) on natural nails?

a.MMA is alkaline and EMA is acidic
b.MMA has a smaller molecule that penetrates the nail plate more easily and bonds too rigidly to the natural nail
c.MMA is water-based while EMA is solvent-based
d.MMA evaporates before it can react

MMA's smaller molecular size lets it diffuse into the nail plate and surrounding skin, increasing sensitization risk, and it cures into an extremely hard, inflexible film that can tear the natural nail off if bumped. For these reasons California's BPC §7315 bans MMA monomer on clients; EMA is the legal acrylic monomer.

BPC §7315

50. A client wants a serum to help refill water loss in dehydrated skin without leaving a greasy film. Which ingredient is BEST known for binding many times its own weight in water within the upper skin layers?

a.Petrolatum
b.Beeswax
c.Hyaluronic acid
d.Stearic acid

Hyaluronic acid is a naturally occurring polysaccharide that can hold many times its weight in water in the upper epidermis, plumping dehydrated skin without occluding it. Petrolatum and beeswax are occlusive sealers; stearic acid is mainly a thickener.

51. Ceramides are added to moisturizers primarily because they:

a.Provide chemical UV protection equivalent to SPF 15
b.Exfoliate the surface in the same way as glycolic acid
c.Function as anionic detergents that cleanse the scalp
d.Replenish the natural lipid 'mortar' between skin cells to repair the barrier and slow water loss

Ceramides are lipids that, together with cholesterol and fatty acids, form the 'mortar' that holds stratum-corneum cells together. Topping up ceramides restores the skin barrier and reduces transepidermal water loss, which is why they are key in barrier-repair moisturizers.

52. Which statement about oxidation and reduction in salon chemistry is correct?

a.Oxidation is the gain of electrons; reduction is the loss of electrons
b.Oxidation always requires direct sunlight; reduction always requires heat
c.Oxidation is the loss of electrons (or the addition of oxygen); reduction is the gain of electrons (or the addition of hydrogen)
d.Oxidation and reduction are the same reaction with different names

The mnemonic OIL RIG (Oxidation Is Loss, Reduction Is Gain) of electrons keeps the direction straight. In the salon, oxidation underlies permanent hair color (peroxide oxidizes the dye and the natural melanin), and reduction underlies permanent waves (thioglycolate donates hydrogen to break disulfide bonds). California licensees apply these reactions under product-use and sanitation duties at CCR Title 16 §979.4. Option A reverses the definitions. Option B confuses chemical change with environmental conditions. Option D claims they are identical, when in fact oxidation and reduction are linked but opposite half-reactions in a redox process.

CCR Title 16 §979.4

53. The three side bonds that give hair its shape are hydrogen, salt, and disulfide bonds. Which list correctly orders them from WEAKEST to STRONGEST?

a.Disulfide < salt < hydrogen
b.Hydrogen < salt < disulfide
c.Salt < disulfide < hydrogen
d.All three bond types are exactly equal in strength

Hydrogen bonds are the weakest of the three; they break with water and reform when the hair dries, which is why wet-set styling holds until it gets damp again. Salt bonds are intermediate; they break with strong acids or alkalis. Disulfide bonds are by far the strongest; they require a chemical reducing agent in a permanent wave or relaxer to break. California licensees rely on this hierarchy when performing thermal styling versus chemical services under CCR Title 16 §979.4. Option A reverses the order. Option C swaps salt and hydrogen. Option D ignores the published bond energies that any chemistry textbook for cosmetology lists.

CCR Title 16 §979.4

54. A neutralizer in a permanent wave service works chemically by:

a.Oxidizing the broken disulfide bonds, often using hydrogen peroxide or sodium bromate, to restore the cystine cross-links in the new curled position
b.Lowering the pH to 3 with a strong acid that physically melts the rod
c.Adding water to dilute the waving lotion until it is harmless
d.Mechanically pulling the bonds back together with the rubber band on the rod

Cold permanent waves use ammonium thioglycolate to REDUCE disulfide bonds, allowing the hair to take the new shape of the rod. The neutralizer then OXIDIZES the now-rearranged cysteine residues back into cystine disulfide bonds, locking in the curl. Typical neutralizers are hydrogen peroxide or sodium bromate. California licensees use both steps in scope under CCR Title 16 §979.4. Option B confuses pH with the chemistry of the reaction. Option C describes simple dilution, which would not reform bonds. Option D imagines a mechanical bond-restoration that has no chemical basis.

