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Anatomy & Sciences

94 questions
1. Which is the largest organ of the human body?
a.The skin
b.The liver
c.The lungs
d.The heart

The skin is the largest organ by surface area and weight, with three main layers: epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous.

2. Which layer of the epidermis contains the cells that produce new skin?
a.Stratum granulosum
b.Stratum basale
c.Stratum corneum
d.Stratum lucidum

The stratum basale (basal layer) is the deepest epidermal layer where new keratinocytes are produced and where melanocytes reside.

3. The stratum lucidum is found on which part of the body?
a.The face
b.The palms and soles
c.The scalp
d.The back of the neck

The stratum lucidum is a clear, thin layer found only in the thick skin of the palms and soles.

4. Which cells produce the pigment that gives skin its color?
a.Fibroblasts
b.Melanocytes
c.Keratinocytes
d.Langerhans cells

Melanocytes are located in the stratum basale and produce melanin, which determines skin color and helps shield deeper cells from UV light.

5. Which epidermal layer is the outermost and consists of dead, keratinized cells?
a.Stratum granulosum
b.Stratum spinosum
c.Stratum corneum
d.Stratum basale

The stratum corneum is the outermost layer; its dead, flattened keratinocytes are what cosmetic exfoliation targets.

6. Which layer of skin contains most of the collagen, blood vessels, and hair follicles?
a.Subcutaneous layer
b.Epidermis
c.Dermis
d.Stratum corneum

The dermis is the middle layer of skin and contains collagen, elastin, blood vessels, nerves, hair follicles, and sebaceous and sweat glands.

7. The subcutaneous layer is primarily composed of which tissue?
a.Cartilage
b.Bone tissue
c.Adipose (fat) tissue
d.Muscle tissue

The subcutaneous (subcutis) layer is mostly adipose (fat) and connective tissue that cushions and insulates the body.

8. Under California law, a cosmetologist using a chemical exfoliant may legally act on which layer?
a.The dermis
b.The stratum corneum
c.The subcutaneous layer
d.The stratum basale only

Licensee exfoliation is limited to the dead cells of the stratum corneum; removal of living layers is the practice of medicine.

BPC §7316
9. Which gland in the dermis produces sebum (oil)?
a.Sebaceous gland
b.Sudoriferous gland
c.Endocrine gland
d.Apocrine gland

Sebaceous glands secrete sebum, the oily substance that lubricates skin and hair; sudoriferous glands produce sweat.

10. Which of the three layers of the hair shaft contains pigment and gives hair its strength and elasticity?
a.Cuticle
b.Cortex
c.Papilla
d.Medulla

The cortex is the middle layer; it holds melanin pigment and most of the protein bonds that determine hair strength and elasticity.

11. Which structure at the base of the hair follicle supplies nutrients via blood vessels?
a.Arrector pili
b.Cortex
c.Dermal papilla
d.Bulb

The dermal papilla is a small mound of connective tissue at the base of the follicle that supplies blood and nutrients to the growing hair.

12. The outermost layer of the hair shaft, composed of overlapping scales, is the:
a.Medulla
b.Cortex
c.Cuticle
d.Papilla

The cuticle is the outermost layer of the hair; its overlapping scales protect the cortex and must be opened for chemical services.

13. Which phase of the hair growth cycle is the active growth phase?
a.Telogen
b.Anagen
c.Exogen
d.Catagen

Anagen is the active growth phase. On the scalp, it lasts 2–7 years and accounts for the majority of hairs at any time.

14. About how long does the catagen (transition) phase typically last?
a.A few hours
b.2–7 years
c.3 months
d.1–2 weeks

Catagen is the short transition phase between active growth and resting; it lasts roughly 1–2 weeks.

15. Which phase is the resting/shedding phase of hair?
a.Catagen
b.Anagen
c.Mitogen
d.Telogen

Telogen is the resting phase that lasts about 3 months; at the end of telogen the hair sheds and the follicle re-enters anagen.

16. A client asks if losing about 70 hairs in a day means she is going bald. The best answer is:
a.Yes, that is abnormal for any age
b.Losing 50–100 hairs daily is generally normal
c.Yes, see a dermatologist immediately
d.Only if she is over 40

Daily loss of about 50–100 telogen hairs is a normal part of the hair cycle. Sudden, heavy, or patchy loss warrants medical referral.

17. The only living part of the nail unit is the:
a.Matrix
b.Nail plate
c.Lunula
d.Free edge

The matrix, hidden under the proximal nail fold, is the living tissue that produces the nail plate. Damage to the matrix can cause permanent deformity.

18. The visible white half-moon at the base of the nail is the:
a.Eponychium
b.Free edge
c.Lunula
d.Hyponychium

The lunula is the visible portion of the matrix and appears as a whitish half-moon at the proximal end of the nail plate.

19. Which structure forms the seal of skin under the free edge of the nail?
a.Hyponychium
b.Cuticle
c.Lunula
d.Eponychium

The hyponychium is the skin seal beneath the free edge that helps prevent microorganisms from entering the nail bed.

20. While prepping a client's hand, a manicurist sees the cuticle area is intact but the lateral nail fold is red, swollen, and oozing pus. The correct action is:
a.Cover with a thick base coat
b.Soak the finger and gently extract the pus
c.Apply alcohol and continue the service
d.Decline the service and refer the client to a physician

Pus and swelling suggest paronychia (an infection). Service must be declined and the client referred; the salon is not a treatment site for infections.

16 CCR §979
21. Bacteria shaped like clusters that can cause boils and impetigo are:
a.Staphylococci
b.Bacilli
c.Streptococci
d.Spirilla

Staphylococci are cluster-forming cocci. Streptococci grow in chains. Bacilli are rod-shaped; spirilla are spiral.

22. Streptococcus bacteria typically grow in which arrangement?
a.Single cells
b.Spiral threads
c.Chains
d.Clusters

Streptococci grow in chains and can cause strep throat, impetigo, and other skin infections.

23. Rod-shaped bacteria responsible for diseases like tuberculosis and tetanus are classified as:
a.Diplococci
b.Bacilli
c.Spirilla
d.Cocci

Bacilli are rod-shaped bacteria. They include the agents of tuberculosis (Mycobacterium tuberculosis) and tetanus (Clostridium tetani).

24. Spirilla-shaped bacteria are associated with which of the following diseases?
a.Athlete's foot
b.Influenza
c.The common cold
d.Syphilis

Spiral (spirilla / spirochete) bacteria cause syphilis and Lyme disease. Colds and flu are viral; athlete's foot is fungal.

25. Which statement about microorganisms is most accurate?
a.Most bacteria are non-pathogenic
b.All bacteria cause disease
c.Fungi are a type of bacteria
d.Viruses are larger than bacteria

Only a minority of bacteria cause disease; most are harmless or beneficial. Viruses are much smaller than bacteria; fungi are a separate kingdom.

26. Hepatitis B and HIV are spread primarily by:
a.Blood and certain body fluids
b.Hair clippings
c.Sunlight
d.Coughing and sneezing

Both hepatitis B and HIV are bloodborne pathogens transmitted through blood and certain body fluids — a key reason implements that may contact blood must be properly disinfected.

27. Human papillomavirus (HPV) most commonly causes which condition that might be seen in a salon?
a.Acne
b.Dandruff
c.Warts (verrucae)
d.Eczema

HPV causes warts, including plantar and common warts. Warts are contagious; service should be modified to avoid the area, and clients referred to a physician.

28. A disinfectant used in a California salon on nonporous, multi-use implements must be EPA-registered and effective against which combination?
a.Bacteria only
b.Bacteria, viruses, and fungi
c.Bacteria and viruses only
d.Viruses and fungi only

California requires hospital-grade, EPA-registered disinfectants that are bactericidal, virucidal, and fungicidal for multi-use implements that contact skin.

16 CCR §979
29. Ringworm of the scalp (tinea capitis) is caused by:
a.A bacterium
b.A virus
c.A fungus
d.A parasite

Despite its name, ringworm is a fungal infection (dermatophyte). It is contagious; service should be declined and the client referred to a physician.

30. Head lice (Pediculus capitis) are classified as:
a.A bacterium
b.A fungus
c.A virus
d.A parasite

Head lice are parasitic insects that feed on scalp blood. They are spread by direct contact and through shared combs, brushes, and headwear.

31. A client arrives with visible live lice in her hair. The appropriate response in a California salon is:
a.Charge an extra fee and proceed
b.Decline the service and refer the client to a pharmacist or physician for treatment
c.Use a higher-strength disinfectant on combs and continue
d.Wash the hair with regular shampoo and proceed

Active infestation must not be treated in the salon; service is declined and the client is referred. Tools used must then be disinfected per California rules.

16 CCR §979
32. Onychomycosis is best described as:
a.Ingrowth of the lateral nail edge
b.Inflammation of the cuticle
c.A fungal infection of the nail
d.Separation of the nail plate from the bed

Onychomycosis is a fungal infection of the nail plate/bed, often causing thickening, discoloration, and crumbling. It is contagious; service is declined.

33. Onycholysis refers to:
a.Separation of the nail plate from the nail bed
b.Infection of the surrounding nail fold
c.Permanent loss of the nail
d.Fungal infection of the plate

Onycholysis is the painless separation of the nail plate from the bed. Causes include trauma, allergic reaction, and certain diseases. Enhancements should not be applied over a separated plate.

34. Paronychia is an infection that affects which area?
a.The hyponychium only
b.The matrix only
c.The nail plate itself
d.The tissue surrounding the nail (nail fold)

Paronychia is an infection (often bacterial, sometimes fungal) of the skin and nail folds around the nail. It presents with redness, swelling, and often pus.

35. A client with a clearly thickened, yellow, crumbling toenail asks for a pedicure. What is the correct action?
a.Soak in disinfectant for 10 minutes and proceed
b.Trim the affected nail and apply polish
c.Decline pedicure service on the affected nail and refer to a physician
d.File the nail thin so the polish hides it

Signs strongly suggest onychomycosis, a fungal disease. Treating or 'fixing' diseased nails is outside the scope of practice and risks spreading infection.

BPC §7317
36. An esthetician sees a client whose face has open, weeping pustules and crusting that look like impetigo. What is the appropriate action?
a.Use stronger sanitizer on tools and proceed
b.Perform a gentle facial avoiding active areas
c.Decline the service and recommend the client see a physician
d.Apply an antibacterial mask

Open, weeping lesions are signs of possible contagious infection. Estheticians do not diagnose or treat infections; service is declined and the client referred.

BPC §7316
37. Acne is best described as a disorder of the:
a.Nerve endings in the dermis
b.Stratum corneum only
c.Sweat glands only
d.Pilosebaceous unit (hair follicle and sebaceous gland)

Acne involves blockage and inflammation of the pilosebaceous unit. Estheticians can extract non-inflamed comedones; medical treatment of severe acne is outside scope.

38. A red, scaly rash with silvery plaques most commonly seen on elbows and knees is consistent with:
a.Acne
b.Psoriasis
c.Eczema
d.Rosacea

Psoriasis is a chronic autoimmune skin disorder characterized by silvery scales. Cosmetologists adapt the service to avoid irritation but do not treat it.

39. Androgenetic alopecia is best known as:
a.Pattern hair loss (male or female pattern baldness)
b.Shedding after pregnancy
c.Round patches of total hair loss
d.Scalp ringworm

Androgenetic alopecia is pattern hair loss linked to genetics and hormones. Alopecia areata causes round patches; tinea capitis is scalp ringworm.

40. Sudden, well-defined round patches of complete hair loss without scarring most likely indicate:
a.Telogen effluvium
b.Alopecia areata
c.Tinea capitis
d.Androgenetic alopecia

Alopecia areata is an autoimmune condition causing sudden round patches of hair loss with smooth, non-scarred scalp. It warrants medical referral.

41. Dandruff (pityriasis simplex) is best described as:
a.An allergic reaction to all shampoos
b.Permanent hair loss
c.A contagious bacterial infection of the scalp
d.Flaking of the scalp due to abnormal turnover of stratum corneum cells

Common dandruff involves accelerated shedding of stratum corneum cells from the scalp. It is not contagious and is generally managed with anti-dandruff products.

42. Which cranial nerve controls the muscles of facial expression?
a.Trigeminal (V)
b.Facial (VII)
c.Hypoglossal (XII)
d.Vagus (X)

Cranial nerve VII (the facial nerve) controls the muscles of facial expression. Cranial nerve V (trigeminal) is the chief sensory nerve of the face.

43. The chief sensory nerve of the face is:
a.Vagus nerve (X)
b.Trigeminal nerve (V)
c.Facial nerve (VII)
d.Spinal accessory nerve (XI)

Cranial nerve V (trigeminal) carries most sensation from the face. It has three main branches: ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular.

44. Which muscle wraps around the eye and is responsible for closing the eyelid?
a.Frontalis
b.Masseter
c.Orbicularis oculi
d.Platysma

The orbicularis oculi circles each eye and closes the eyelid. The frontalis raises the eyebrows; the masseter chews; the platysma is a broad neck muscle.

45. The muscle most responsible for raising the eyebrows is the:
a.Trapezius
b.Frontalis
c.Orbicularis oris
d.Masseter

The frontalis (front portion of the occipitofrontalis) lifts the eyebrows and wrinkles the forehead horizontally.

46. The masseter is the chief muscle responsible for:
a.Chewing (mastication)
b.Swallowing
c.Wrinkling the forehead
d.Closing the eyelid

The masseter is a powerful muscle of mastication that raises the mandible to bring the teeth together.

47. Which of these is a major bone of the cranium?
a.Parietal
b.Maxilla
c.Clavicle
d.Mandible

The parietal bones form the sides and top of the cranium. The maxilla and mandible are facial/jaw bones; the clavicle is in the shoulder.

48. Which nerve supplies sensation and motion to the thumb side of the forearm and hand?
a.Radial nerve
b.Vagus nerve
c.Femoral nerve
d.Sciatic nerve

The radial nerve supplies the back of the arm and the thumb side of the hand. Median and ulnar nerves cover the rest of the hand.

49. The muscles that bend the wrist and fingers toward the palm are called:
a.Adductors
b.Extensors
c.Flexors
d.Abductors

Flexor muscles in the forearm bend the wrist and fingers toward the palm. Extensors straighten them away from the palm.

50. During a manicure, hand massage is appropriate as long as the licensee:
a.Diagnoses arthritis
b.Adjusts dislocated joints
c.Treats carpal tunnel syndrome
d.Provides relaxing, surface-level massage of soft tissue

Licensee massage is relaxation-oriented and surface level. Treating joints, diagnosing conditions, or providing therapeutic medical massage is outside scope.

BPC §7316
51. Which of the following acts is clearly outside the scope of a California cosmetologist's license?
a.Injecting fillers or Botox into a client
b.Applying temporary hair color
c.Cutting and styling hair
d.Performing a scalp massage during shampoo

Injecting any substance into the skin is the practice of medicine. Cosmetologists who perform such acts are violating California law.

BPC §7317
52. A California esthetician asks whether she can perform a 'medium-depth' chemical peel that visibly reaches the dermis. The correct answer is:
a.No, peels reaching living/dermal tissue are outside her scope
b.Yes, if she uses sterile gloves
c.Yes, with a signed waiver
d.Yes, if she has 5+ years of experience

Estheticians may only perform superficial peels that act on the stratum corneum. Peels reaching living layers require medical supervision.

BPC §7316
53. Which structure surrounds the lower part of the hair follicle and contains rapidly dividing cells?
a.Stratum corneum
b.Cuticle
c.Free edge
d.Hair bulb

The hair bulb is the swollen base of the follicle that surrounds the dermal papilla; it contains the actively dividing matrix cells that build the hair shaft.

54. Which of the following best describes the immune system's role relevant to salons?
a.It defends the body against pathogens that could enter through broken skin
b.It produces hair pigment
c.It controls hair growth phases
d.It regulates body temperature only

Broken skin is a path for pathogens; the immune system fights infection. Salons reduce risk by maintaining intact skin and properly disinfecting tools.

55. Eczema (atopic dermatitis) is generally:
a.A chronic, non-contagious inflammatory skin condition
b.A contagious bacterial infection
c.A type of cancer of the dermis
d.A fungal infection of the nail

Eczema is chronic, non-contagious, and often itchy. Cosmetologists can adapt to avoid irritation but should not diagnose or treat it.

56. Rosacea typically presents as:
a.Round bald patches on the scalp
b.Yellow, thick toenails
c.Persistent facial redness with possible visible vessels and bumps
d.Silvery scaly plaques on the elbows

Rosacea is a chronic facial condition with redness, flushing, and sometimes papules or visible blood vessels. Licensees adapt the service and avoid irritants.

57. If a client suffers a small cut during a service and bleeds onto a metal implement, the implement must be:
a.Rinsed with warm water only
b.Wiped with a dry towel and reused
c.Cleaned of visible debris and then disinfected with an EPA-registered, hospital-grade disinfectant per label instructions (or discarded if single-use)
d.Sprayed with hairspray

Implements exposed to blood must be cleaned and then disinfected with an EPA-registered, hospital-grade disinfectant used per label, or discarded if single-use.

16 CCR §979
58. An ingrown toenail (onychocryptosis) is best handled in a California salon by:
a.Applying acrylic over the entire nail
b.Cutting into the lateral nail fold to remove the spur
c.Gently smoothing the free edge and recommending the client see a podiatrist if painful or inflamed
d.Soaking in alcohol until soft and then digging it out

Manicurists may file and smooth nails but may not cut into living tissue. A painful or inflamed ingrown nail warrants medical referral.

59. Which sequence correctly lists the layers of the epidermis from deepest to most superficial?
a.Granulosum → basale → spinosum → lucidum → corneum
b.Basale → spinosum → granulosum → lucidum → corneum
c.Corneum → lucidum → granulosum → spinosum → basale
d.Lucidum → corneum → granulosum → spinosum → basale

From deepest to most superficial: stratum basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum (palms/soles only), and corneum.

60. Pathogenic microorganisms are those that:
a.Live only on inanimate surfaces
b.Help digestion in the gut
c.Are too small to be seen with any microscope
d.Cause disease in humans

Pathogenic microbes cause disease. Most microorganisms are non-pathogenic; only a minority cause infections that licensees must guard against.

61. Sebaceous glands open into which structure rather than directly onto the skin surface?
a.The arrector pili muscle
b.The hair follicle
c.The Pacinian corpuscle
d.The sweat duct

Most sebaceous (oil) glands empty their sebum into a hair follicle, lubricating the hair and skin together. Sudoriferous (sweat) glands, in contrast, have their own ducts that open onto the surface.

62. Pacinian corpuscles, located deep in the dermis and subcutaneous layer, are specialized receptors for:
a.Light touch
b.Deep pressure and vibration
c.Sharp pain
d.Skin temperature

Pacinian corpuscles are large, onion-shaped encapsulated receptors that respond to deep pressure and vibration. Meissner corpuscles handle light touch, free nerve endings handle pain and temperature.

63. Sensations of pain, itch, and temperature in the skin are carried mainly by:
a.Merkel discs
b.Meissner corpuscles
c.Pacinian corpuscles
d.Free nerve endings

Free (unencapsulated) nerve endings detect pain, itch, and temperature. Encapsulated receptors like Meissner and Pacinian are tuned to mechanical stimuli such as light touch or deep pressure.

64. A client's intake form notes that her skin's pH is around 5.0. This slightly acidic pH primarily helps to:
a.Increase oil production on the scalp
b.Trigger faster collagen breakdown
c.Speed up melanin production
d.Inhibit growth of harmful bacteria and support the skin barrier

Healthy skin sits at about pH 4.5 to 5.5, called the acid mantle. This mildly acidic film discourages many pathogenic microbes and helps keep the stratum corneum's barrier and moisture intact.

65. Which pair of changes in the dermis is most characteristic of intrinsic (chronological) skin aging?
a.Higher sebum output and more sweat glands
b.Increased collagen production and thicker elastin fibers
c.Reduced collagen synthesis along with fragmented, less elastic elastin
d.Faster melanin turnover and tighter capillaries

With age, fibroblasts produce less collagen each year, while existing elastin fibers fragment and lose recoil. The combined loss is why aged skin appears thinner, looser, and slower to bounce back.

66. Approximately how long does the anagen (active growth) phase of scalp hair typically last in a healthy adult?
a.2 to 3 weeks
b.3 to 7 years
c.10 to 15 years
d.2 to 3 months

Anagen typically lasts about 3 to 7 years for scalp hair. The catagen transition is only 2 to 3 weeks, and telogen (resting/shedding) is about 2 to 3 months.

67. Within the hair root, the small cone of dermal tissue that pushes up into the hair bulb and supplies blood vessels is the:
a.Arrector pili
b.Hair shaft cortex
c.Outer root sheath
d.Dermal papilla

The dermal papilla is the vascular peg at the very base of the follicle. Matrix cells of the bulb surround it and divide rapidly, fed by the papilla's capillaries.

68. Black and brown hair color is produced mainly by which type of melanin?
a.Carotene
b.Pheomelanin
c.Neuromelanin
d.Eumelanin

Eumelanin gives black and brown shades. Pheomelanin produces red and yellow tones. The blend and total amount of these two pigments determines natural hair color.

69. A client asks why her hair is turning gray. The most accurate explanation is that:
a.Sebum production has stopped at the follicle
b.Melanocytes in the hair bulb gradually produce less melanin with age
c.Hair pigment is washed out by everyday shampoo over many years
d.The cuticle scales have flattened, blocking color from reaching the cortex

Graying happens when melanocytes in the hair bulb slowly lose function and deposit less melanin into new hairs. New hairs grow in with less pigment until they appear silver or white.

70. The muscle that pulls the corners of the mouth downward, helping create a frowning expression, is the:
a.Depressor anguli oris
b.Levator labii superioris
c.Risorius
d.Mentalis

Depressor anguli oris pulls the corners of the mouth down. Levator labii superioris lifts the upper lip; mentalis wrinkles the chin; risorius pulls the mouth corners laterally.

71. Together with the masseter, which deep muscle on the side of the head also assists in closing the jaw during chewing?
a.Buccinator
b.Sternocleidomastoid
c.Platysma
d.Temporalis

The temporalis is a fan-shaped muscle on the side of the head that elevates and retracts the mandible. With the masseter and medial pterygoid, it powers chewing.

72. Which branch of the facial nerve (CN VII) is most relevant when an esthetician massages the cheek and area in front of the ear?
a.The radial branch
b.The zygomatic and buccal branches
c.The sciatic branch
d.The phrenic branch

The zygomatic and buccal branches of the facial nerve run across the cheek and supply many muscles of facial expression in that area. Sciatic, radial, and phrenic nerves are not branches of CN VII.

73. Sensation from the lower lip, chin, and lower jaw is carried by which division of the trigeminal nerve (CN V)?
a.Facial (VII)
b.Maxillary (V2)
c.Mandibular (V3)
d.Ophthalmic (V1)

Trigeminal nerve has three sensory divisions: V1 (ophthalmic) for forehead, V2 (maxillary) for cheek/upper lip, V3 (mandibular) for lower lip, chin, and jaw. CN VII is motor, not part of these divisions.

74. When performing a facial lymph drainage massage, the parotid nodes and submandibular nodes ultimately drain toward which deeper group of nodes in the neck?
a.Deep cervical nodes
b.Inguinal nodes
c.Popliteal nodes
d.Axillary nodes

Facial lymph flows through superficial nodes such as parotid and submandibular, then into the deep cervical chain along the neck. Inguinal, axillary, and popliteal nodes drain other body regions.

75. The adult human skull is commonly described as having how many cranial bones and how many facial bones?
a.12 cranial and 10 facial
b.8 cranial and 14 facial
c.6 cranial and 12 facial
d.10 cranial and 16 facial

The adult skull is typically described as 8 cranial bones (frontal, two parietal, two temporal, occipital, sphenoid, ethmoid) and 14 facial bones, including the maxillae, mandible, zygomatics, and nasal bones.

76. New nail plate is produced in which part of the nail unit?
a.The matrix, under the lunula and proximal nail fold
b.The hyponychium
c.The eponychium
d.The free edge

The matrix is the only living, growth-producing portion of the nail unit. Damage there can permanently alter the nail. The free edge, hyponychium, and eponychium are not where new plate is created.

77. The pinkish surface beneath the nail plate that supplies nutrients and gives the plate its color is the:
a.Eponychium
b.Free edge
c.Matrix
d.Nail bed

The nail bed is the living tissue directly under the nail plate; its rich blood supply gives the plate its pink color. The matrix lies further back beneath the lunula; the eponychium is the proximal skin fold.

78. A client habitually bites her fingernails down to the skin. The proper term for this is:
a.Onychophagia
b.Beau's lines
c.Leukonychia
d.Koilonychia

Onychophagia is chronic nail biting. Leukonychia refers to white spots, koilonychia to spoon-shaped nails, and Beau's lines to transverse depressions on the plate after illness or trauma.

79. A manicurist notices a deep horizontal groove running across a client's nail plate. This finding, often appearing after a serious illness or injury, is called:
a.Beau's lines
b.Leukonychia
c.Koilonychia
d.Onycholysis

Beau's lines are transverse depressions in the plate caused by temporary disruption of matrix growth during illness, high fever, chemotherapy, or trauma. They grow out as the nail grows.

80. Small white spots on the nail plate caused by minor trauma to the matrix during nail formation are called:
a.Leukonychia
b.Onychophagia
c.Koilonychia
d.Paronychia

Leukonychia is the term for white spots or marks within the plate, usually from minor matrix trauma. They are harmless and grow out with the nail.

81. A client's fingernails appear concave, like small spoons that can hold a drop of water. This shape is called:
a.Koilonychia
b.Leukonychia
c.Onychomadesis
d.Beau's lines

Koilonychia is a spoon-shaped nail. It may be associated with iron-deficiency anemia or chronic irritation. The licensee should not treat it but may suggest the client consult a physician.

82. A client shows red, greasy-looking scales along the scalp, eyebrows, and sides of the nose that come and go. This is most consistent with:
a.Seborrheic dermatitis
b.Tinea capitis (scalp ringworm)
c.Pediculosis capitis (head lice)
d.Folliculitis

Seborrheic dermatitis is a chronic, non-contagious inflammatory condition seen in oil-rich areas, with red skin and greasy yellow-white scales. Ringworm is fungal and contagious; folliculitis affects follicles with pustules; lice are visible parasites.

83. After a shave service, a client returns with multiple small red bumps and pustules centered on hair follicles along the jaw. The most likely condition is:
a.Rosacea
b.Psoriasis
c.Eczema
d.Folliculitis

Folliculitis is inflammation of hair follicles, often bacterial, that appears as small red bumps or pustules at each follicle. Service should be paused and the client referred for medical evaluation if needed.

84. A client develops itchy, blistering hand eczema only after she begins wearing nitrile gloves with a specific accelerator chemical. This delayed reaction, mediated by T-cells, is best classified as:
a.Bacterial folliculitis
b.Acute anaphylaxis (Type I hypersensitivity)
c.Allergic contact dermatitis (Type IV hypersensitivity)
d.Irritant contact dermatitis from soap dryness

Allergic contact dermatitis is a T-cell-mediated, delayed (Type IV) reaction to a specific allergen, often appearing 24-72 hours after exposure. Irritant contact dermatitis is not immune-mediated and usually appears quickly with strong irritants.

85. A new licensee plans to use a strong acid peel that, by visible inspection, removes part of the dermis to 'treat' deep wrinkles. Under California's cosmetology scope of practice, this is:
a.Allowed if a client signs a consent form
b.Outside the scope of practice because licensees may only act on nonliving epidermal layers
c.Allowed because peels are considered cosmetic, not medical
d.Allowed if the licensee has more than ten years of experience

California cosmetology, esthetics, and barbering licenses are limited to the nonliving outer layers of the skin and superficial work. Procedures that intentionally injure or remove the dermis cross into the practice of medicine, regardless of consent or experience.

BPC §7316
86. Sebaceous glands in the dermis empty their secretion into which structure, and what is the secretion called?
a.Into a sweat duct; the secretion is histamine
b.Into the dermal blood vessels; the secretion is collagen
c.Into the hair follicle just above the bulb; the secretion is sebum, an oily mixture of lipids and dead sebaceous cells
d.Directly onto the skin surface through their own pore; the secretion is sweat

Sebaceous glands are holocrine glands attached to nearly every hair follicle on the body except the palms and soles. They release sebum, an oily lipid mixture (triglycerides, wax esters, squalene) made by the breakdown of the gland's own cells, into the upper portion of the hair follicle. Sebum then travels up the follicular canal and lubricates the hair and skin surface. Recognizing the anatomy supports safe extraction technique and product selection, both within the scope of California licensees under Bus. & Prof. Code §7320. Option B confuses sebaceous with sudoriferous (sweat) glands. Option C names an unrelated cellular mediator. Option D confuses sebum with collagen, a structural fiber made by fibroblasts.

Bus. & Prof. Code §7320
87. Which structure of the nail unit is the LIVING tissue responsible for producing new nail plate cells?
a.Nail matrix (the living tissue beneath the proximal nail fold, partly visible as the lunula)
b.Eponychium (the cuticle skin overlying the matrix)
c.Nail plate (the visible, hardened nail)
d.Hyponychium (the seal under the free edge)

The nail matrix is the only LIVING part of the nail unit that actively divides to produce new nail plate. It lies under the proximal nail fold; the visible white half-moon (lunula) is the distal edge of the matrix showing through. Damage to the matrix from aggressive filing, trauma, or chemical injury can produce ridges, splits, or permanent nail deformity. The nail plate itself is dead, keratinized tissue. The hyponychium and eponychium are protective seals of skin. Manicurists who understand this anatomy are practicing safely within the scope California sets under Bus. & Prof. Code §7320 and §7321.

Bus. & Prof. Code §7320
88. Which list correctly orders the three phases of the hair growth cycle, from longest to shortest?
a.Anagen, catagen, telogen, all equal in length
b.Anagen (active growth, 2 to 6 years on the scalp), telogen (resting, about 2 to 4 months), catagen (transition, about 2 to 3 weeks)
c.Catagen, telogen, anagen
d.Telogen, anagen, catagen

Hair grows in a repeating cycle of three phases. Anagen is by far the longest, lasting 2 to 6 years for scalp hair and defining the maximum length a person can grow. Telogen is the resting and shedding phase, lasting roughly 2 to 4 months, during which the hair sits in the follicle until pushed out by a new anagen hair. Catagen is the brief transitional phase, lasting only about 2 to 3 weeks, in which the follicle prepares to regress. Knowing the durations supports honest consultation about hair loss and growth expectations under the licensee's general competence duties at Bus. & Prof. Code §7320. Options A, B, and D misorder or equalize the phases.

Bus. & Prof. Code §7320
89. Which list correctly orders the three layers of the hair shaft from the OUTSIDE in?
a.Cuticle (outer overlapping scales), cortex (middle, with pigment and keratin fibers; the strongest layer that gives hair color and elasticity), medulla (innermost core, often absent in very fine hair)
b.Medulla, cortex, cuticle
c.Cortex, medulla, cuticle
d.Cuticle, medulla, cortex

From outside to inside the hair shaft is: CUTICLE (overlapping translucent keratin scales that protect the strand and reflect light when smooth), CORTEX (the bulky middle layer containing the keratin fiber bundles, melanin pigment, and most of the side bonds; responsible for strength, elasticity, and color), and MEDULLA (the innermost honeycomb-like core, sometimes fragmentary or absent, especially in fine or blonde hair). Chemical services target the cortex but must first pass through the cuticle. Cosmetologists rely on this anatomy daily under the general competence duties at Bus. & Prof. Code §7320. Options A, B, and D scramble the order in ways the exam tests directly.

Bus. & Prof. Code §7320
90. The arrector pili muscle is associated with which structure, and what does it do?
a.It is the muscle of the nail matrix that pushes the nail plate forward
b.It is the muscle that opens and closes the iris of the eye
c.It is a tiny smooth-muscle slip attached to the side of the hair follicle; when it contracts it pulls the follicle upright and produces 'goosebumps' (cutis anserina) and helps squeeze the sebaceous gland to release sebum onto the hair
d.It is a striated voluntary muscle the client can contract on command to grow hair faster

The arrector pili is a small SMOOTH (involuntary) muscle that originates on the dermis and inserts on the side of the hair follicle. When it contracts in response to cold or fear, it stands the hair upright and dimples the surrounding skin to produce goosebumps. Its contraction also helps express sebum from the attached sebaceous gland up the follicle to the surface. It is not voluntary, not involved in nail anatomy, and not in the eye. Cosmetologists rely on integumentary anatomy daily under the general competence duties at Bus. & Prof. Code §7320. Options B, C, and D describe entirely different structures.

Bus. & Prof. Code §7320
91. Hair color is determined by two melanin pigments produced by melanocytes in the hair bulb. Which pairing is correct?
a.Both eumelanin and pheomelanin produce identical brown only; tone differences come entirely from the cuticle
b.Eumelanin (a larger, oval-shaped granule) produces brown to black tones; pheomelanin (a smaller, more granular pigment) produces red to yellow tones; their relative ratio explains the spectrum from black to platinum
c.Both are produced in the cuticle, not in the bulb, and only after age 30
d.Eumelanin produces red/yellow tones; pheomelanin produces brown/black tones

Two melanins are made in the hair bulb by melanocytes adjacent to the dermal papilla. EUMELANIN is the larger oval-shaped pigment responsible for brown and black tones; the more eumelanin and the larger the molecules, the darker the hair. PHEOMELANIN is the smaller, granular pigment responsible for red, orange, and yellow tones. Every hair has BOTH, in varying ratios; that ratio (plus melanin quantity overall) produces the entire natural spectrum. Knowing eumelanin breaks down first during lifting explains why lifted hair always pulls through warm intermediate stages. Cosmetologists apply this under the general competence duties at Bus. & Prof. Code §7320.

Bus. & Prof. Code §7320
92. Which list correctly identifies the THREE main layers of the integumentary system from superficial to deep?
a.Epidermis, subcutaneous, dermis
b.Subcutaneous, dermis, epidermis
c.Dermis, epidermis, subcutaneous (hypodermis)
d.Epidermis (outermost), dermis (middle, with most blood vessels, nerves, glands, and hair follicles), subcutaneous / hypodermis (deepest, mostly adipose / fat tissue providing insulation and cushioning)

From the outside in, the integumentary system has three principal layers: the EPIDERMIS (avascular, multi-layered keratinized epithelium with melanocytes), the DERMIS (vascularized connective tissue containing blood vessels, sensory nerves, sebaceous and sudoriferous glands, and hair follicles), and the SUBCUTANEOUS or HYPODERMIS layer (mainly adipose tissue plus larger vessels and nerves, providing insulation, energy storage, and cushioning). Cosmetic services act on the epidermis and at most the upper papillary dermis; cosmetologists may not legally penetrate the dermis. Options A, B, and C scramble the order in ways the exam tests directly. Scope and competence sit under Bus. & Prof. Code §7320.

Bus. & Prof. Code §7320
93. A client mentions during consultation that she takes blood-thinner medication (warfarin) after a heart-valve replacement. The MOST relevant cardiovascular consideration for the licensee is to:
a.Refuse all service because every service is unsafe for cardiac clients
b.Proceed without modification because cosmetic services have nothing to do with cardiology
c.Take extra care to avoid any service that breaks skin or aggressively pushes cuticle, since anticoagulation prolongs bleeding from even small nicks; avoid invasive electrotherapy contraindicated by pacemakers, and document the disclosure on the consultation form, referring questions back to her physician
d.Apply pressure to the carotid artery to slow her pulse during the service

Clients on anticoagulants such as warfarin, apixaban, or aspirin therapy bleed longer and more easily from minor nicks (cuticle, shave, brow tweezing) than the general population. The licensee should document the disclosure on the consultation form, avoid any service that breaks skin or aggressively pushes the cuticle, and avoid services contraindicated by the underlying condition (for example, high-frequency current is contraindicated for pacemakers). The licensee may not diagnose, advise about medication, or perform medical maneuvers (option D is unsafe and outside scope). Refusing all services (option A) and ignoring the disclosure (option B) are both extreme. Competence and scope are set under Bus. & Prof. Code §7320.

Bus. & Prof. Code §7320
94. The sudoriferous glands and the sebaceous glands have different secretions, structures, and purposes. Which pairing is correct?
a.Sudoriferous glands secrete sebum directly onto the hair; sebaceous glands secrete sweat through pores
b.Sudoriferous (sweat) glands secrete a watery solution of water, salts, and urea for thermoregulation through coiled tubular glands opening directly onto the skin via sweat pores; sebaceous (oil) glands are saclike holocrine glands that empty oily sebum into the upper hair follicle
c.Both secrete melanin
d.Both are identical glands with different names

Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are coiled tubular structures in the dermis that secrete a thin watery fluid of water, sodium chloride, and urea directly onto the skin surface through their own pores; their main job is thermoregulation, with apocrine variants in the axilla and groin contributing to body odor. Sebaceous (oil) glands are saclike, holocrine, attached to nearly every hair follicle except palms and soles; they secrete sebum (a lipid mixture from the breakdown of the gland's own cells) into the upper portion of the hair follicle, lubricating skin and hair. Neither secretes melanin. Cosmetologists rely on this anatomy under Bus. & Prof. Code §7320.

Bus. & Prof. Code §7320

Chemistry & Products

64 questions
1. On the pH scale, which value represents a neutral solution at room temperature?
a.0
b.14
c.7
d.10

The pH scale runs from 0 to 14. A value of 7 is neutral (the pH of pure water). Below 7 is acidic; above 7 is alkaline.

2. What is the approximate natural pH range of healthy hair and skin?
a.3.5 to 4.0
b.7.0 to 8.0
c.4.5 to 5.5
d.1.5 to 3.0

Healthy hair and skin sit in a slightly acidic range of about 4.5 to 5.5. This is often called the acid mantle and helps protect against bacteria and moisture loss.

3. A change from pH 5 to pH 7 represents how much of a change in hydrogen ion concentration?
a.2 times less acidic
b.10 times less acidic
c.100 times less acidic
d.No change

The pH scale is logarithmic, so each whole number is a tenfold change. Two units (pH 5 to pH 7) means the solution is 10 x 10 = 100 times less acidic.