CCR Title 16 §979.4

55. A surfactant molecule has a hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail. In a shampoo, the tail's primary function is to:

a.Coat the cuticle to add shine after rinsing
b.Raise the pH of the scalp
c.Carry water-soluble nutrients into the cortex
d.Attach to oil and debris on the hair so that rinsing water can carry the bundled surfactant-and-oil micelles away

Surfactants reduce the surface tension of water and form micelles in which the hydrophobic tails point inward and grab onto oil and dirt, while the hydrophilic heads point outward into the water. Rinsing then sweeps the entire micelle, oil included, off the hair. Cal/OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard §5194 requires that the SDS for shampoos disclose surfactant identity and hazards. Option A describes a conditioner's positively charged quaternary, not a shampoo surfactant. Option B is unrelated; surfactants are not pH adjusters. Option C imagines transdermal delivery into the cortex, which surfactants do not perform during a normal shampoo.

Cal/OSHA §5194

56. A bottle of 30-volume hydrogen peroxide developer is approximately what percentage of hydrogen peroxide by weight, and what is its main coloring purpose?

a.About 3 percent; deposit-only with no lift
b.About 9 percent; lifts approximately 2 to 3 levels and is a common developer for permanent single-process color
c.About 30 percent; reserved for chemical relaxer service only
d.About 60 percent; only used in salons with a chemistry license

Each 'volume' of hydrogen peroxide corresponds to roughly 0.3 percent peroxide by weight, so 30-volume is approximately 9 percent. At that concentration the developer can lift natural pigment about 2 to 3 levels while depositing oxidative color, the workhorse choice for many single-process colors. California licensees apply oxidative color under CCR Title 16 §979.4. Option A describes 10-volume, which is for deposit only. Option C inflates the percentage to a level not sold for cosmetic use. Option D invents a 'chemistry license' that does not exist in California beauty regulation.

CCR Title 16 §979.4

57. Which protein bond is most directly responsible for the permanent shape change that occurs in a thio relaxer or cold perm?

a.Hydrogen bond, because it is the most plentiful
b.Salt bond, because it is sensitive to alkalinity
c.Disulfide (cystine) bond between two cysteine residues, which is broken by a reducing agent and rebuilt in the new shape by an oxidizing neutralizer
d.Peptide bond, which the chemical services routinely break and reform

Disulfide bonds (S-S cross-links between two cysteine amino acids in adjacent keratin chains) are the strongest of the three side bonds in hair. Permanent chemical reshaping is the controlled breaking and reforming of disulfide bonds: a reducing agent such as ammonium thioglycolate or ammonium sulfite donates hydrogen to break the bond, the hair is reshaped on a rod or pressed straight, and an oxidizing neutralizer rebuilds the disulfides in the new position. Salt and hydrogen bonds are too weak to hold permanent shape. Peptide bonds are the backbone of the protein and are NOT broken in routine chemical services. The relevant SDS under Cal/OSHA §5194 spells out the hazards of both reducers and neutralizers.

Cal/OSHA §5194

58. Ammonium thioglycolate (used in cold perms and thio relaxers) and sodium hydroxide (used in lye relaxers) differ in which fundamental way?

a.Thioglycolate is a REDUCING agent at moderate alkaline pH (around 9 to 10) that breaks disulfides reversibly; sodium hydroxide is a strong ALKALI at pH 12 to 14 that destroys disulfides irreversibly by converting them to single lanthionine bonds
b.Both are oxidizing agents differing only in concentration
c.Both work at pH 5 (acidic) and are essentially interchangeable
d.Thioglycolate is a bleach; sodium hydroxide is a conditioner

Thioglycolate is a sulfur-containing reducing agent: it donates hydrogen to the disulfide bond, splitting it into two cysteine thiols, a reversible change that an oxidizing neutralizer can put back together. Sodium hydroxide is one of the strongest alkalis used on skin; at pH 12 to 14 it strips a sulfur atom out of the disulfide entirely, converting cystine to lanthionine, a permanent rearrangement that cannot be reversed and that is followed by a neutralizing (acidifying) shampoo rather than an oxidizer. The pH and mechanism differences explain why the two products MUST NOT be layered on the same hair without major breakage risk. SDS hazard information is required for both classes under Cal/OSHA §5194.