4. Sodium hydroxide hair relaxers (commonly called 'lye relaxers') typically have a pH of approximately:
a.7 to 8
b.5 to 6
c.12 to 14
d.9 to 10

Sodium hydroxide relaxers are very alkaline, with a pH of about 12 to 14. The high pH swells and breaks disulfide bonds quickly, so processing must be timed carefully to avoid scalp burns.

5. Which statement best describes a 'no-lye' relaxer compared to a 'lye' relaxer?
a.No-lye relaxers are stronger than lye relaxers
b.No-lye relaxers use guanidine hydroxide and tend to be gentler on the scalp but can leave hair drier
c.No-lye relaxers contain sodium hydroxide and process faster
d.No-lye relaxers are neutral in pH and require no neutralizer

No-lye relaxers most commonly use guanidine hydroxide (mixed on site from calcium hydroxide and guanidine carbonate). They are generally less irritating to the scalp but can leave more mineral deposits, making hair feel drier.

6. Which chemical bond is broken when hair is permanently waved or relaxed?
a.Hydrogen bonds
b.Peptide bonds
c.Disulfide bonds
d.Salt bonds

Permanent waving and chemical relaxing both break and reform the disulfide bonds in keratin. Hydrogen and salt bonds are only temporarily broken by water or heat styling.

7. In a cold permanent wave, which chemical acts as the reducing agent that breaks disulfide bonds?
a.Sodium hydroxide
b.Hydrogen peroxide
c.Sodium bromate
d.Ammonium thioglycolate

Cold waves use ammonium thioglycolate (ATG) as the waving lotion. It is a reducing agent that breaks disulfide bonds at room temperature. The neutralizer (usually hydrogen peroxide or sodium bromate) then re-forms the bonds in the new shape.

8. The neutralizer applied after the waving lotion in a permanent wave is an example of what type of chemical reaction?
a.Reduction
b.Hydrolysis
c.Neutralization (acid-base only)
d.Oxidation

The neutralizer (typically hydrogen peroxide) oxidizes the broken disulfide bonds, allowing them to re-form in the curled shape. Even though the product is called a 'neutralizer,' the chemistry is an oxidation reaction.

9. Which category of hair color coats the outside of the hair shaft and washes out in one to two shampoos?
a.Permanent
b.Demi-permanent
c.Semi-permanent
d.Temporary

Temporary colors (rinses, color sprays, gels) coat only the cuticle and rinse out in one to two shampoos. They do not penetrate the cortex.

10. Which type of hair color penetrates into the cortex and chemically lightens natural pigment while depositing new color?
a.Color-depositing conditioner
b.Permanent color (oxidative)
c.Temporary color
d.Semi-permanent color

Permanent (oxidative) color is mixed with a developer (hydrogen peroxide). It penetrates the cortex, lightens existing melanin, and deposits new color molecules that are too large to wash out.

11. A client wants to deposit color only, with no lift, and have it gradually fade over 4 to 6 weeks. Which product is most appropriate?
a.Temporary color rinse
b.Demi-permanent color with low-volume developer
c.Sodium hydroxide relaxer
d.30 volume developer with permanent color

Demi-permanent (deposit-only) color uses a low-volume developer (typically 5 to 10 volume). It deposits color, gives slight conditioning, and fades gradually with no significant lift.

12. What does the 'volume' rating on hydrogen peroxide developer indicate?
a.The amount of oxygen gas released per volume of liquid
b.The number of ounces in the bottle
c.The pH of the developer
d.The thickness of the cream

Developer volume refers to the volume of oxygen gas released per volume of peroxide. 10 volume means each unit of peroxide releases 10 units of oxygen. Higher volume = more lift.

13. Which developer volume is typically used for deposit-only color and toners with no lift?
a.30 volume
b.10 volume
c.20 volume
d.40 volume

10 volume developer (about 3% hydrogen peroxide) deposits color and tones without lifting. 20 vol gives one to two levels of lift; 30 vol gives two to three; 40 vol gives the maximum lift used for high-lift color.

14. 20 volume developer is approximately what percentage of hydrogen peroxide by weight?
a.6%
b.5%
c.3%
d.12%

20 volume developer is approximately 6% hydrogen peroxide. 10 vol is about 3%, 30 vol about 9%, and 40 vol about 12%.

15. A formula calls for a 1:2 mixing ratio of color to developer. If you use 2 ounces of color, how much developer should you add?
a.1 ounce
b.4 ounces
c.2 ounces
d.3 ounces

A 1:2 ratio means two parts developer for every one part color. 2 oz color x 2 = 4 oz developer.

16. What is the primary cleansing ingredient in shampoo?
a.Preservative
b.Emulsifier
c.Humectant
d.Surfactant (detergent)

Shampoos clean using surfactants (surface-active agents). One end of the molecule attracts water (hydrophilic) and the other attracts oil and dirt (lipophilic), allowing soils to be rinsed away.

17. A 'pH-balanced' shampoo is formulated to a pH of approximately:
a.7.0 (neutral)
b.6.0 to 6.5
c.4.5 to 5.5
d.8.0 to 9.0

pH-balanced shampoos are formulated to roughly match the natural pH of hair and skin (about 4.5 to 5.5). This helps the cuticle lie flat and reduces dryness and irritation.

18. Which type of shampoo is best for removing mineral and product buildup before a chemical service?
a.Color-safe shampoo
b.Clarifying shampoo
c.Moisturizing shampoo
d.Dry shampoo

Clarifying shampoos contain stronger surfactants or chelating agents that remove hard-water minerals, chlorine, and styling product residue. They are useful before chemical services but can be drying with frequent use.

19. Alpha hydroxy acids (AHAs) such as glycolic and lactic acid act primarily on the skin by:
a.Bleaching pigment in the cortex
b.Killing bacteria deep in the dermis
c.Exfoliating the surface of the stratum corneum
d.Tightening the underlying muscle

AHAs are water-soluble acids that loosen the bonds between dead surface skin cells (corneocytes), promoting gentle exfoliation. They work on the surface of the stratum corneum, not in the dermis.

20. Salicylic acid (a beta hydroxy acid) is especially useful for which type of skin?
a.Sun-damaged hyperpigmented skin
b.Dry, mature skin
c.Oily, acne-prone skin
d.Sensitive, rosacea-prone skin

Salicylic acid (BHA) is oil-soluble, so it can penetrate through sebum into pores. This makes it useful for oily and acne-prone skin to clear clogged follicles.

21. Retinoids (vitamin A derivatives) are used in skin care primarily to:
a.Disinfect the surface of the skin
b.Provide chemical sunscreen protection
c.Neutralize chemical relaxers
d.Increase cell turnover and stimulate collagen

Retinoids speed up cell turnover and stimulate collagen and elastin production, making them popular for anti-aging and acne treatment. They can cause dryness and increased sun sensitivity.

22. What does the 'SPF' number on a sunscreen primarily measure?
a.Protection against UVB radiation
b.Protection against infrared radiation
c.Hours the product lasts on the skin
d.Protection against UVA radiation

SPF (Sun Protection Factor) measures protection against UVB rays, which cause sunburn. For UVA protection (which causes aging), look for 'broad-spectrum' on the label.

23. Under Cal/OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard, a salon must keep a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) for:
a.Only products that contain alcohol
b.Only products purchased from out of state
c.Every hazardous chemical product used in the salon
d.Only products used on minors

8 CCR §5194 requires employers to maintain an SDS for each hazardous chemical present in the workplace and to make them readily accessible to employees during their shift.

8 CCR §5194
24. How many sections does a Safety Data Sheet contain under the current Globally Harmonized System (GHS) format?
a.12
b.16
c.24
d.8

GHS-formatted SDSs have 16 standardized sections, ranging from product identification (Section 1) to other information (Section 16), including first aid, handling, and toxicology.

8 CCR §5194
25. Methyl methacrylate (MMA) liquid monomer is:
a.The standard ingredient in acrylic nail systems
b.Prohibited from use on the nails of clients in California
c.Used as a UV gel base coat
d.Allowed only with written client consent

Business and Professions Code §7315 prohibits the use of MMA liquid monomer on clients in California. Ethyl methacrylate (EMA) is the legal alternative for acrylic nail systems.

BPC §7315
26. Hair with low porosity tends to:
a.Resist chemical penetration because the cuticle lies flat
b.Hold color longer because the cortex is exposed
c.Process the same as high-porosity hair
d.Absorb chemicals very quickly because the cuticle is open

Low-porosity hair has tightly packed cuticle scales that resist absorbing water and chemicals. It may require longer processing or a presoftener. High-porosity hair absorbs and releases chemicals quickly.

27. Before a permanent wave, a strand test is performed mainly to:
a.Determine processing time and curl result on this specific hair
b.Calculate the developer cost
c.Check the client's blood pressure
d.Measure the room humidity

A strand test (also called a test curl) shows how the client's hair will respond to the wave solution so the stylist can choose the right product and time, preventing over- or under-processing.

28. Under California sanitation rules, salon chemical products should be stored:
a.In a labeled, closed container in a clean, dry area separate from food
b.Anywhere in the salon convenient to the operator
c.In the restroom, away from clients
d.In open bowls so they can be quickly accessed

16 CCR §979 requires products to be properly labeled and stored in clean, dry areas, separate from food, and in closed containers when not in use to avoid contamination or spills.

16 CCR §979
29. Leftover chemical color and developer should be disposed of by:
a.Following the manufacturer's SDS guidance and local hazardous-waste rules
b.Storing it in an open bowl for the next client
c.Pouring it down the storm drain
d.Burning it in the parking lot

SDS Section 13 covers disposal. Used chemicals must be disposed of according to the manufacturer's directions and local hazardous-waste regulations, not into storm drains or open containers.

30. Which section of an SDS tells the cosmetologist what to do if the chemical is splashed in the eyes?
a.Section 16 — Other Information
b.Section 9 — Physical and Chemical Properties
c.Section 4 — First-Aid Measures
d.Section 13 — Disposal Considerations

Section 4 (First-Aid Measures) of a GHS-formatted SDS lists the immediate steps to take for eye, skin, inhalation, and ingestion exposure.

31. After a chemical service that raises the hair's pH (such as relaxing or permanent color), an acidic 'normalizing' or finishing rinse is used to:
a.Lighten the hair further
b.Lower the pH and help the cuticle lie flat
c.Open the cuticle to add more color
d.Disinfect the scalp

Acidic finishing rinses bring the hair back toward its natural pH (around 4.5 to 5.5). This helps the cuticle close, locks in color, and reduces frizz.

32. A solution at pH 3 contains how many more hydrogen ions than a solution at pH 6?
a.30 times more
b.10,000 times more
c.1,000 times more
d.3 times more

The pH scale is logarithmic and inverted: each whole-number drop multiplies hydrogen-ion concentration by 10. Going from pH 6 to pH 3 is a 3-unit drop, so 10 x 10 x 10 = 1,000 times more hydrogen ions.

33. When an alkaline product such as ammonia is applied to the hair, the cuticle layer:
a.Closes tightly to seal in moisture
b.Becomes electrically charged but does not move
c.Detaches completely from the cortex
d.Swells and lifts open, allowing chemicals to enter the cortex

Alkaline solutions (pH above the natural 4.5 to 5.5 range) swell the hair shaft and lift the imbricated cuticle scales. The raised cuticle is what allows oxidative color, lighteners, and waving solutions to reach the cortex.

34. A bleach manufacturer specifies a 1:2 ratio of lightener powder to developer. If you scoop 1 ounce of powder, how many ounces of developer do you add?
a.4 ounces
b.3 ounces
c.0.5 ounce
d.2 ounces

A 1:2 powder-to-developer ratio means two parts developer per one part powder. 1 oz powder x 2 = 2 oz developer. Using less developer than directed produces a stiff, dry paste that overheats and can scorch hair.

35. Approximately what percentage of hydrogen peroxide by weight is in a 40-volume developer?
a.6%
b.3%
c.12%
d.9%

Volume rating divided by roughly 3.3 gives the percent peroxide: 10 vol is about 3%, 20 vol about 6%, 30 vol about 9%, and 40 vol about 12%. 40 vol is reserved for high-lift permanent color and is not used for on-scalp bleach.

36. Compared with a thiol-based (ammonium thioglycolate) perm, a sulfite-based 'true acid' perm typically:
a.Requires no neutralizer because no bonds are broken
b.Uses sodium hydroxide as its reducing agent
c.Has a higher pH and processes faster than thio waves
d.Has a near-neutral to slightly acidic pH and produces a softer, less aggressive curl

Sulfite (acid) waves use ammonium sulfite or bisulfite at a pH near 6.5 to 7. They swell the hair less than alkaline thio waves, so they create a softer curl and are gentler on porous or color-treated hair, though processing time is longer.

37. Surfactants in shampoo are classified by the electrical charge of their head group. Which charge class is the primary CLEANSING surfactant in most shampoos?
a.Cationic (positive)
b.Anionic (negative)
c.Amphoteric (both charges)
d.Nonionic (no charge)

Anionic surfactants such as sodium lauryl sulfate carry a negative charge and produce strong lather and grease removal, so they are the main cleansing detergents. Cationic agents condition, amphoterics are mild, and nonionics are used as emulsifiers and solubilizers.

38. Cationic surfactants such as quaternary ammonium compounds are most often found in:
a.Conditioners and detangling rinses
b.Deep-cleansing clarifying shampoos
c.Permanent waving solutions
d.Hard-surface salon disinfectant sprays only

Cationic (positively charged) surfactants are attracted to the negatively charged sites on damaged hair. They neutralize static, smooth the cuticle, and help detangling, which is exactly what conditioners are designed to do.

39. Which statement comparing sodium lauryl sulfate (SLS) and sodium laureth sulfate (SLES) is most accurate?
a.SLS is cationic and SLES is anionic
b.SLS is non-foaming while SLES produces lather
c.They are the same molecule with different brand names
d.SLES has added ethoxylate units that make it milder and less irritating to skin and scalp than SLS

Both are anionic sulfate cleansers, but SLES has been ethoxylated (extra polyethylene glycol units inserted into the molecule). The added bulk makes SLES gentler on skin and eyes than the smaller, more aggressive SLS while keeping good foam.

40. Which skin-care ingredient functions as a HUMECTANT by drawing water from the air and from deeper skin layers to the surface?
a.Zinc oxide
b.Glycerin
c.Benzoyl peroxide
d.Mineral oil

Glycerin is a classic humectant; its hydroxyl groups bind water molecules and pull them toward the stratum corneum. Mineral oil is an occlusive, zinc oxide is a physical sunscreen, and benzoyl peroxide is an acne-fighting oxidizer.

41. Among the common alpha hydroxy acids used in chemical exfoliants, which acid has the SMALLEST molecule and therefore the deepest penetration into the stratum corneum?
a.Lactic acid
b.Citric acid
c.Glycolic acid
d.Mandelic acid

Glycolic acid has the smallest molecular size of the common AHAs, so it penetrates fastest and deepest. Lactic acid is larger and is preferred when extra hydration is desired; mandelic and citric acids are larger still and act more gently on the surface.

42. Which list correctly orders these retinoids from WEAKEST to STRONGEST as they appear at the same concentration?
a.Tretinoin, retinaldehyde, retinol
b.Retinol, tretinoin, retinaldehyde
c.Retinaldehyde, retinol, tretinoin
d.Retinol, retinaldehyde, tretinoin

Retinoids must be converted into retinoic acid in the skin to act. Retinol takes two conversion steps, retinaldehyde takes one, and tretinoin (retinoic acid) is already active. Fewer steps means stronger and faster effect at the same percentage.

43. A broad-spectrum SPF 30 sunscreen blocks approximately what percentage of UVB radiation when applied correctly?
a.About 97%
b.About 90%
c.Less than 50%
d.About 75%

SPF math: SPF 15 blocks about 93% of UVB, SPF 30 about 97%, and SPF 50 about 98%. The jump from 30 to 50 only adds 1 percent more protection, so reapplication every two hours matters more than chasing a higher number.

44. Which pair of active ingredients indicates that a sunscreen is a PHYSICAL (mineral) sunscreen rather than a chemical one?
a.Octinoxate and octocrylene
b.Avobenzone and oxybenzone
c.Zinc oxide and titanium dioxide
d.Homosalate and octisalate

Physical (mineral) sunscreens use zinc oxide and/or titanium dioxide to sit on the skin and reflect or scatter UV light. The other ingredients listed are organic UV filters that absorb UV energy and convert it to heat, defining chemical sunscreens.

45. A new cosmetologist wants to know the product name, manufacturer, and emergency contact for a chemical in the dispensary. Which section of the GHS Safety Data Sheet contains that information?
a.Section 8 — Exposure Controls / Personal Protection
b.Section 14 — Transport Information
c.Section 1 — Identification
d.Section 9 — Physical and Chemical Properties

Section 1 (Identification) of the GHS 16-section SDS lists the product identifier, manufacturer name, address, and emergency phone number. Cal/OSHA's 8 CCR §5194 requires this sheet to be accessible to every employee on shift.

8 CCR §5194
46. Which SDS section lists the recommended ventilation, gloves, and eye protection required when working with a chemical?
a.Section 14 — Transport Information
b.Section 2 — Hazard Identification
c.Section 8 — Exposure Controls / Personal Protection
d.Section 4 — First-Aid Measures

Section 8 of a GHS-formatted SDS gives exposure limits and the engineering controls and personal protective equipment (gloves, eye protection, ventilation, respirator if needed) that the employer must provide under 8 CCR §5194.

8 CCR §5194
47. Most lotions, conditioners, and creamy hair colors are oil-in-water (O/W) emulsions, meaning:
a.Oil and water form two separate layers that are shaken together at use
b.Water droplets are suspended inside a continuous oil phase
c.There is no water present; only oils and waxes
d.Oil droplets are dispersed throughout a continuous water phase

In an oil-in-water emulsion, tiny oil droplets are suspended in a much larger continuous water phase, stabilized by an emulsifier. O/W products feel lighter and less greasy, which is why they dominate lotions and rinse-out conditioners. W/O is the reverse (water-in-oil) and feels heavier.

48. Oxidative (permanent) hair color and developer that have already been mixed should be:
a.Capped and refrigerated for up to 30 days
b.Used immediately and any leftover discarded; never stored for later use
c.Diluted with water and saved for the next root touch-up
d.Stored in an open bowl on the counter until the next client

Once color and peroxide are combined, the oxidation reaction begins. The mixture loses strength, can build dangerous pressure if sealed in a bottle, and is unsafe to apply later. Mix only what you need and discard leftover per the SDS.

49. From a molecular standpoint, why does methyl methacrylate (MMA) carry a much higher allergy and damage risk than ethyl methacrylate (EMA) on natural nails?
a.MMA has a smaller molecule that penetrates the nail plate more easily and bonds too rigidly to the natural nail
b.MMA is alkaline and EMA is acidic
c.MMA evaporates before it can react
d.MMA is water-based while EMA is solvent-based

MMA's smaller molecular size lets it diffuse into the nail plate and surrounding skin, increasing sensitization risk, and it cures into an extremely hard, inflexible film that can tear the natural nail off if bumped. For these reasons California's BPC §7315 bans MMA monomer on clients; EMA is the legal acrylic monomer.

BPC §7315
50. A client wants a serum to help refill water loss in dehydrated skin without leaving a greasy film. Which ingredient is BEST known for binding many times its own weight in water within the upper skin layers?
a.Petrolatum
b.Hyaluronic acid
c.Beeswax
d.Stearic acid

Hyaluronic acid is a naturally occurring polysaccharide that can hold many times its weight in water in the upper epidermis, plumping dehydrated skin without occluding it. Petrolatum and beeswax are occlusive sealers; stearic acid is mainly a thickener.

51. Ceramides are added to moisturizers primarily because they:
a.Replenish the natural lipid 'mortar' between skin cells to repair the barrier and slow water loss
b.Function as anionic detergents that cleanse the scalp
c.Exfoliate the surface in the same way as glycolic acid
d.Provide chemical UV protection equivalent to SPF 15

Ceramides are lipids that, together with cholesterol and fatty acids, form the 'mortar' that holds stratum-corneum cells together. Topping up ceramides restores the skin barrier and reduces transepidermal water loss, which is why they are key in barrier-repair moisturizers.

52. Which statement about oxidation and reduction in salon chemistry is correct?
a.Oxidation is the loss of electrons (or the addition of oxygen); reduction is the gain of electrons (or the addition of hydrogen)
b.Oxidation and reduction are the same reaction with different names
c.Oxidation is the gain of electrons; reduction is the loss of electrons
d.Oxidation always requires direct sunlight; reduction always requires heat

The mnemonic OIL RIG (Oxidation Is Loss, Reduction Is Gain) of electrons keeps the direction straight. In the salon, oxidation underlies permanent hair color (peroxide oxidizes the dye and the natural melanin), and reduction underlies permanent waves (thioglycolate donates hydrogen to break disulfide bonds). California licensees apply these reactions under product-use and sanitation duties at CCR Title 16 §979.4. Option A reverses the definitions. Option B confuses chemical change with environmental conditions. Option D claims they are identical, when in fact oxidation and reduction are linked but opposite half-reactions in a redox process.

CCR Title 16 §979.4
53. The three side bonds that give hair its shape are hydrogen, salt, and disulfide bonds. Which list correctly orders them from WEAKEST to STRONGEST?
a.Hydrogen < salt < disulfide
b.All three bond types are exactly equal in strength
c.Salt < disulfide < hydrogen
d.Disulfide < salt < hydrogen

Hydrogen bonds are the weakest of the three; they break with water and reform when the hair dries, which is why wet-set styling holds until it gets damp again. Salt bonds are intermediate; they break with strong acids or alkalis. Disulfide bonds are by far the strongest; they require a chemical reducing agent in a permanent wave or relaxer to break. California licensees rely on this hierarchy when performing thermal styling versus chemical services under CCR Title 16 §979.4. Option A reverses the order. Option C swaps salt and hydrogen. Option D ignores the published bond energies that any chemistry textbook for cosmetology lists.

CCR Title 16 §979.4
54. A neutralizer in a permanent wave service works chemically by:
a.Adding water to dilute the waving lotion until it is harmless
b.Mechanically pulling the bonds back together with the rubber band on the rod
c.Oxidizing the broken disulfide bonds, often using hydrogen peroxide or sodium bromate, to restore the cystine cross-links in the new curled position
d.Lowering the pH to 3 with a strong acid that physically melts the rod

Cold permanent waves use ammonium thioglycolate to REDUCE disulfide bonds, allowing the hair to take the new shape of the rod. The neutralizer then OXIDIZES the now-rearranged cysteine residues back into cystine disulfide bonds, locking in the curl. Typical neutralizers are hydrogen peroxide or sodium bromate. California licensees use both steps in scope under CCR Title 16 §979.4. Option B confuses pH with the chemistry of the reaction. Option C describes simple dilution, which would not reform bonds. Option D imagines a mechanical bond-restoration that has no chemical basis.

CCR Title 16 §979.4
55. A surfactant molecule has a hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail. In a shampoo, the tail's primary function is to:
a.Coat the cuticle to add shine after rinsing
b.Raise the pH of the scalp
c.Attach to oil and debris on the hair so that rinsing water can carry the bundled surfactant-and-oil micelles away
d.Carry water-soluble nutrients into the cortex

Surfactants reduce the surface tension of water and form micelles in which the hydrophobic tails point inward and grab onto oil and dirt, while the hydrophilic heads point outward into the water. Rinsing then sweeps the entire micelle, oil included, off the hair. Cal/OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard §5194 requires that the SDS for shampoos disclose surfactant identity and hazards. Option A describes a conditioner's positively charged quaternary, not a shampoo surfactant. Option B is unrelated; surfactants are not pH adjusters. Option C imagines transdermal delivery into the cortex, which surfactants do not perform during a normal shampoo.

Cal/OSHA §5194
56. A bottle of 30-volume hydrogen peroxide developer is approximately what percentage of hydrogen peroxide by weight, and what is its main coloring purpose?
a.About 3 percent; deposit-only with no lift
b.About 30 percent; reserved for chemical relaxer service only
c.About 60 percent; only used in salons with a chemistry license
d.About 9 percent; lifts approximately 2 to 3 levels and is a common developer for permanent single-process color

Each 'volume' of hydrogen peroxide corresponds to roughly 0.3 percent peroxide by weight, so 30-volume is approximately 9 percent. At that concentration the developer can lift natural pigment about 2 to 3 levels while depositing oxidative color, the workhorse choice for many single-process colors. California licensees apply oxidative color under CCR Title 16 §979.4. Option A describes 10-volume, which is for deposit only. Option C inflates the percentage to a level not sold for cosmetic use. Option D invents a 'chemistry license' that does not exist in California beauty regulation.

CCR Title 16 §979.4
57. Which protein bond is most directly responsible for the permanent shape change that occurs in a thio relaxer or cold perm?
a.Hydrogen bond, because it is the most plentiful
b.Disulfide (cystine) bond between two cysteine residues, which is broken by a reducing agent and rebuilt in the new shape by an oxidizing neutralizer
c.Peptide bond, which the chemical services routinely break and reform
d.Salt bond, because it is sensitive to alkalinity

Disulfide bonds (S-S cross-links between two cysteine amino acids in adjacent keratin chains) are the strongest of the three side bonds in hair. Permanent chemical reshaping is the controlled breaking and reforming of disulfide bonds: a reducing agent such as ammonium thioglycolate or ammonium sulfite donates hydrogen to break the bond, the hair is reshaped on a rod or pressed straight, and an oxidizing neutralizer rebuilds the disulfides in the new position. Salt and hydrogen bonds are too weak to hold permanent shape. Peptide bonds are the backbone of the protein and are NOT broken in routine chemical services. The relevant SDS under Cal/OSHA §5194 spells out the hazards of both reducers and neutralizers.

Cal/OSHA §5194
58. Ammonium thioglycolate (used in cold perms and thio relaxers) and sodium hydroxide (used in lye relaxers) differ in which fundamental way?
a.Thioglycolate is a REDUCING agent at moderate alkaline pH (around 9 to 10) that breaks disulfides reversibly; sodium hydroxide is a strong ALKALI at pH 12 to 14 that destroys disulfides irreversibly by converting them to single lanthionine bonds
b.Thioglycolate is a bleach; sodium hydroxide is a conditioner
c.Both are oxidizing agents differing only in concentration
d.Both work at pH 5 (acidic) and are essentially interchangeable

Thioglycolate is a sulfur-containing reducing agent: it donates hydrogen to the disulfide bond, splitting it into two cysteine thiols, a reversible change that an oxidizing neutralizer can put back together. Sodium hydroxide is one of the strongest alkalis used on skin; at pH 12 to 14 it strips a sulfur atom out of the disulfide entirely, converting cystine to lanthionine, a permanent rearrangement that cannot be reversed and that is followed by a neutralizing (acidifying) shampoo rather than an oxidizer. The pH and mechanism differences explain why the two products MUST NOT be layered on the same hair without major breakage risk. SDS hazard information is required for both classes under Cal/OSHA §5194.

Cal/OSHA §5194
59. On the haircolor level system 1 (darkest) to 10 (lightest), which underlying pigment is exposed when natural hair is lifted to level 8?
a.True black, because all levels lift through black first
b.Pale violet, because all warmth is gone
c.Yellow-orange to yellow, because the eumelanin breaks down gradually and pheomelanin warmth remains; level 8 typically reveals a yellow to yellow-orange underlying tone that a violet- or blue-based toner is used to neutralize
d.Pale ash green, because levels 7 and above are cool

As bleach or high-lift color lifts natural pigment, eumelanin (the brown/black large-molecule pigment) breaks down first and pheomelanin (the smaller red/yellow molecule) lingers. Lifting therefore reveals predictable contributing pigments in a sequence: red (level 4), red-orange (level 5), orange (level 6), yellow-orange (level 7), yellow (level 8), pale yellow (level 9), and pale palest yellow (level 10). A level 8 lift typically shows yellow to yellow-orange and is toned with a violet or violet-blue toner to neutralize. California licensees apply oxidative color under CCR Title 16 §979.4. Options A, B, and D ignore the standard contributing-pigment chart taught in every cosmetology textbook.

CCR Title 16 §979.4
60. A salon stocks 10, 20, 30, and 40 volume hydrogen peroxide developers. A client at natural level 6 wants to go to level 9 in a single-process color. Which developer is typically required?
a.10 volume, because the higher the level the gentler the developer must be
b.30 volume, because 30 volume lifts approximately 3 levels and matches a 3-level lift from 6 to 9, while 40 volume lifts roughly 4 levels and 20 volume lifts roughly 2
c.5 volume, because demi-permanent will fully reach level 9
d.60 volume, which is only sold in California

Approximate rules of thumb taught for oxidative color: 10 volume is deposit-only with little to no lift; 20 volume lifts about 1 to 2 levels and is the workhorse for one-process gray coverage; 30 volume lifts about 2 to 3 levels; 40 volume lifts about 3 to 4 levels and is reserved for resistant hair and high-lift series. A 3-level lift from 6 to 9 is matched by 30 volume. Demi-permanent at 5 volume deposits only and will NOT lift to 9 (option C). 60 volume is not sold in California for cosmetic use (option D). Option A reverses the rule. California licensees apply oxidative color under CCR Title 16 §979.4.

CCR Title 16 §979.4
61. The cuticle of the hair shaft responds to pH in a predictable way. Which statement is correct?
a.Both alkaline and acidic products tighten the cuticle equally
b.Alkaline products (pH above 7) raise/swell the cuticle, allowing chemical services like color and perms to penetrate; acidic products (pH below 7) flatten and tighten the cuticle, sealing in moisture and adding shine
c.pH has no effect on the cuticle, only on the cortex
d.Alkaline products tighten the cuticle; acidic products open it

The cuticle is made of overlapping keratin scales. In an alkaline environment (color, perm waving lotion, relaxer), the scales swell and lift, allowing larger molecules to penetrate to the cortex; this is necessary for chemical service to take effect. In an acidic environment (clarifying rinse, acid-balanced conditioner, finishing toner at low pH), the scales flatten and tighten against each other, sealing the cuticle, sealing in moisture, and increasing light reflection (shine). This is why an acidic conditioning rinse is used after an alkaline service. California licensees apply both kinds of products under CCR Title 16 §979.4. Options A, B, and C contradict basic cuticle chemistry.

CCR Title 16 §979.4
62. Which statement correctly distinguishes an ANTIBACTERIAL product from an ANTIFUNGAL product in salon practice?
a.Both terms mean the same thing and either label suffices on any tool
b.Antibacterials kill fungi and viruses; antifungals kill bacteria only
c.Antifungals are only available by prescription and may not be sold over the counter
d.Antibacterials target bacterial cells (cell walls, ribosomes, etc.); antifungals target fungal-specific structures (often ergosterol in the cell membrane). An EPA-registered hospital-grade disinfectant used in California salons must be effective against bacteria, viruses, AND fungi, not a single class

Antibacterial agents target structures unique to bacterial cells. Antifungal agents target structures unique to fungal cells, most commonly ergosterol in the fungal cell membrane. The two classes act on different organisms and a product that kills bacteria is NOT automatically effective against fungi. California salon disinfectants used on non-porous, multi-use tools must be EPA-registered hospital-grade, which by definition means bactericidal, virucidal, and fungicidal (per CCR Title 16 §979.4 and BBC inspection practice). Many topical antifungals are OTC (clotrimazole, terbinafine). Options A, B, and D collapse or mis-state the categories.

CCR Title 16 §979.4
63. Section 8 of a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) is titled 'Exposure Controls / Personal Protection.' For an alkaline lye relaxer, Section 8 would most likely require:
a.Cotton dish gloves only, because the product is mild
b.No PPE at all because the licensee has experience
c.Chemical-resistant nitrile gloves, protective eyewear or face shield, and adequate room ventilation; engineering controls such as local exhaust where reasonably feasible
d.A full Level-A hazmat suit for every application

Section 8 of an SDS lists occupational exposure limits, engineering controls, and recommended PPE. Sodium hydroxide is highly alkaline and corrosive to skin and eyes, so a relaxer SDS Section 8 will require chemical-resistant gloves (nitrile or similar), eye protection (safety glasses or face shield), and adequate ventilation, with engineering controls where feasible. The Cal/OSHA Hazard Communication Standard §5194 requires the salon to maintain and act on SDS information. Option B uses inappropriate gloves. Option C ignores PPE entirely and is a clear violation. Option D is wildly excessive and not what Section 8 calls for; PPE must be appropriate, not theatrical.

Cal/OSHA §5194
64. Why are nail technicians taught to NEVER mix leftover liquid monomer from a used dappen dish back into the original bottle?
a.Because California law requires all monomer to be a single use
b.Because the dish makes the monomer evaporate faster
c.Because the used monomer in the dappen dish has been contaminated with polymer powder, skin cells, and bacteria; returning it to the bottle contaminates the entire bottle and accelerates polymerization, ruining the supply and creating a sanitation hazard
d.Because the bottle will leak if filled past 80 percent

Once monomer has been dispensed into the dappen dish and used at the chair, it has picked up polymer powder, file dust, bacteria from the brush touching skin, and atmospheric moisture. Pouring it back into the stock bottle inoculates the entire bottle with contaminants and contaminates the next client's dish, and the trace polymer begins to thicken the supply. The professional practice is to discard the dappen dish contents, clean and dry the dish, and dispense fresh monomer for the next client. California licensees follow this under general sanitation duties at CCR Title 16 §979.4. Options A, C, and D state reasons that are not the actual sanitation rationale.

CCR Title 16 §979.4

Electricity & Equipment

34 questions
1. Which type of electric current flows in one direction only and is used in galvanic electrotherapy devices?
a.Tesla high-frequency current
b.Alternating current (AC)
c.Faradic alternating current
d.Direct current (DC)

Direct current (DC) is a constant, one-directional flow of electrons. Galvanic devices use DC because chemical reactions such as iontophoresis and desincrustation depend on a steady polarity.

2. Most salon hair dryers, clippers, and overhead lights plug into wall outlets that supply which type of current?
a.Direct current at 9 V
b.Alternating current at 120 V
c.Galvanic direct current
d.High-frequency Tesla current

Standard United States wall outlets deliver alternating current (AC) at roughly 120 volts and 60 hertz. Salon equipment such as dryers and clippers is built to run on this AC supply.

3. A faradic current is best described as which of the following?
a.An interrupted (pulsating) alternating current that causes mild muscle contractions
b.Continuous high-frequency alternating current that produces heat in tissue
c.Radiant heat produced by an infrared lamp
d.A steady direct current used to push water-soluble products into the skin

Faradic current is an interrupted or pulsating alternating current. Its short pulses cause visible muscle contractions, which is why it has historically been used for facial muscle toning.

4. During iontophoresis with a galvanic machine, a water-soluble product with a negative pH (acidic) is introduced under which electrode?
a.Under the cathode (negative pole)
b.Under either pole, the result is identical
c.Under the anode (positive pole)
d.Under no electrode; the product is applied first and the machine is then turned off

Like charges repel. An acidic, positively ionized product is pushed into the skin from the positive (anode) pole because the matching positive charge of the electrode repels the ions inward.

5. Desincrustation during a galvanic facial uses which polarity, and for what purpose?
a.Negative pole, to introduce vitamin C into the skin
b.Positive pole, to harden tissue
c.Negative pole, to soften and emulsify sebum and debris in the follicles
d.Positive pole, to close pores

Desincrustation uses the negative pole (cathode) with an alkaline solution. The chemical reaction at the negative electrode saponifies (softens) sebum and oily debris, making deep cleansing easier.

6. High-frequency (Tesla) current in a facial machine is primarily used to:
a.Produce a mild germicidal and warming effect that helps treat oily or minor blemished skin
b.Push acidic ampoules into the skin through iontophoresis
c.Permanently remove hair follicles by electrolysis
d.Provide deep muscle contractions for facial toning

High-frequency (Tesla) current is a rapidly oscillating AC. It generates small amounts of ozone and gentle heat at the glass electrode, which has a mild antiseptic and stimulating effect on the skin.

7. Microcurrent devices used in facial services deliver:
a.Direct current at hundreds of milliamperes to burn tissue
b.Very low-level electrical currents measured in microamperes that work below the threshold of muscle contraction
c.Radio-frequency waves that vaporize the outer layer of the skin
d.Strong alternating currents that visibly contract muscles

Microcurrent is extremely low-amperage current measured in millionths of an ampere. It is typically sub-sensory and is used for gentle stimulation of facial tissue, not for strong muscle contractions or tissue destruction.

8. Infrared lamps used in salons primarily affect the skin by:
a.Generating visible blue light that destroys acne bacteria
b.Producing ultraviolet radiation that disinfects the skin surface
c.Releasing ozone that bleaches the skin
d.Emitting invisible radiation that is felt as warmth and increases local circulation

Infrared radiation lies just beyond visible red light. Its wavelengths are absorbed as heat, gently warming the skin, dilating surface vessels, and helping product penetration. It is not germicidal.

9. When using an infrared lamp on a client, the minimum safe distance is most commonly:
a.Touching the skin directly for best results
b.Less than 6 inches (15 cm) from the skin
c.About 18 to 30 inches (45 to 75 cm) from the area being treated, adjusted to client comfort
d.Exactly 6 inches (15 cm), regardless of intensity

Infrared lamps must be kept far enough from the skin to avoid burns. Manufacturer instructions and standard practice place the lamp roughly 18 to 30 inches from the treatment area, and the practitioner should always confirm the client feels gentle warmth, not pain.

10. Ultraviolet (UV) radiation in a salon setting:
a.Has germicidal effects but can damage the eyes and skin and is never a substitute for chemical or heat disinfection of tools
b.Is safe for clients to look at directly without eye protection
c.Is the same as infrared radiation
d.Is mainly used to soften the skin before extractions

Short-wavelength UV light has germicidal properties but causes eye injury and skin burns with even short exposure. UV cabinets are storage aids only and do not replace EPA-registered disinfectants for tools.