Cal/OSHA §5194

59. On the haircolor level system 1 (darkest) to 10 (lightest), which underlying pigment is exposed when natural hair is lifted to level 8?

a.Pale violet, because all warmth is gone
b.Pale ash green, because levels 7 and above are cool
c.Yellow-orange to yellow, because the eumelanin breaks down gradually and pheomelanin warmth remains; level 8 typically reveals a yellow to yellow-orange underlying tone that a violet- or blue-based toner is used to neutralize
d.True black, because all levels lift through black first

As bleach or high-lift color lifts natural pigment, eumelanin (the brown/black large-molecule pigment) breaks down first and pheomelanin (the smaller red/yellow molecule) lingers. Lifting therefore reveals predictable contributing pigments in a sequence: red (level 4), red-orange (level 5), orange (level 6), yellow-orange (level 7), yellow (level 8), pale yellow (level 9), and pale palest yellow (level 10). A level 8 lift typically shows yellow to yellow-orange and is toned with a violet or violet-blue toner to neutralize. California licensees apply oxidative color under CCR Title 16 §979.4. Options A, B, and D ignore the standard contributing-pigment chart taught in every cosmetology textbook.

CCR Title 16 §979.4

60. A salon stocks 10, 20, 30, and 40 volume hydrogen peroxide developers. A client at natural level 6 wants to go to level 9 in a single-process color. Which developer is typically required?

a.10 volume, because the higher the level the gentler the developer must be
b.30 volume, because 30 volume lifts approximately 3 levels and matches a 3-level lift from 6 to 9, while 40 volume lifts roughly 4 levels and 20 volume lifts roughly 2
c.5 volume, because demi-permanent will fully reach level 9
d.60 volume, which is only sold in California

Approximate rules of thumb taught for oxidative color: 10 volume is deposit-only with little to no lift; 20 volume lifts about 1 to 2 levels and is the workhorse for one-process gray coverage; 30 volume lifts about 2 to 3 levels; 40 volume lifts about 3 to 4 levels and is reserved for resistant hair and high-lift series. A 3-level lift from 6 to 9 is matched by 30 volume. Demi-permanent at 5 volume deposits only and will NOT lift to 9 (option C). 60 volume is not sold in California for cosmetic use (option D). Option A reverses the rule. California licensees apply oxidative color under CCR Title 16 §979.4.

CCR Title 16 §979.4

61. The cuticle of the hair shaft responds to pH in a predictable way. Which statement is correct?

a.Alkaline products tighten the cuticle; acidic products open it
b.Both alkaline and acidic products tighten the cuticle equally
c.pH has no effect on the cuticle, only on the cortex
d.Alkaline products (pH above 7) raise/swell the cuticle, allowing chemical services like color and perms to penetrate; acidic products (pH below 7) flatten and tighten the cuticle, sealing in moisture and adding shine

The cuticle is made of overlapping keratin scales. In an alkaline environment (color, perm waving lotion, relaxer), the scales swell and lift, allowing larger molecules to penetrate to the cortex; this is necessary for chemical service to take effect. In an acidic environment (clarifying rinse, acid-balanced conditioner, finishing toner at low pH), the scales flatten and tighten against each other, sealing the cuticle, sealing in moisture, and increasing light reflection (shine). This is why an acidic conditioning rinse is used after an alkaline service. California licensees apply both kinds of products under CCR Title 16 §979.4. Options A, B, and C contradict basic cuticle chemistry.

CCR Title 16 §979.4

62. Which statement correctly distinguishes an ANTIBACTERIAL product from an ANTIFUNGAL product in salon practice?

a.Both terms mean the same thing and either label suffices on any tool
b.Antibacterials kill fungi and viruses; antifungals kill bacteria only
c.Antibacterials target bacterial cells (cell walls, ribosomes, etc.); antifungals target fungal-specific structures (often ergosterol in the cell membrane). An EPA-registered hospital-grade disinfectant used in California salons must be effective against bacteria, viruses, AND fungi, not a single class
d.Antifungals are only available by prescription and may not be sold over the counter

Antibacterial agents target structures unique to bacterial cells. Antifungal agents target structures unique to fungal cells, most commonly ergosterol in the fungal cell membrane. The two classes act on different organisms and a product that kills bacteria is NOT automatically effective against fungi. California salon disinfectants used on non-porous, multi-use tools must be EPA-registered hospital-grade, which by definition means bactericidal, virucidal, and fungicidal (per CCR Title 16 §979.4 and BBC inspection practice). Many topical antifungals are OTC (clotrimazole, terbinafine). Options A, B, and D collapse or mis-state the categories.