11. A GFCI (ground-fault circuit interrupter) outlet is required by code in salon areas where water and electricity may meet. Its main purpose is to:
a.Quickly shut off the circuit when it detects a small current leakage to ground, helping prevent electrocution
b.Filter electromagnetic interference from radios
c.Convert AC into DC for galvanic devices
d.Increase the voltage delivered to high-power equipment

A GFCI compares current going out on the hot wire with current returning on the neutral. If even a small imbalance (around 5 milliamperes) flows to ground — for example, through a person standing in water — the device trips within milliseconds, sharply reducing the risk of electrocution.

8 CCR §2340
12. Plugging several high-wattage appliances (blow dryer, curling iron, steamer) into a single outlet through a power strip is dangerous because it can:
a.Overload the circuit, overheat the wiring, and start an electrical fire
b.Trip the GFCI even when no fault to ground exists
c.Reverse the polarity of galvanic machines elsewhere in the salon
d.Cause the equipment to operate on direct current

Each circuit is rated for a maximum continuous load (often 15 or 20 amperes). Stacking high-draw appliances on one circuit through a power strip exceeds that rating, overheats the conductors, and is a common cause of electrical fires in salons.

13. You notice that the cord on a clipper has cracked insulation and exposed copper wire. The correct action is to:
a.Plug it in only if the outlet is GFCI-protected
b.Wrap the bare wire with paper towel and continue using it for the day
c.Use it only on dry hair, because dry hair does not conduct electricity
d.Immediately take the clipper out of service and tag or discard it until it can be repaired or replaced

A damaged cord can cause shock, burns, or fire. Industry safe practice and Cal/OSHA general electrical safety rules require removing damaged electrical equipment from service until properly repaired.

14. Why is a three-prong grounded plug safer than a two-prong plug on salon equipment with a metal housing?
a.The third prong connects the metal housing to ground so that a fault current flows safely to earth instead of through the user
b.The third prong reduces the amperage the appliance draws
c.The third prong converts AC into DC
d.The third prong increases the voltage to the appliance

Grounding gives stray current a safe, low-resistance path to earth. If a wire inside the appliance contacts the metal case, the fault current trips the breaker through the ground wire rather than passing through the person holding the appliance.

15. After each client, hand-held metal electrodes from a galvanic or high-frequency machine should be:
a.Left to air-dry between clients with no further treatment
b.Cleaned and disinfected following the manufacturer's instructions before reuse
c.Discarded; metal electrodes are single-use
d.Wiped with a dry towel only

Reusable tools that touch the client must be cleaned and then disinfected between clients. The manufacturer's directions specify the correct method and approved disinfectant for the electrode material.

16. Under California Board rules for equipment sanitation, non-electrical multiuse implements (combs, shears, clipper guards) must be:
a.Rinsed in hot tap water and reused immediately
b.Cleaned to remove debris, then fully immersed in an EPA-registered disinfectant for the manufacturer's contact time before reuse
c.Stored in a UV cabinet, which counts as disinfection
d.Wiped quickly with an alcohol pad only when visibly dirty

California Board sanitation rules require non-electrical multiuse tools to be cleaned of visible debris and then disinfected by full immersion in an EPA-registered hospital disinfectant for the contact time on the label. UV cabinets are not disinfection.

16 CCR §979
17. Electrical tools that cannot be fully immersed (such as clippers and trimmers) must be sanitized between clients by:
a.Soaking the entire machine, motor and all, in disinfectant
b.Wiping only the handle with a damp towel
c.Spraying the air around the machine with a deodorizer
d.Removing hair and debris, then disinfecting the blades and contact surfaces with an EPA-registered disinfectant per the manufacturer's instructions

California Board rules and manufacturer instructions require that electrical tools be cleared of debris and that the blades and other client-contact surfaces be disinfected with an EPA-registered disinfectant. The motor housing is never immersed in liquid.

16 CCR §979
18. Within California's scope of practice, a licensed esthetician using electrotherapy in a facial may use which device?
a.A medical microneedling pen that penetrates beyond superficial skin
b.A non-medical galvanic, high-frequency, or microcurrent device for surface skin care
c.A needle electrolysis device to permanently destroy hair follicles
d.A medical-grade ablative laser to remove deep wrinkles

California estheticians work on the superficial skin only. They may use non-medical galvanic, high-frequency, and microcurrent devices for facial care. Ablative lasers and needle electrolysis fall outside the esthetics scope of practice.

BPC §7316
19. Before placing a client on a galvanic facial treatment, which of the following is a standard contraindication you should screen for?
a.Recently styled hair
b.Wearing eye makeup
c.A pacemaker or other implanted electronic medical device
d.Use of a daytime moisturizer

Electrical current from galvanic, high-frequency, and microcurrent devices can interfere with pacemakers and other implanted electronic medical devices, and is also generally contraindicated in pregnancy, epilepsy, and on broken skin. The client should be screened before treatment.

20. If an electrical appliance falls into a sink or shampoo bowl of water while plugged in, the first action should be to:
a.Turn off the breaker or unplug the device at the outlet without reaching into the water
b.Touch the appliance with a metal pair of shears to test if it is still live
c.Pour more water on it to cool the unit
d.Reach into the water with bare hands and lift the appliance out

Water is an excellent conductor of electricity. Reaching into water that may be electrified can cause electrocution. The safe response is to remove the power source first — flip the circuit breaker or unplug the cord at the outlet — and only then handle the device.

21. A salon device is rated 1500 watts and is plugged into a standard 120-volt circuit. Approximately how many amperes does it draw, and why does this matter for safety?
a.About 180 A; only industrial wiring can support it
b.About 12.5 A; close to the 15 A limit of most salon circuits, so it should not share an outlet with another high-wattage tool
c.About 1.5 A; the load is trivial and any extension cord is acceptable
d.About 6 A; well below any typical circuit limit

Amperage equals watts divided by volts (Ohm's law applied to power: I = P/V). 1500 W divided by 120 V equals 12.5 A, which is very close to the 15 A breaker rating common in salon receptacles. Plugging a second high-wattage appliance into the same circuit will trip the breaker or, worse, overheat the wiring before the breaker trips, creating a fire risk behind the wall. California licensees are required under CCR Title 16 §979 to maintain equipment in safe working order and to follow manufacturer load instructions. Option A and B undercount the math. Option D confuses watts with amps and is off by an order of magnitude.

CCR Title 16 §979
22. Which statement most accurately describes a conductor versus an insulator in the context of salon electrical safety?
a.All metals are insulators because they resist current
b.Rubber and dry wood are conductors; copper and water are insulators
c.Only gold is a true conductor; everything else is an insulator
d.Copper, water, and the human body are conductors; rubber, dry wood, and silk are insulators

A conductor is a material through which electric current flows readily; an insulator resists current flow. Copper wiring carries current in tools; water and the moist human body conduct electricity, which is exactly why GFCI protection is required where water and electricity meet. Rubber, dry wood, glass, and silk insulate, which is why tool handles are rubber and the technician should stand on a dry floor. California regulates safe equipment use under CCR Title 16 §979.2. Option A reverses the categories. Option C is the opposite of physical reality. Option D treats conductivity as binary; it is a continuum and copper is the practical workhorse conductor.

CCR Title 16 §979.2
23. A salon outlet is wired through a GFCI device. The GFCI compares which two measurements and trips when they differ?
a.Resistance of the device versus resistance of the wall
b.Wattage of the appliance versus wattage of the circuit
c.Voltage of the hot wire versus voltage of the ground wire
d.Current flowing out on the hot wire versus current returning on the neutral wire; a difference indicates leakage to ground (a person)

A ground-fault circuit interrupter continuously compares the current leaving on the hot wire with the current returning on the neutral wire. In a healthy circuit they are equal. When even a few milliamps (typically 4 to 6 mA) of current leaks elsewhere, for example through a person standing in water, the GFCI senses the imbalance and trips within milliseconds, well before the current is sufficient to stop a heart. California requires GFCI protection at receptacles near water sources, consistent with CCR Title 16 §979.2 and the National Electrical Code. The other options describe measurements the GFCI does not perform.

CCR Title 16 §979.2
24. A licensee notices that a curling iron's plug becomes very hot to the touch after only a few minutes of use, even though the iron itself is working. The correct response is to:
a.Stop using the iron, tag it out of service, and have it repaired or replaced
b.Tape the plug into the outlet so it does not wiggle and overheat
c.Continue using the iron because it still heats and only the plug is warm
d.Wrap the plug in a damp towel to cool it down between clients

A plug that becomes very hot indicates a poor electrical connection, frayed wiring, or a damaged outlet, any of which is a fire hazard. The professional response is to tag the device out of service and remove it from use until it is repaired by a qualified person or replaced. California licensees are required under CCR Title 16 §979.2 to maintain equipment in safe operating condition. Option A continues the hazard. Option B introduces water near electricity and creates an immediate shock risk. Option C masks the symptom and accelerates the failure, possibly arcing inside the wall.

CCR Title 16 §979.2
25. When unplugging a hair dryer from the wall, the correct method is to:
a.Grasp the molded plug body and pull straight out, never the cord
b.Leave it plugged and switch off the dryer's own power button
c.Twist the plug 90 degrees and then pull
d.Yank the cord sharply with one quick motion

Pulling on the cord rather than the plug stresses the wire-to-prong solder joints inside the plug, eventually loosening them. Loose internal connections create arcing, overheating, and the kind of brittle, cracked plug that ignites lint. The correct technique is to grasp the molded plug body and pull straight out, perpendicular to the wall. California licensees are required to keep equipment in safe condition under CCR Title 16 §979.2, and cord care is part of that duty. Option A guarantees cord damage. Option C wrenches the prongs and damages the outlet. Option D leaves the device energized at the cord and plug, which is unsafe storage.

CCR Title 16 §979.2
26. A licensed esthetician wants to perform a direct-application high-frequency facial. Which client condition is an ABSOLUTE contraindication that prohibits the treatment?
a.Client wore SPF earlier in the day
b.Client had a manicure two days ago
c.Client has dry skin and prefers warm towels
d.Client has an implanted cardiac pacemaker

High-frequency current uses an oscillating alternating current that produces a small electromagnetic field at the electrode. That field can interfere with implanted cardiac pacemakers and other electronic medical devices, so a pacemaker is an absolute contraindication for high-frequency, galvanic, and microcurrent services. California estheticians performing electrotherapy must screen for this on the consultation form, consistent with the safe-equipment-use duties of CCR Title 16 §979.2. Pregnancy, metal implants in the treatment area, epilepsy, and severe heart disease are additional contraindications. Options B, C, and D are not contraindications; they describe ordinary client conditions.

CCR Title 16 §979.2
27. Microcurrent facial devices deliver current measured in:
a.Megawatts (MW), but only for an instant
b.Amperes (A), at levels strong enough to cause visible muscle twitching
c.Kilovolts (kV), at frequencies above 1 MHz
d.Microamperes (one millionth of an ampere), below the threshold of sensation in most clients

Microcurrent, as its name suggests, is delivered in MICROamperes, on the order of millionths of an ampere. The level is so low that most clients feel only a faint metallic taste from electrodes near the mouth, not muscle contraction. The current is thought to influence the resting bioelectrical state of facial tissue without forcing visible contractions, in contrast to faradic current, which deliberately contracts muscle. California electrotherapy use sits under CCR Title 16 §979.2 and the BBC's scope rules. Option A confuses microcurrent with faradic. Option B confuses it with high-frequency. Option D is physically impossible and is not a real device specification.

CCR Title 16 §979.2
28. A licensee plans to use a steamer and an LED facial panel simultaneously on the same client. The two devices must be plugged into:
a.The same outlet via a daisy-chained power strip, because efficiency is more important than separate circuits
b.Any outlet, because LED panels and steamers draw negligible power
c.Outlets on separate circuits, ideally with GFCI protection, never sharing through a power strip with other high-wattage tools
d.An ungrounded outlet, because grounding interferes with LED light delivery

Facial steamers heat water and draw substantial current; LED panels typically draw less but still add to the load. Combining them on one circuit, especially via a daisy-chained power strip, risks tripping the breaker or overheating the wiring. The safe practice is to plug them into separate circuits, and the wet-area device must be GFCI-protected per California salon electrical practice referenced under CCR Title 16 §979.2 and the National Electrical Code adopted by reference. Option A creates a fire risk and is explicitly discouraged by manufacturers. Option C minimizes the actual steamer load. Option D is the opposite of safety practice; grounding is required, not optional.

CCR Title 16 §979.2
29. Which statement about the relationship between volts (V), amperes (A), and watts (W) is correct?
a.Watts = volts times amps
b.Watts = volts divided by amps
c.Amps = volts times watts
d.Volts = watts times amps

The power equation states that power in watts equals voltage in volts multiplied by current in amperes, so W = V x A. This is why a 1500 W appliance on a 120 V circuit draws 12.5 A, and why the same 1500 W on a 240 V circuit would draw only 6.25 A. Understanding the formula prevents overloaded circuits in the salon, an issue addressed by safe equipment use under CCR Title 16 §979.2. Option A and B rearrange the variables incorrectly. Option C divides where multiplication is required and is the formula that fails on every electrical exam item.

CCR Title 16 §979.2
30. An extension cord rated for 13 A is used to power a 1500 W flat iron. What is the safest practice?
a.Run the cord under the salon rug to keep it out of the way
b.Coil the cord tightly so it occupies less floor space
c.Bundle three appliances onto the same cord to reduce wall clutter
d.Do not use a thin extension cord with high-wattage heat tools at all; plug the iron directly into a wall outlet

A 1500 W flat iron on a 120 V circuit draws roughly 12.5 A, putting a 13 A extension cord right at its limit; small additional resistance in the connectors will push current past the cord rating, heating the cord. Extension cords are not intended for permanent salon use with high-wattage heat appliances, and California licensees must keep equipment safe per CCR Title 16 §979.2. The right answer is to plug the iron directly into a properly rated wall outlet. Tightly coiling holds in heat and accelerates insulation breakdown. Running cord under a rug hides damage and traps heat. Bundling multiple appliances on one cord multiplies the load and is a common cause of salon fires.

CCR Title 16 §979.2
31. An esthetician's intake form must screen for electrotherapy contraindications. Which set of CLIENT FACTORS is an ABSOLUTE contraindication for high-frequency, galvanic, OR microcurrent electrotherapy?
a.Recent manicure, recent haircut, recent brow wax
b.Wearing SPF 30, taking a multivitamin, drinking coffee
c.Implanted electronic device (cardiac pacemaker or implanted defibrillator); pregnancy is generally contraindicated for galvanic and microcurrent; metal pins, plates, or implants in the treatment area; epilepsy or seizure disorder; severe heart disease or recent stroke
d.Speaking a non-English language as the primary language

The standard intake screen for electrotherapy lists implanted electronic medical devices (pacemakers, ICDs, neurostimulators) as absolute contraindications because the device may be disrupted by the salon device's electromagnetic field. Pregnancy is generally contraindicated for galvanic current (iontophoresis is poorly studied in pregnancy) and microcurrent. Metal implants in the treatment area concentrate current. Epilepsy and severe heart disease are also screened out. California licensees must comply with safe equipment use under CCR Title 16 §979.2 and screen for these factors before energizing any client. Options B, C, and D are not medical contraindications and reflect ordinary client activities or characteristics.

CCR Title 16 §979.2
32. A salon flat iron is rated 60 watts, a salon hair dryer is rated 1875 watts, and a curling iron is rated 90 watts. Which statement BEST describes their load on a standard 120 V salon circuit?
a.The flat iron is the most dangerous because 60 watts is more current than 1875 watts
b.Wattage has no relationship to amperage, so total load cannot be calculated
c.All three together draw less than 1 A
d.The hair dryer alone draws approximately 15.6 A (close to or over a typical 15 A salon breaker), while the flat iron and curling iron individually draw about 0.5 A and 0.75 A; combining the dryer with another high-wattage appliance on one circuit will trip the breaker or overload the wiring

Apply I = P / V (Ohm's-law power form). 1875 W / 120 V = 15.6 A, which is at or above a typical 15 A salon breaker rating; this means a salon hair dryer alone effectively saturates one circuit and should NOT share that circuit with another heat appliance. The 60 W flat iron draws 0.5 A and the 90 W curling iron draws 0.75 A. The dryer is by far the largest electrical load in the salon and is the single most common cause of nuisance breaker trips and cord overheating. California safe-equipment-use is at CCR Title 16 §979.2. Options A, C, and D contradict the basic math.

CCR Title 16 §979.2
33. A 'transformer' attached to a salon device's power cord (the rectangular block in the plug) generally functions to:
a.Boost building voltage from 120 V up to 480 V for hair tools
b.Sterilize the air around the device
c.Step household alternating-current voltage DOWN to the lower voltage (and often rectify it to direct current via internal electronics) that the device's electronics need to operate, also providing physical separation that improves user safety
d.Replace the GFCI requirement

Small consumer/professional devices often need a much lower voltage (5, 9, 12, 24 V DC) than the 120 V AC that comes out of the wall. The 'wall-wart' or in-line block contains a small step-DOWN transformer plus rectifier and filter circuitry that converts the 120 V AC down to the device's required low voltage DC. The transformer also provides galvanic isolation between the household mains and the user-facing low-voltage side, which improves safety. It does NOT replace a GFCI (option D), step voltage up (option A), or do anything to the air (option B). Equipment safety is required under CCR Title 16 §979.2.

CCR Title 16 §979.2
34. GFCI receptacles are required by code within roughly 6 feet of a water source (shampoo bowl, manicure soak, pedicure basin) in salons. The PRIMARY reason is:
a.GFCIs make the water heat faster
b.GFCIs are decorative and add resale value to the salon
c.Water is a conductor, and the wet human body becomes a conductor too; if an energized appliance falls into water or a person touches an energized component while standing in water, current can pass through the person to ground, causing electrocution. A GFCI senses the current imbalance (typically a few milliamps to ground) and trips in milliseconds, before the current reaches a heart-stopping level
d.GFCIs only protect against overheating, which is unrelated to water

Water and the wet human body are both conductors. If an energized appliance falls into a shampoo bowl or pedicure tub, or if a person touches an energized component while standing in water, a current path opens through the person to ground. A GFCI continuously compares the current on the hot wire to the current returning on the neutral wire; an imbalance of just a few milliamps (4 to 6 mA) signals leakage to ground (a person) and trips the receptacle in milliseconds, well before the current is sufficient to stop a heart. This is why the National Electrical Code and California salon practice require GFCI protection within roughly 6 feet of water sources, consistent with CCR Title 16 §979.2 safe-equipment-use duties.

CCR Title 16 §979.2

Infection Control & Safety

101 questions
1. Under California regulations, what is the MINIMUM contact time a multi-use tool must remain fully immersed in an EPA-registered disinfectant?
a.1 minute
b.30 minutes
c.60 minutes
d.10 minutes

California regulation requires multi-use implements be totally immersed in an EPA-registered disinfectant for at least 10 minutes (or the time specified on the product label, if longer).

16 CCR §979
2. Which level of decontamination is REQUIRED for multi-use salon tools between clients in California?
a.Sanitization only
b.Disinfection with an EPA-registered product
c.Sterilization
d.Rinsing with hot water

Salons must disinfect multi-use tools using an EPA-registered hospital-grade product. Sterilization (which kills spores) is not required for salon practice, and sanitization alone is not sufficient between clients.

16 CCR §979
3. A disinfectant used on multi-use tools in California must be EPA-registered and labeled with which combination of activity?
a.Bactericidal, virucidal, and fungicidal
b.Antiviral only
c.Sporicidal
d.Antibacterial only

California requires the disinfectant to be EPA-registered and labeled as bactericidal, virucidal, and fungicidal. Sporicidal activity is not required for salon disinfection.

16 CCR §979
4. Which of the following is considered a SINGLE-USE item that must be discarded after one client?
a.Plastic clipper guard
b.Stainless steel cuticle nippers
c.Metal shears
d.Emery board

Emery boards are porous and cannot be properly disinfected, so they are single-use and must be discarded after one client. Metal nippers, shears, and plastic clipper guards are non-porous and can be disinfected for reuse.

16 CCR §979
5. Which liquid monomer is PROHIBITED for use on natural nails in California?
a.Polyvinyl alcohol
b.Ethyl methacrylate (EMA)
c.Cyanoacrylate (nail glue)
d.Methyl methacrylate (MMA)

Methyl methacrylate (MMA) is prohibited on natural nails in California because of its dangerously strong bond and respiratory sensitization. Ethyl methacrylate (EMA) is the legal substitute.

BPC §7315
6. A wax applicator stick has touched the client's skin. What MUST the technician do next?
a.Heat the wax to 200°F to sterilize the contamination
b.Discard the stick or apply with a fresh stick
c.Re-dip the stick once more, then discard
d.Wipe the stick and re-dip it in the wax

California prohibits double-dipping. Once an applicator touches the client's skin, it cannot return to the wax pot. Use a fresh stick or apply with a method that prevents re-contact. Reheating wax does not decontaminate it.

16 CCR §979
7. A client begins to bleed during a haircut. What is the FIRST action the cosmetologist should take?
a.Continue cutting while applying pressure
b.Stop the service and put on disposable gloves
c.Send the client to wash the cut in the sink
d.Apply styptic directly from the bottle to the cut

Under Cal/OSHA Bloodborne Pathogen Standard 8 CCR §5193, the first action is to stop the service and don disposable gloves before any contact with blood. Direct application of styptic from the bottle is prohibited (no single-use applicator).

8 CCR §5193
8. A pedicure client arrives with what appears to be active toenail fungus. What is the technician's correct response under California regulation?
a.Refuse the service and refer the client to a physician
b.Perform the service with a single-use file
c.Disinfect tools twice as long after the service
d.Soak the feet only and skip the file work

California regulation requires the licensee to refuse service when a contagious or infectious condition (such as active fungal infection) is present, and to refer the client to a physician. Performing the service would risk exposure to staff, equipment, and the next client.

16 CCR §979
9. How often must the disinfectant solution in a wet sanitizer be changed, at MINIMUM?
a.Every 3 days
b.Only when the bottle of concentrate runs out
c.Once per week
d.Daily, and whenever it becomes contaminated or cloudy

Disinfectant solution must be changed at least daily and immediately whenever it becomes visibly soiled, cloudy, or contaminated with debris.

16 CCR §979
10. Before placing a metal comb into the disinfectant jar, what must the technician do?
a.Remove all hair and visible debris from the comb
b.Spray the comb with hand sanitizer
c.Heat the comb with a blow dryer
d.Wrap the comb in a clean towel

Tools must be pre-cleaned of all hair, debris, and product before disinfection. Disinfectant cannot penetrate dirt, so a dirty tool will not be disinfected even if it sits in the solution for the full contact time.

16 CCR §979
11. Disinfected (clean) tools must be stored:
a.In the pocket of the technician's smock
b.In a clean, dry, covered container or drawer used only for clean tools
c.In the same drawer as soiled tools, separated by paper
d.On the open countertop next to product bottles

Clean tools must be kept in a clean, dry, covered container or drawer reserved for disinfected items, separate from soiled tools, food, personal items, and chemicals.

16 CCR §979
12. Which of the following BEST describes 'disinfection' as defined for salon practice?
a.Use of a chemical to destroy bacteria, fungi, and viruses on a hard non-porous surface
b.Mechanical removal of dirt with soap and water
c.Rinsing tools in alcohol for 30 seconds
d.Destruction of all microbial life including bacterial spores

Disinfection is the chemical destruction of bacteria, fungi, and viruses on a hard, non-porous surface. Sanitization is mechanical cleaning; sterilization kills all microbial life and is not required in salons.

16 CCR §979
13. Immediately after each pedicure client, what must be done to a whirlpool foot spa under California regulation?
a.Wipe the rim with a paper towel only
b.Spray the bowl with hand sanitizer
c.Drain, remove debris from the filter/screen, scrub with soap, refill with EPA-registered disinfectant and circulate per label
d.Add a tablet of disinfectant to the existing water

After every client, the spa must be drained, the filter and screen cleaned of debris, the bowl scrubbed with soap and water, then refilled with EPA-registered disinfectant and circulated for the time on the label (commonly 10 minutes minimum).

16 CCR §979
14. How often must a whirlpool foot spa receive a full disinfectant cycle (in addition to between-client cleaning) at a minimum?
a.Once a month
b.Only when an inspector requests it
c.Once every 6 months
d.At least once a week

California requires a complete disinfectant cycle through the foot spa at least once per week, in addition to cleaning between every client and end-of-day cleaning.

16 CCR §979
15. Which of the following items can NEVER be disinfected for reuse on another client?
a.Plastic clipper guard
b.Stainless steel scissors
c.Wooden orange wood stick
d.Metal eyebrow tweezers

Wooden orange wood sticks are porous and absorb fluids; they are single-use items and must be discarded after one client. Stainless steel and hard plastic implements are non-porous and may be disinfected for reuse.

16 CCR §979
16. A nail technician notices an unlabeled jug of liquid monomer that costs a fraction of the usual price and has a strong, harsh chemical odor. The MOST likely concern is:
a.It is a glue, not a monomer
b.The product has expired
c.It may contain prohibited MMA
d.It is mislabeled but harmless

Strong odor, missing label, and very low price are classic red flags for illegal methyl methacrylate (MMA) being sold as a substitute for ethyl methacrylate (EMA). California prohibits MMA on natural nails.

BPC §7315
17. Which of the following describes the proper use of a wet sanitizer?
a.A small jar with cotton balls soaked in disinfectant
b.A covered container deep enough to fully immerse tools in EPA-registered disinfectant, labeled and changed daily
c.Tools placed in dry disinfectant powder
d.A container of rubbing alcohol stored on the counter

A wet sanitizer is a covered, labeled container deep enough for tools to be completely submerged in EPA-registered disinfectant. The solution is changed daily and whenever soiled.

16 CCR §979
18. Between every haircut client, the cape can be reused only if:
a.It is shaken out vigorously
b.A clean neck strip or towel is placed between the client's skin and the cape
c.It is sprayed with rubbing alcohol
d.It is folded inside-out before reuse

California requires a clean neck strip or towel between the client's skin and any cape. The barrier prevents the cape itself from touching new bare skin.

16 CCR §979
19. Used cotton balls and gauze that are contaminated with a client's blood must be:
a.Discarded in a sealed bag or biohazard container
b.Placed in the regular trash uncovered
c.Left at the workstation until end of day
d.Flushed down the toilet

Under Cal/OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogen Standard, blood-contaminated materials must be disposed of in a sealed bag or biohazard container per the salon's exposure control plan.

8 CCR §5193
20. Used razor blades from a service must be disposed of in:
a.A puncture-resistant sharps container
b.A paper bag
c.The regular trash can
d.The wet sanitizer jar

Used blades must go into a puncture-resistant sharps container after the service to protect workers and waste handlers from accidental cuts and bloodborne pathogen exposure.

16 CCR §979
21. A barber wants to use a straight razor with a non-replaceable blade on multiple clients. To comply with California regulation, the razor must be:
a.Wiped with a clean towel between clients
b.Disinfected between clients with an EPA-registered tuberculocidal disinfectant
c.Rinsed in hot water for one minute between clients
d.Sharpened on a strop between clients

Non-disposable straight razors may be used on multiple clients only if disinfected between clients with an EPA-registered tuberculocidal hospital-grade disinfectant on a hard non-porous surface.

16 CCR §979
22. Soiled towels and linens in the salon must be:
a.Reused on the same day if they look clean
b.Placed immediately in a closed, labeled hamper separate from clean linens
c.Soaked in the wet sanitizer
d.Stacked on the shelf above the workstation

Used linens go directly into a closed, labeled hamper that is kept separate from clean linens until they are laundered with detergent in hot water and fully dried.

16 CCR §979
23. What is the recommended approach to applying lipstick or cream cosmetics from a shared container to a client?
a.Heat the product in a microwave for 5 seconds to disinfect
b.Apply directly from the container with a clean finger
c.Use the same brush as on the previous client if it appears clean
d.Dispense onto a single-use palette or with a clean disposable spatula

Cosmetics shared from a bulk container must be dispensed onto a single-use palette or with a clean disposable spatula. Direct re-contact with the bulk product is prohibited.

16 CCR §979
24. A technician's disinfectant solution looks slightly cloudy and contains a few hair fragments midway through the workday. The CORRECT action is to:
a.Skim out the hair and continue using the solution
b.Empty, clean the jar, and mix a fresh batch of disinfectant
c.Add more concentrate to strengthen it
d.Wait until end of day and then change it

Disinfectant solution that is visibly soiled, cloudy, or contains debris must be discarded immediately. The wet sanitizer is cleaned and refilled with a fresh, properly diluted batch.

16 CCR §979
25. Which of the following is a SINGLE-USE item that should NEVER be used on a second client?
a.A metal cuticle pusher
b.A buffer block with foam core
c.A glass facial spatula
d.A nylon clipper brush

A buffer block with a foam (porous) core cannot be properly disinfected and is single-use. Metal pushers, glass spatulas, and nylon brushes are non-porous and may be disinfected for reuse.

16 CCR §979
26. What is the FIRST step a cosmetologist must take before serving the first client of the day?
a.Wash hands with soap and warm running water
b.Apply moisturizer
c.Style their own hair at the workstation
d.Eat a quick breakfast at the station

Hand washing with soap and warm running water before every service is required. Personal grooming and eating at the workstation are not permitted.

16 CCR §979
27. Alcohol-based hand sanitizer may be used by a salon technician:
a.Only at the end of the day
b.Anytime, including when hands are visibly soiled
c.As a supplement to, but not a replacement for, soap-and-water hand washing
d.Only when no client is in the salon

Alcohol-based hand sanitizer can supplement hand washing when hands are not visibly soiled, but it does NOT replace soap-and-water washing, especially when hands are visibly dirty or after a bloodborne exposure.

16 CCR §979
28. California salons must maintain a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) for:
a.Every chemical product used in the salon
b.Only products containing peroxide
c.Only products purchased outside the United States
d.Only flammable products

Under the Hazard Communication Standard (8 CCR §5194), employers must keep a Safety Data Sheet on file for EVERY chemical product used in the workplace, and workers must be able to access it during their shift.

8 CCR §5194
29. Which of the following is the BEST example of cross-contamination in a salon?
a.Folding clean towels at the front desk
b.Re-dipping a wax stick into the wax pot after applying it to a client
c.Washing the floor with disinfectant
d.Wearing a clean smock

Re-dipping a used wax applicator into the bulk wax transfers organisms from the client back to the product, contaminating it. The other choices are normal, hygienic practices.

16 CCR §979
30. Why is methyl methacrylate (MMA) prohibited on natural nails in California?
a.It contains gold particles that are restricted
b.It bonds so aggressively that the natural nail can be damaged or torn off if the enhancement catches on something, and the dust is a sensitizer
c.It is too gentle and does not bond at all
d.It evaporates too quickly to be useful

MMA's extreme bonding strength can cause the natural nail plate to crack, peel, or be torn off if the enhancement catches on something. The dust is a respiratory and skin sensitizer. These hazards led California to prohibit it.

BPC §7315
31. Which item must a barber discard after each shave service, even if it looks unused?
a.The stainless steel comb
b.The metal razor handle
c.A single-use neck strip
d.The clipper guard

Disposable neck strips are single-use and must be discarded after each service. The razor handle, clipper guard, and steel comb are non-porous multi-use items that are disinfected.

16 CCR §979
32. An EPA registration number on a disinfectant label tells you:
a.The product is made in California
b.The product is recommended by the BBC by name
c.The product has been registered with the federal EPA for its claimed germ-killing activity
d.The product is FDA-approved as a drug

The EPA registration number identifies a product that has been registered with the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency for the antimicrobial claims on its label.

16 CCR §979
33. Why is it important to mix disinfectant solution exactly to the dilution stated on the label?
a.Weaker solutions are gentler and just as effective
b.Too-weak solutions fail to disinfect; too-strong solutions damage tools and skin
c.Stronger solutions disinfect faster and are always preferred
d.Both stronger and weaker solutions work the same as the labeled mixture

Disinfectant must be mixed to the label dilution. Under-diluted solution does not kill pathogens effectively; over-concentrated solution can corrode metal, damage tools, and irritate skin.

16 CCR §979
34. A client arrives with what appears to be head lice. The cosmetologist should:
a.Use extra-strong shampoo to wash them out
b.Cut the hair very short to remove the lice
c.Provide the service but disinfect tools afterward
d.Refuse the service and refer the client to a physician

California regulation requires the licensee to refuse service when a contagious condition (such as head lice) is present, and refer the client to a physician or pharmacist for treatment.

16 CCR §979
35. Which bloodborne pathogen is of GREATEST concern in salon settings because of its higher environmental survival on surfaces?
a.Hepatitis B virus (HBV)
b.Influenza virus
c.Athlete's foot fungus
d.Common cold rhinovirus

Hepatitis B virus (HBV) is a leading bloodborne pathogen concern in salons because it can survive on dried surfaces for days, making thorough disinfection of tools that have contacted blood essential.

16 CCR §979
36. If a comb falls onto the floor mid-service, the cosmetologist should:
a.Wipe it on a clean towel and continue
b.Rinse it under running water and continue
c.Set it aside as soiled and use a clean, disinfected comb to finish the service
d.Spray it with hand sanitizer and continue

A tool that drops to the floor is considered soiled. It must be set aside for cleaning and disinfection, and a clean disinfected replacement used to finish the service.

16 CCR §979
37. Which body fluid is treated as a bloodborne pathogen risk under Cal/OSHA standards in a salon?
a.Blood, and any other potentially infectious material visibly contaminated with blood
b.Tears
c.Saliva from coughing
d.Sweat

Cal/OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogen Standard treats blood (and any other potentially infectious material visibly contaminated with blood) as biohazardous. Sweat and tears alone are not considered bloodborne risks.

8 CCR §5193
38. Which of the following is the BEST practice for a manicurist between two clients?
a.Mist the client's hands with hand sanitizer to compensate for unclean tools
b.Change towels but reuse the file from the last client because it 'looked clean'
c.Spray the desk with rubbing alcohol only
d.Wash hands, sanitize the workstation, disinfect tools, replace single-use items, set a fresh towel

Between every client a manicurist must wash hands, sanitize the workstation surface, disinfect any multi-use tools used, discard and replace single-use items, and set a clean towel. There are no shortcuts.

16 CCR §979
39. Eating or drinking AT the workstation while a client is being served is:
a.Required for technician health
b.Allowed during long services only
c.Prohibited as part of infection-control standards
d.Allowed as long as the food is in a clean container

Eating, drinking, and smoking are prohibited at the workstation while serving clients. The licensee's personal habits are part of the infection-control standard.

16 CCR §979
40. Which item is the BEST example of a multi-use, non-porous, disinfectable tool?
a.Stainless steel cuticle nipper
b.Cotton ball
c.Wax applicator stick
d.Buffer block with foam core

A stainless steel cuticle nipper is hard, non-porous, and can be fully immersed and disinfected. The other three are porous single-use items.

16 CCR §979
41. What should a cosmetologist do with a styptic powder applied to a small cut on a client?
a.Dip a used cotton ball back into the styptic powder
b.Pour styptic directly from the bottle onto the cut
c.Touch the cut with the corner of the styptic bottle
d.Sprinkle the styptic onto a clean cotton ball or single-use applicator and apply

Styptic must never contact broken skin directly from its bulk container. Dispense a small amount onto a clean cotton ball or single-use applicator and apply with the applicator.

16 CCR §979
42. A nail technician finishes a service in which the client bled from a cuticle. The metal nippers used MUST be:
a.Wiped with a clean towel and reused
b.Rinsed in alcohol for 30 seconds
c.Thrown in the trash
d.Pre-cleaned and disinfected with an EPA-registered tuberculocidal disinfectant for the full label contact time

Implements that have contacted blood must be pre-cleaned and disinfected with an EPA-registered tuberculocidal disinfectant for the full label contact time before reuse. Metal nippers are reusable when properly disinfected, not discarded.

16 CCR §979
43. Which of the following statements about hand washing is TRUE in California salon practice?
a.Hands must be washed with soap and warm running water before every service
b.Cold water is required because hot water kills germs less effectively
c.Hands should be washed only at the start of the day
d.Hand washing is optional if gloves are worn

Hands must be washed with soap and warm running water before every service. Wearing gloves does not eliminate the need to wash hands.

16 CCR §979
44. Used emery boards from a manicure should be:
a.Disinfected for 10 minutes and reused on the next client
b.Sterilized in a UV cabinet for one minute
c.Wiped with alcohol and stored in a clean drawer
d.Discarded into the trash immediately after the service

Emery boards are porous single-use items. They must be discarded after one client. Porous items cannot be disinfected effectively.

16 CCR §979
45. When a client requires a service that may aerosolize chemicals (such as filing acrylic nails), the technician should consider:
a.Lighting a candle to mask the odor
b.Wearing a properly fitted mask and using local exhaust ventilation
c.Turning off ventilation to keep the dust contained
d.Opening a window only if the temperature is below 70°F

Filing acrylics aerosolizes dust and chemical particles. Best practice is a properly fitted mask plus local exhaust ventilation to remove vapors and dust from the breathing zone.

16 CCR §979
46. California salons must maintain which type of written record related to whirlpool foot spas?
a.An income statement
b.Daily weather conditions
c.A cleaning and disinfection log available for BBC inspection
d.A list of customer phone numbers

Salons must keep a written cleaning and disinfection log for whirlpool foot spas. The log must be available to the BBC inspector upon request.

16 CCR §979
47. Tools that need disinfection should be placed in the wet sanitizer:
a.Fully submerged so that all surfaces are in contact with the disinfectant
b.Partially submerged with handles sticking out
c.Wrapped in a towel inside the jar
d.On top of the lid

Tools must be fully submerged so that every surface contacts the disinfectant for the full contact time. Partial submersion does not disinfect the exposed portion.

16 CCR §979
48. Which of the following is a porous, single-use item that must NOT be reused?
a.A glass nail file
b.A stainless steel pedicure file
c.A metal cuticle pusher
d.A pumice stone

A pumice stone is porous and absorbs skin debris and microorganisms, making proper disinfection impossible. It must be treated as single-use. Stainless steel files, glass files, and metal pushers are non-porous.