CCR Title 16 §979.4

63. Section 8 of a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) is titled 'Exposure Controls / Personal Protection.' For an alkaline lye relaxer, Section 8 would most likely require:

a.Chemical-resistant nitrile gloves, protective eyewear or face shield, and adequate room ventilation; engineering controls such as local exhaust where reasonably feasible
b.Cotton dish gloves only, because the product is mild
c.No PPE at all because the licensee has experience
d.A full Level-A hazmat suit for every application

Section 8 of an SDS lists occupational exposure limits, engineering controls, and recommended PPE. Sodium hydroxide is highly alkaline and corrosive to skin and eyes, so a relaxer SDS Section 8 will require chemical-resistant gloves (nitrile or similar), eye protection (safety glasses or face shield), and adequate ventilation, with engineering controls where feasible. The Cal/OSHA Hazard Communication Standard §5194 requires the salon to maintain and act on SDS information. Option B uses inappropriate gloves. Option C ignores PPE entirely and is a clear violation. Option D is wildly excessive and not what Section 8 calls for; PPE must be appropriate, not theatrical.

Cal/OSHA §5194

64. Why are nail technicians taught to NEVER mix leftover liquid monomer from a used dappen dish back into the original bottle?

a.Because the dish makes the monomer evaporate faster
b.Because the used monomer in the dappen dish has been contaminated with polymer powder, skin cells, and bacteria; returning it to the bottle contaminates the entire bottle and accelerates polymerization, ruining the supply and creating a sanitation hazard
c.Because California law requires all monomer to be a single use
d.Because the bottle will leak if filled past 80 percent

Once monomer has been dispensed into the dappen dish and used at the chair, it has picked up polymer powder, file dust, bacteria from the brush touching skin, and atmospheric moisture. Pouring it back into the stock bottle inoculates the entire bottle with contaminants and contaminates the next client's dish, and the trace polymer begins to thicken the supply. The professional practice is to discard the dappen dish contents, clean and dry the dish, and dispense fresh monomer for the next client. California licensees follow this under general sanitation duties at CCR Title 16 §979.4. Options A, C, and D state reasons that are not the actual sanitation rationale.

CCR Title 16 §979.4

Last reviewed: · editorial process

PrepPass Editorial Team · Verified against California BBC · How we review

What's on the California Cosmetology / Barber / Esthetician / Manicurist Exam?

The California Cosmetology / Barber / Esthetician / Manicurist Exam is administered by the California Board of Barbering and Cosmetology (BBC). Topic weights below come directly from the official exam blueprint — focus your study on the highest-weighted areas first.

Exam length
Cosmetologist 100 Qs · Barber 100 Qs · Esthetician 60 Qs · Manicurist 40 Qs
Passing score
75%

Topic blueprint

  • 25%
    Infection Control & Safety
  • 22%
    Anatomy & Sciences
  • 15%
    Ethics & California Law
  • 13%
    Hair Services
  • 12%
    Chemistry & Products
  • 8%
    Electricity & Equipment
  • 5%
    Skin & Nail Services

How hard is the exam?

Moderate. The BBC written exam is 100 multiple-choice questions (50 for Manicurist, 60 for Esthetician) with 75% to pass. California eliminated the practical portion in 2022, so it's written-only at a PSI testing center.

Recommended study hours
60-100 hours of dedicated review for working students
First-attempt pass rate
Approximately 65-75% first-attempt pass rate (varies by license type; Manicurist has the highest pass rate, Cosmetologist the most demanding).
Where to focus first
Infection Control & Safety (25% of exam) and Anatomy & Sciences (22%) — these two topics alone are about half the exam.

Frequently asked questions

How many California cosmetology practice questions are in this bank?+

404 original practice questions covering all 7 areas of the California Board of Barbering and Cosmetology (BBC) written exam — useful for Cosmetologist, Barber, Esthetician, and Manicurist candidates.

Is this California cosmetology practice test free?+

Yes, completely free with no signup required. Unlimited rounds, full mock exam, and explanations all included.

Are these real BBC exam questions?+

No. All questions are original prose authored from Title 16 CCR (California Code of Regulations) and the California Barbering and Cosmetology Act. We never copy from real exams or providers like Milady.

What topics does the California cosmetology exam cover?+

Seven topics: Anatomy & Basic Sciences, Chemistry & Products, Electricity & Equipment, Infection Control & Safety, Ethics & California Law, Hair Services, and Skin & Nail Services.

What's the passing score for the BBC written exam?+

75%. The real BBC written exam is approximately 100 questions; you need 75% correct on the written portion (the practical portion is graded separately).

Is the California cosmetology exam offered in languages other than English?+

Yes — the BBC exam is available in English, Spanish, Vietnamese, Korean, and several other languages by request. PrepPass practice is available in English, 中文, Español, and Tiếng Việt.

Does this cover Barber, Esthetician, and Manicurist exams too?+

The fundamentals (Anatomy, Chemistry, Infection Control, Ethics & CA Law) are shared across all four licenses. Hair Services applies to Cosmetologist and Barber; Skin & Nail Services applies to Cosmetologist, Esthetician, and Manicurist.

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