16 CCR §979
49. An esthetician notices an open cold sore on a client's lip before a facial. The correct response is:
a.Apply extra disinfectant to the lip area and continue
b.Refuse the facial in that area; cold sores are contagious
c.Use a different wax temperature to kill the virus
d.Cover the cold sore with a bandage and continue

Active herpes simplex (cold sores) is contagious and is on the list of conditions for which service should be refused (or limited to non-affected areas). The client should be referred to a physician.

16 CCR §979
50. What must be done with the lid of a wet sanitizer jar during normal use?
a.Remove the lid permanently for faster access
b.Replace the lid with a paper towel
c.Tape the lid open at all times
d.Keep the lid on when tools are not being added or removed

The wet sanitizer is a covered container; the lid must be kept on except when tools are being placed in or removed. This prevents contamination of the disinfectant solution.

16 CCR §979
51. Which of the following must occur at the END of each work day in a salon?
a.Tools may be left in dirty disinfectant overnight to soak
b.Wax is cooled and refrigerated for next-day use
c.Disinfectant is drained, jars and basins are cleaned, single-use items discarded, linens laundered
d.All implements are sterilized in an autoclave

End-of-day duties include draining used disinfectant, cleaning jars and basins, discarding used single-use items, and laundering soiled linens. Sterilization is not required, and refrigerating wax is not a regulatory rule.

16 CCR §979
52. When transferring product from a bulk container to a client, the technician should:
a.Use a clean disposable spatula or pour onto a single-use palette
b.Touch the client's skin with the lid of the container
c.Reuse the same spatula for the next client if it still has product on it
d.Pour the product directly onto the client's skin from the bulk container

Bulk products must be dispensed with a clean disposable spatula or onto a single-use palette. Direct contact between the bulk container or its lid and the client is prohibited.

16 CCR §979
53. A salon worker's smock or uniform must be:
a.The same smock worn every day without washing
b.Optional and informal
c.Clean at the start of each work day
d.Whatever the worker happens to be wearing that day

The garment worn over street clothes must be clean at the start of each work day to limit cross-contamination from one day to the next.

16 CCR §979
54. Which of the following is the BEST way to handle a single-use buffer block?
a.Disinfect it for 10 minutes and reuse
b.Sterilize in an autoclave and reuse
c.Use it on one client and discard it
d.Wash with soap and reuse on the same client only

A porous buffer block is single-use: use on one client, then discard. The foam core cannot be properly disinfected.

16 CCR §979
55. Chemical products in the salon must be stored in:
a.The same shelf as food and drinks for convenience
b.Their original, labeled containers, away from heat sources
c.Any clear bottle within reach
d.An unlabeled bulk container to save space

Chemicals must remain in their original, labeled containers, stored away from heat. Transferring chemicals to unlabeled bottles is prohibited under hazard communication rules.

8 CCR §5194
56. Which of the following is NOT acceptable storage for clean tools?
a.A covered ceramic crock used only for clean items
b.A closed plastic drawer organizer labeled 'clean'
c.An open cup with brushes mixed with combs and used towels
d.A clean, lined drawer reserved for disinfected items

Clean tools must not be mixed with used towels or other soiled items. They must be stored in clean, covered, labeled containers reserved for disinfected items.

16 CCR §979
57. A nail technician's neighbor brings in a 'great deal' on monomer in an unlabeled white jug. The technician should:
a.Use it only on toenails, not fingernails
b.Test it on themselves first
c.Use it but mix it half-and-half with regular EMA
d.Refuse the product; unlabeled monomer is a major MMA red flag and using it can violate state law

An unlabeled liquid monomer with a 'great deal' price is a serious red flag for prohibited MMA. The technician should refuse the product. Use of MMA on natural nails is a violation of BPC §7315.

16 CCR §979
58. Why must implements be cleaned with soap and water BEFORE they are placed in disinfectant?
a.Pre-cleaning replaces the need for disinfection
b.Soap improves the smell of the solution
c.Pre-cleaning is not actually required
d.Disinfectant cannot penetrate dirt, oil, or hair

Disinfectant cannot work through organic soil. Tools must be pre-cleaned of debris and oils so the disinfectant can directly contact the surface for the full contact time.

16 CCR §979
59. The MOST accurate definition of 'sterilization' is:
a.Killing bacteria but not viruses
b.Cleaning under hot running water
c.Removing visible dirt with detergent
d.Destroying ALL microbial life, including bacterial spores

Sterilization destroys all microbial life, including resistant bacterial spores. It is the highest level of decontamination and is used in surgical settings, not in salon practice.

16 CCR §979
60. If a wax client's skin breaks slightly and a small amount of blood appears, the technician should:
a.Stop, glove up, apply pressure with clean gauze, and disinfect any tool that touched the area
b.Continue and apologize at the end of the session
c.Re-dip the same stick to seal the area with more wax
d.Wipe the blood with a cape

Any bleeding triggers the bloodborne pathogen protocol: stop, glove up, apply pressure with a clean cotton ball or sterile gauze, and disinfect any tool that contacted blood with an EPA-registered tuberculocidal disinfectant.

16 CCR §979
61. Which is a CORRECT statement about California salon infection control?
a.Hot water alone disinfects tools
b.Disinfection is achieved by full immersion in an EPA-registered disinfectant for the labeled time, at least 10 minutes in California
c.UV cabinets replace the need for chemical disinfection
d.Sterilization is mandatory in all salons

California requires full immersion in an EPA-registered disinfectant for the labeled contact time, with a minimum of 10 minutes. UV cabinets, hot water alone, and salon sterilization are NOT required and not substitutes for proper chemical disinfection.

16 CCR §979
62. Which practice helps reduce a technician's daily exposure to nail-product fumes?
a.Closing the salon windows to keep the smell inside
b.A scented candle on the table
c.Local exhaust ventilation at the nail station that pulls vapors away from the breathing zone
d.Wearing perfume to mask the odor

Local exhaust ventilation pulls vapors and dust away from the worker's breathing zone, reducing chronic inhalation exposure. Masking odors or sealing the salon does not protect respiratory health.

16 CCR §979
63. What is the appropriate action if a client refuses to disclose a known skin or scalp condition before service?
a.Provide only nail services regardless of the condition
b.Explain that intake screening is required for safety and decline service if a contagious condition is suspected
c.Charge the client extra and proceed
d.Provide the service quickly to avoid offending the client

Client intake screening is required for the safety of staff, equipment, and other clients. If a contagious condition is suspected and the client will not disclose, the technician should decline service and refer the client to a physician.

16 CCR §979
64. Which monomer is the LEGAL standard for professional acrylic nail systems in California?
a.Toluene
b.Methyl methacrylate (MMA)
c.Ethyl methacrylate (EMA)
d.Methylene chloride

Ethyl methacrylate (EMA) is the legal monomer used in professional acrylic nail systems in California. MMA is prohibited; methylene chloride and toluene are not used as nail monomers.

BPC §7315
65. Which of the following is TRUE about UV light sanitizer cabinets in a California salon?
a.UV cabinets fulfill the legal disinfection requirement on their own
b.UV cabinets may be used for clean storage but do NOT substitute for required chemical disinfection
c.UV cabinets sterilize tools instantly
d.UV cabinets replace the EPA-registered disinfectant

California regulation requires chemical disinfection in an EPA-registered product for the labeled contact time. A UV cabinet may be useful for keeping already-disinfected tools clean, but it does NOT replace the chemical disinfection step.

16 CCR §979
66. During an inspection, the BBC inspector asks to see the disinfectant in use. The label should clearly show:
a.Only the country of origin
b.Only the brand name
c.EPA registration number plus bactericidal, virucidal, and fungicidal claims
d.A 'natural' or 'green' label

Inspectors look for an EPA registration number on the label and confirmation that the product is bactericidal, virucidal, and fungicidal. 'Natural' or 'green' marketing without these specifics does not meet the requirement.

16 CCR §979
67. A barber finds dried hair stuck in the teeth of a clipper guard at the end of the day. The CORRECT response is:
a.Remove the guard, brush and wash off the hair, then disinfect it for the full contact time
b.Run the clipper over a clean paper towel and use it tomorrow
c.Toss the guard in the trash
d.Leave the guard overnight in soapy water

Multi-use plastic clipper guards must be pre-cleaned (hair brushed/washed out), then disinfected for the full contact time. They are not single-use, and soaking in soapy water alone does not disinfect.

16 CCR §979
68. Why is infection control the most heavily tested topic on the California cosmetology exam?
a.Because infection control violations are the most common reason for BBC citations and pose the greatest public-health risk
b.Because it is the easiest topic
c.Because the BBC wants to limit license issuance
d.Because it is the only topic the law covers

Infection control violations are the most common reason BBC inspectors issue citations, and they pose the greatest risk of harm to the public. The exam weights the topic at approximately 25% to reflect this importance.

16 CCR §979
69. Under work-area requirements, what must be true about the floors of the area where services are performed?
a.Floors must be kept clean and free of hair clippings, debris, and waste throughout the day
b.Floors may be carpeted if vacuumed daily
c.Floors must be cleaned only at the end of each business week
d.Floors must be sealed in concrete and disinfected weekly

16 CCR §980 requires the work area, including floors, to be kept clean and free of hair, debris, and waste during business hours, not just at closing.

16 CCR §980
70. Before any non-electrical multi-use implement is placed in disinfectant solution, what mandatory step must be completed?
a.Wash thoroughly with soap and water to remove debris
b.Heat in an ultraviolet (UV) cabinet for 10 minutes
c.Submerge in 70% isopropyl alcohol for 30 seconds
d.Wipe with a dry paper towel only

16 CCR §981 mandates that multi-use implements be cleaned with soap or detergent and water to remove all visible debris before any disinfection step; disinfectant cannot work through residue.

16 CCR §981
71. How must waste materials saturated with blood or other potentially infectious body fluids be disposed of in a licensed establishment?
a.Flushed down a utility sink
b.Stored in an unlabeled paper bag until end of day
c.Placed in a sealed, leak-proof container labeled as biohazard and disposed of per Cal/OSHA
d.Placed in any open trash bin at the workstation

16 CCR §982, together with Cal/OSHA 8 CCR §5193, requires that materials contaminated with blood or OPIM be placed in closeable, leak-proof, biohazard-labeled containers and disposed of as regulated medical waste.

16 CCR §982
72. After a multi-use towel is used on a client, how must it be handled before reuse?
a.Hung to air-dry on the styling chair
b.Sprayed with rubbing alcohol and folded for the next client
c.Laundered in hot water with detergent and stored in a clean, closed container
d.Rinsed in cold tap water and reused immediately if not visibly soiled

16 CCR §983 requires that multi-use linens and towels be laundered after each client with detergent and stored clean in a covered or closed container, separate from soiled items.

16 CCR §983
73. In electrology, how must single-use needles and probes be handled immediately after use?
a.Wiped with alcohol and reused on the same client only
b.Recapped using two hands and stored in a drawer
c.Soaked in disinfectant for 10 minutes before discarding in regular trash
d.Placed directly into a puncture-resistant, labeled sharps container at the point of use

16 CCR §984 and Cal/OSHA 8 CCR §5193 require single-use needles and other sharps to be discarded immediately into a closable, puncture-resistant, leak-proof sharps container labeled as biohazard, located at the point of use. Recapping is prohibited.

16 CCR §984
74. A disinfectant used on non-porous implements in California salons must be EPA-registered and demonstrate efficacy against which group of pathogens?
a.Bactericidal, virucidal, and fungicidal (hospital-grade, broad-spectrum)
b.Only common cold viruses
c.Only fungal spores
d.Only Gram-positive bacteria

Per 16 CCR §979, the disinfectant must be EPA-registered as a hospital-grade, broad-spectrum product effective against bacteria, viruses, and fungi when used on non-porous tools.

16 CCR §979
75. A salon performs pedicures using a whirlpool foot spa. What is the correct frequency for the more thorough disinfection cycle that addresses screens, jets, and inlets (Phase B)?
a.Twice per day
b.At least once each week, in addition to cleaning after each client
c.After every client
d.Monthly

California BBC foot-spa cleaning protocol requires the basic Phase A clean-and-disinfect after every client, plus a more thorough Phase B weekly cleaning that removes the screen/filter and circulates disinfectant through jets/inlets.

16 CCR §979
76. How often must a wet disinfectant solution (such as a quaternary ammonium bath) be changed in a salon?
a.Only weekly regardless of appearance
b.At least daily, and any time it becomes visibly contaminated or cloudy
c.Only when the bottle of concentrate runs out
d.Once a month after counting clients served

Per 16 CCR §979, wet disinfectant solutions must be changed daily and immediately if visibly soiled or contaminated, to maintain the labeled antimicrobial potency.

16 CCR §979
77. What is the difference between sterilization and high-level disinfection as used in salon settings?
a.They are interchangeable terms with the same outcome
b.Sterilization is achieved with rubbing alcohol; disinfection requires bleach
c.Sterilization (e.g., autoclave) destroys all microbial life including spores; high-level disinfection destroys most pathogens but may not kill all bacterial spores
d.Both are accomplished by wiping with soap and water

Sterilization destroys all forms of microbial life, including resistant bacterial spores, typically via autoclave. High-level chemical disinfection kills most pathogens (bacteria, viruses, fungi, TB) but is not guaranteed sporicidal. Salons routinely use disinfection, not sterilization.

16 CCR §979
78. BBC Health & Safety guidance considers a 10% household bleach solution to be equivalent to approximately how many parts per million (ppm) of available chlorine?
a.500 ppm
b.50 ppm
c.50,000 ppm
d.5,000 ppm

Standard household bleach is ~5.25% sodium hypochlorite (~52,500 ppm). A 1:10 dilution (10% bleach) yields roughly 5,000 ppm available chlorine, the level recommended for disinfecting blood spills.

79. Compared with HIV, the Hepatitis B virus (HBV) is generally:
a.Much less stable outside the body, requiring no special protocols
b.More heat- and chemical-resistant, able to survive on dry surfaces for at least a week
c.Spread mainly through casual contact like handshakes
d.Killed only by autoclaving, never by liquid disinfectants

HBV is significantly hardier than HIV: it can survive on environmental surfaces in dried blood for at least 7 days and is more resistant to heat and chemicals, which is why salon disinfectants must be specifically labeled effective against HBV.

80. Why must a salon-grade disinfectant be labeled tuberculocidal (effective against Mycobacterium tuberculosis)?
a.Because clients are routinely tested for TB at the salon
b.Because tuberculocidal products are exempt from EPA registration
c.Because TB is the only pathogen present in salons
d.Because TB-killing efficacy is a recognized benchmark indicating broad-spectrum potency against tough lipid-coated pathogens

Mycobacterium tuberculosis has a waxy lipid cell wall that is hard to penetrate. A product that kills TB is considered an intermediate- to high-level disinfectant and a reliable indicator of broad-spectrum efficacy, which is why the BBC requires it on non-porous implements.

16 CCR §979
81. Methyl methacrylate (MMA) monomer is specifically prohibited in California for what type of service?
a.Chemical peels above 30% glycolic acid
b.Eyelash extensions on adults
c.Hair coloring on minors
d.Application of artificial nail enhancements to natural nails

16 CCR §979(c), reinforced by BPC §7315, prohibits the use of MMA monomer for natural-nail enhancements because of its strong bond, brittleness, and link to nail-plate injury and allergic reactions. Ethyl methacrylate (EMA) is the lawful substitute.

16 CCR §979(c) / BPC §7315
82. What is the core principle of "Standard Precautions" (the modern successor to Universal Precautions)?
a.Disposable gloves are only required when working on minors
b.Only clients who self-report a disease are treated with infection controls
c.Sanitation steps apply only to clients with visible wounds
d.Treat all human blood and body fluids from every client as if they are potentially infectious

Standard Precautions (Cal/OSHA 8 CCR §5193) treat all blood and OPIM from every person as potentially infectious, regardless of perceived risk. This is broader than the older Universal Precautions, which focused on blood-borne pathogens only.

Cal/OSHA 8 CCR §5193
83. Cal/OSHA §1532.1 sets standards on workplace lead exposure. Why is this relevant to nail-care professionals?
a.Lead is used as a primary disinfectant in pedicure baths
b.Some imported pigments and decorative items can contain lead contaminants, which must be controlled to keep airborne and skin exposure below permissible limits
c.Lead is intentionally added to base coats for shine
d.All gel polishes legally must contain lead

Cal/OSHA §1532.1 limits occupational lead exposure. While lead is not an approved cosmetic ingredient, trace contaminants can appear in imported pigments, decorations, or older inventory; employers must control exposure below the permissible exposure limit.

Cal/OSHA 8 CCR §1532.1
84. A typical quaternary ammonium ("quat") concentrate used in salons is most often diluted at approximately what ratio, unless the manufacturer specifies otherwise?
a.Approximately 1:200 (e.g., about 0.5 oz per gallon) per the product label
b.1:1000 in cold water only
c.Always 1:10 regardless of label
d.1:1, equal parts concentrate and water

Quat concentrates are commonly labeled around 1:200 (often ~0.5 oz per gallon of water). California regulations require following the manufacturer's label directions exactly, which take legal precedence over generic ratios.

16 CCR §979
85. Which of the following best describes the required record-keeping for infection-control activities at a licensed salon?
a.No records are required as long as the salon looks clean
b.Maintain a log of cleaning and disinfection (such as foot-spa, autoclave, or whirlpool cleaning) available for inspector review
c.Only annual records are required, kept in a sealed envelope
d.Records are required only for client phone numbers

California regulations under §979 expect licensees to maintain dated logs of cleaning/disinfection events (especially foot-spa Phase A/B and sterilization equipment) for at least 30 days, available to BBC inspectors on request.

16 CCR §979
86. A client accidentally cuts a finger during a manicure. What is the correct immediate procedure?
a.Stop service, put on gloves, control bleeding with clean gauze, clean and disinfect the contaminated area, discard single-use items, and disinfect any reusable implements that contacted blood
b.Apply alcohol to the implement and reuse it on the same client immediately
c.Continue the service so the client is not inconvenienced
d.Send the client home without further action

Per Cal/OSHA §5193 exposure-control procedure and BBC infection-control rules, the licensee must don gloves, control bleeding, clean and disinfect contaminated surfaces, discard contaminated single-use items into biohazard waste, and disinfect any reusable implements before reuse.

16 CCR §979
87. While the BBC does not enforce HIPAA, California licensees still owe clients a duty of confidentiality regarding which type of information?
a.The brand of shampoo used
b.Personal health disclosures (e.g., skin conditions, medications, pregnancy) shared on intake forms for service safety
c.The salon's hours of operation
d.How many clients the licensee saw that day

Although salons are not HIPAA-covered entities, client intake disclosures about medical conditions, medications, allergies, or pregnancy are private information. California consumer-protection principles and standard professional ethics require keeping such disclosures confidential.

88. Why is a UV (ultraviolet) cabinet not acceptable as a disinfection method on its own in California salons?
a.Because UV light is too expensive for salons
b.Because UV light is not recognized by the BBC as an EPA-registered disinfectant; it may be used only for storage of already-disinfected tools
c.Because UV cabinets are illegal to own in California
d.Because UV light is too dangerous to operate

Per 16 CCR §979, only EPA-registered, hospital-grade liquid disinfectants meet the legal requirement. UV cabinets are not approved disinfectants because uneven exposure and lack of contact penetration prevent reliable kill rates; they may only be used as clean storage.

16 CCR §979
89. Cal/OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard (§5194) requires that, for every chemical product used in the salon, the establishment maintains what?
a.An advertising brochure from the manufacturer
b.A verbal description from the owner
c.A current Safety Data Sheet (SDS) accessible to all employees during all work shifts
d.A printed photograph of the bottle only

§5194 (HazCom) requires employers to keep a current Safety Data Sheet (SDS) for every hazardous chemical onsite and to make it readily accessible to employees during all work shifts, along with employee training.

Cal/OSHA 8 CCR §5194
90. A single-use item (such as an emery board, wooden orangewood stick, or paper neck strip) must be:
a.Stored in disinfectant overnight for reuse
b.Discarded immediately after use on one client
c.Used on up to three clients before discarding
d.Disinfected and reused on the same client only

Per 16 CCR §979, porous single-use items cannot be effectively disinfected and must be discarded after a single client. Reusing porous items between clients is a common citation.

16 CCR §979
91. Which of the following is the BEST example of an engineering control for chemical safety under Cal/OSHA?
a.Issuing employees one pair of nitrile gloves per month
b.Posting a sign that says "be careful"
c.Asking employees to hold their breath while applying products
d.Installing a local source-capture ventilation system at nail tables to remove vapors at the source

Engineering controls remove or reduce a hazard at its source (e.g., source-capture ventilation, ventilated nail tables). They sit above administrative controls and PPE in the hierarchy of controls because they do not depend on worker behavior.

92. The minimum contact time for an EPA-registered salon disinfectant is determined by:
a.How long the implement looks wet to the naked eye
b.The specific time printed on the product's EPA-registered label and SDS
c.Always exactly 60 seconds, regardless of product
d.Whatever the previous client recommended

16 CCR §979 requires the licensee to follow the manufacturer's label directions, including the EPA-approved contact (dwell) time. Contact time varies by product (commonly 1, 5, or 10 minutes), and tools must remain fully submerged for that period.

16 CCR §979
93. A licensee finishes a haircut and notices a small amount of blood on the shears from a nick on the client's ear. What is the correct sequence?
a.Wipe with a towel, place in drawer, and use on the next client
b.Clean visible blood with detergent and water, then fully immerse the shears in an EPA-registered, tuberculocidal/bloodborne-pathogen-claim disinfectant for the labeled contact time, then rinse and dry before reuse
c.Spray with hairspray and dry on the workstation
d.Throw the shears into the general trash

When implements are contaminated with blood or OPIM, 16 CCR §979/§982 and Cal/OSHA §5193 require the licensee to first clean visible debris, then disinfect with an EPA-registered product that carries a tuberculocidal and bloodborne-pathogen claim for the full labeled contact time.

16 CCR §979 / §982
94. Under Cal/OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens standard (§5193), the principle of 'Universal Precautions' / 'Standard Precautions' instructs the licensee to:
a.Treat ALL human blood and certain body fluids as if they were known to be infectious for HIV, HBV, HCV, and other bloodborne pathogens, regardless of the client's known status
b.Refuse service to any client who appears ill in any way
c.Treat as infectious only the blood of clients who have disclosed a positive infectious disease status
d.Apply infection-control measures only when assisting another worker, not when serving a client

Universal Precautions, codified for California workers in Cal/OSHA §5193 (the Bloodborne Pathogens standard), require that ALL human blood and certain body fluids be treated as if infectious for HIV, hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and other bloodborne pathogens, regardless of what the client discloses. This is because many infected clients are asymptomatic and do not know their status, and a 'risk-rank-then-glove' approach is unsafe. Option A relies on disclosure that often is not available. Option C is discriminatory and not the rule. Option D ignores the standard's plain text, which covers worker exposure to client material.

Cal/OSHA §5193
95. A disinfectant used on non-porous, multi-use salon implements in California must, at minimum, be:
a.EPA-registered, labeled as hospital-grade (bactericidal, virucidal, fungicidal), and tuberculocidal, and used at the dilution and contact time stated on the label
b.Any bottle of household vinegar that smells strong enough
c.Plain hot tap water at boiling temperature for 1 minute, with no chemical involved
d.A bottle of perfume or hairspray that contains 60 percent alcohol

California requires that disinfectants used on non-porous multi-use salon tools between clients be EPA-registered and labeled as hospital-grade, meaning effective against bacteria, viruses, and fungi, and additionally tuberculocidal as a proxy for activity against tough bloodborne pathogens. The product must be used at the label dilution and for the full label contact time. This standard is set under CCR Title 16 §979 and reinforced in BBC inspection practice. Household vinegar (option B) is not EPA-registered as a hospital-grade disinfectant. Plain boiling water (option C) is not disinfection as defined for salons. Perfume or hairspray (option D) is not a registered disinfectant and contains additives that interfere with surface contact.

CCR Title 16 §979
96. A barber accidentally nicks a client with a clipper guard and is exposed to a small amount of the client's blood through a torn glove. Immediately after stopping the bleeding on the client and applying first aid, the worker's correct steps for HER OWN exposure are:
a.Pour bleach into the cut to disinfect from the inside
b.Wash the exposed area thoroughly with soap and water (or flush mucous membranes with water), report the exposure to the employer per the salon's exposure control plan, document the incident, and seek post-exposure medical evaluation per Cal/OSHA §5193
c.Continue the service to avoid embarrassing the client, then deal with the exposure at home
d.Ignore it; the cut is small and clipper guards never carry pathogens

The Cal/OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens standard (§5193) requires every workplace with reasonably anticipated occupational exposure to have an Exposure Control Plan that includes immediate care and reporting of any exposure incident. The correct steps for the worker are to wash the exposed skin with soap and water (or flush eyes/mucous membranes with water), report the exposure promptly to the employer, document the source if known, and obtain post-exposure medical evaluation and follow-up including baseline testing and any indicated prophylaxis (such as HBV vaccination boost or HIV PEP when warranted). Options A, B, and C ignore the standard, harm the worker, and create medical and legal liability.

Cal/OSHA §5193
97. A new salon owner is choosing between an AUTOCLAVE, a UV cabinet, and a hospital-grade liquid IMMERSION disinfectant for sanitizing multi-use metal implements. Which statement is correct for California salon practice?
a.Any of the three methods are interchangeable and a quick alcohol wipe is also fine
b.California requires that multi-use, non-porous implements be CLEANED of debris and then DISINFECTED using an EPA-registered hospital-grade liquid disinfectant per label dilution and contact time; UV cabinets are useful only as clean storage and are NOT a substitute for chemical disinfection; an autoclave (steam sterilization) exceeds the BBC's disinfection standard but is not required
c.A UV cabinet is the only acceptable method for California salons
d.An autoclave is required by the BBC for every salon

California's standard for between-client decontamination of non-porous multi-use implements is CLEAN (debris removed) plus DISINFECT (EPA-registered hospital-grade product effective against bacteria, viruses, and fungi, used at label dilution and full label contact time). UV cabinets do not reliably disinfect; they kill some surface organisms in line-of-sight but cannot penetrate hinges, joints, or shadows, so they are acceptable only as clean storage after proper chemical disinfection. Autoclaves (steam under pressure) achieve sterilization, exceeding the BBC's disinfection requirement, but are not required. The CCR Title 16 §979 sanitation rules underpin BBC inspection practice. A quick alcohol wipe is not equivalent.

CCR Title 16 §979
98. A jug of EPA-registered hospital-grade disinfectant lists a tuberculocidal contact time of 10 minutes at the labeled dilution. A nail technician immerses combs and metal nippers for 10 minutes between clients. To be COMPLIANT, she must:
a.Skip the cleaning step because the disinfectant itself dissolves debris
b.Use the disinfectant only on the outside of the tools
c.Use the FULL 10-minute contact time at the proper label dilution, with implements fully submerged and free of debris, in covered solution that is changed at least daily or whenever visibly contaminated; shortening time, diluting incorrectly, or leaving the lid off invalidates the kill claim
d.Use 1 minute because shorter is fine for clean tools

Contact time on an EPA label is the MINIMUM time the surface must remain visibly wet with disinfectant at the labeled dilution to achieve the kill claim. Any deviation (shorter time, wrong dilution, partial immersion, soiled solution, uncovered jar that allows evaporation) invalidates the manufacturer's tested efficacy. California licensees must clean implements first (debris physically removed) THEN disinfect, and change the solution at least daily or whenever visibly contaminated, per CCR Title 16 §979 and BBC sanitation practice. Options B, C, and D each break a specific rule and produce a non-compliant cycle that an inspector will cite.

CCR Title 16 §979
99. During a haircut a client bleeds onto the cape and the chair. Under Cal/OSHA §5193 (Bloodborne Pathogens), the proper blood-spill cleanup is to:
a.Don a fresh pair of gloves; cover the spill with absorbent material to contain it; clean the area to remove visible blood; apply an EPA-registered tuberculocidal/hospital-grade disinfectant for the labeled contact time; place all blood-contaminated disposables in a properly labeled biohazard bag; remove gloves and wash hands; document the exposure in the salon's Exposure Control Plan
b.Use household bleach at full strength sprayed across the entire salon floor
c.Wipe the blood with a dry paper towel and continue the service
d.Have the client clean the spill herself because it is her own blood

The Cal/OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens standard (§5193) requires every workplace with reasonably anticipated occupational exposure to maintain a written Exposure Control Plan and to follow a defined cleanup procedure for blood and OPIM spills: don gloves, contain and absorb, clean visible blood, disinfect with an EPA-registered tuberculocidal/hospital-grade disinfectant for the labeled contact time, dispose of blood-saturated disposables in a labeled biohazard container, doff gloves, wash hands, and document. Option A skips disinfection. Option C is excessive, off-target, and damages flooring without controlling the spill. Option D is unprofessional and unsafe; the employer is responsible for the cleanup procedure, not the client.

Cal/OSHA §5193
100. An emery board, an orangewood stick, and a metal cuticle pusher are sitting on a manicure tray after a service. The BBC sanitation rule is:
a.All three are single-use and must be discarded
b.All three may be reused on the next client if wiped with alcohol
c.Only the metal pusher is single-use; the others are reusable
d.Porous items (emery board, orangewood stick) cannot be effectively disinfected and MUST be discarded after a single client; non-porous metal items (cuticle pusher) must be CLEANED of debris and immersed in an EPA-registered hospital-grade disinfectant for the labeled contact time, then dried and stored in a clean closed container

Porous items (emery boards, wooden orangewood sticks, buffer blocks, cotton, gauze, paper applicators) absorb fluids and dust into their structure and cannot be reliably disinfected; California treats them as SINGLE-USE and they must be discarded after one client. Non-porous, multi-use items (metal cuticle pushers, nippers, combs, shears) must be cleaned of debris and immersed in an EPA-registered hospital-grade disinfectant for the labeled contact time, then dried and stored in a clean closed container. This is the core of CCR Title 16 §979 sanitation. Options A, B, and C either reuse a porous item, discard a reusable one, or mis-classify the metal tool.

CCR Title 16 §979
101. A pedicure salon using whirlpool foot spas faces ongoing risk from Mycobacterium fortuitum and other waterborne organisms. The most effective infection-control practice combines:
a.Between every client: drain, scrub the bowl and any removable parts to remove debris, refill with clean water plus an EPA-registered hospital-grade disinfectant, circulate for the labeled contact time, then drain and rinse; at end of day perform a longer disinfection cycle; at least weekly remove and clean the screen/filter; keep a written log of each cleaning
b.Filling each basin with hot tap water as the only sanitation step
c.Cleaning the visible bowl with dish soap only and skipping disinfection between clients
d.Once-a-month deep cleaning only

Whirlpool foot spas have generated some of the most serious salon outbreaks documented in California (Mycobacterium fortuitum boils, etc.) precisely because biofilm forms in the jets and screens. The BBC pedicure-equipment rules (CCR Title 16 §980.4) require a between-client procedure (drain, clean, refill with disinfectant, circulate for label contact time, rinse), a more rigorous end-of-day procedure, a weekly removal-and-cleaning of the screen/filter, and a written log signed by the licensee. Options A, B, and D miss steps and intervals and would fail an inspection and put clients at risk.

CCR Title 16 §980.4

Ethics & California Law

70 questions
1. Which California state agency is responsible for licensing and regulating cosmetologists, barbers, estheticians, and manicurists?
a.Board of Barbering and Cosmetology (BBC)
b.California Department of Public Health
c.California Cosmetic Council
d.Bureau of Cannabis Control

The Board of Barbering and Cosmetology (BBC) is established under the Department of Consumer Affairs and is the single state body that licenses and regulates beauty professionals and establishments in California.

BPC §7303
2. A licensed esthetician is asked by a client to trim split ends on her hair while she is in the chair for a facial. What should the esthetician do?
a.Trim the ends after the client signs a waiver
b.Refer the client to a manicurist
c.Decline because hair cutting is outside the esthetician scope of practice
d.Trim only a small amount as a courtesy

Under BPC §7316, an esthetician license covers skin care, waxing, and non-invasive facial treatments. Cutting or trimming hair is not within the esthetician scope and would constitute practicing outside the license.

BPC §7316
3. Which service is OUTSIDE the scope of practice of every BBC license, even for a full cosmetologist?
a.Eyebrow waxing
b.Acrylic nail extensions
c.Laser hair removal
d.Permanent wave

Laser hair removal involves a medical device that penetrates the skin and is considered a medical procedure in California. It must be performed by or under the supervision of a licensed physician and is outside every BBC license, including a full cosmetologist.

BPC §7316
4. Which procedure may a licensed cosmetologist NEVER perform?
a.Hair coloring
b.Botox injections
c.Eyebrow tinting (where allowed)
d.Pedicure

Botox and other injectable treatments penetrate the skin and are medical procedures. Only licensed medical professionals may inject. Performing injectables under a BBC license is practicing outside scope and unauthorized practice of medicine.

BPC §7316
5. A California-licensed manicurist may legally perform which of the following?
a.A haircut for a child
b.A basic facial
c.Eyebrow waxing
d.A manicure with hand massage up to the elbow

A manicurist license is limited to care of the nails and the hands and feet up to and including the elbow and knee. Facials, waxing, and hair cutting are outside the manicurist scope.

BPC §7316
6. Which license category was created in 2023 and is limited to hair services only (no skin, no nails)?
a.Barber
b.Cosmetologist
c.Apprentice
d.Hairstylist

California created the Hairstylist license effective 2023. It allows cutting, styling, coloring, and chemical hair services but does not include skin care or nail services.

BPC §7316
7. A licensed barber wants to add chemical perms and color services to his menu. May he?
a.No, only cosmetologists may perform color
b.Only on male clients
c.Yes, the barber scope in California includes hair coloring and chemical services
d.No, perms require a separate chemical permit

In California, the barber scope of practice covers cutting, styling, shaving, and chemical hair services including color and perms. The license is not restricted to one gender.

BPC §7316
8. A salon owner lets her unlicensed cousin do shampoo, blow-dries, and basic haircuts on weekends. Under BPC §7317 this is best described as:
a.A minor record-keeping issue
b.Aiding and abetting unlicensed practice and subject to discipline
c.Permissible because shampooing is not regulated
d.Permissible only if the cousin is in school

BPC §7317 makes it unlawful both to practice without a license and to aid or abet unlicensed practice. The salon owner can be cited, fined, and have her establishment license disciplined.

BPC §7317
9. Where must a licensee's BBC license be displayed inside the salon?
a.Conspicuously at the licensee's station or work area
b.Display is optional if the license number is on the business card
c.Anywhere on the premises is acceptable
d.In the manager's office only

Under BPC §7363 each licensee must display their license conspicuously at their workstation so clients and inspectors can verify it without asking.

BPC §7363
10. A new salon must have which TWO categories of license before legally opening to the public?
a.An establishment license AND individual licenses for each practitioner
b.Only a city business license
c.Only the owner's personal license
d.Sales tax permit and seller's permit only

California requires both an establishment (salon) license issued to the location and individual licenses for every practitioner working there. One does not substitute for the other.

BPC §7346
11. How often must a California beauty license be renewed?
a.Every 2 years
b.Every 5 years
c.Every year
d.Every 3 years

BBC licenses (cosmetologist, barber, esthetician, manicurist, hairstylist, and establishment licenses) renew every 2 years.

BPC §7321
12. How many hours of continuing education (CE) does California require for renewal of a cosmetologist license?
a.Zero — California does not require continuing education
b.4 hours
c.10 hours
d.16 hours

Unlike many other states, California does NOT require continuing education for renewal of BBC licenses. Renewal requires payment of the fee and remaining in good standing only.

13. A practitioner advertises herself online as a "licensed cosmetologist" although her license expired two years ago. This is best described as:
a.Permitted while a renewal application is pending
b.Allowed if she only works on family members
c.A harmless lapse since experience does not expire
d.Unlicensed practice and misrepresentation, both prohibited

An expired license is no license. Practicing or advertising as licensed while expired is unlicensed practice and misrepresentation under BPC §7317.

BPC §7317
14. Which posting is required by the BBC to be visible inside a licensed salon?
a.The owner's home address
b.A copy of the federal tax return
c.A signed lease agreement
d.A current, itemized price list of services

BBC inspection rules require salons to post a current, conspicuous price list of services so consumers know the cost before service. Tax returns, leases, and home addresses are not required postings.

15. Smoking, eating, and drinking are restricted in salon service areas because:
a.BBC sanitation rules prohibit them in client service areas
b.They are allowed if the door is open
c.They violate fire code only
d.They distract clients

BBC sanitation regulations under Title 16 CCR ban smoking, eating, and drinking in client service areas to keep the environment sanitary. Signs are typically posted to that effect.

16. When a BBC inspector arrives unannounced at a salon during business hours, the licensee should:
a.Cooperate; salons consent to inspection as a condition of licensure
b.Demand a court warrant before any inspection
c.Refuse entry unless given 24 hours' notice
d.Close the salon immediately

By accepting a BBC establishment license, owners consent to reasonable, unannounced inspections during business hours. Refusing entry can itself be a basis for citation.

17. Before applying a permanent wave to a new client, the BEST practice is to:
a.Skip the consultation to save time
b.Have a friend sign the release on the client's behalf
c.Apply only on one side first as a test
d.Conduct a consultation and document the client's prior chemical history, scalp condition, and informed consent

Informed consent and consultation are professional and legal standards before chemical services. Documenting prior chemicals, scalp condition, allergies, and patch tests protects both the client and the licensee.

18. A client tells the stylist she is pregnant before a color service. The stylist should:
a.Refuse all service to anyone who is pregnant
b.Use double-strength developer
c.Ignore the disclosure and proceed as usual
d.Consult the client about preferences, follow manufacturer warnings, and document the discussion

Pregnancy alone does not bar hair color in California, but professional ethics call for following manufacturer instructions, considering ventilation, and documenting that the client was informed and consented. Blanket refusal could also raise discrimination concerns.

19. Under the California Fair Employment and Housing Act (FEHA), a salon may NOT refuse service based on:
a.A client behaving violently
b.A documented contagious skin disease
c.Failure to pay for a prior service
d.Race, religion, sexual orientation, gender identity, or national origin

FEHA prohibits public accommodations, including salons, from refusing service based on protected characteristics such as race, religion, sexual orientation, gender identity, and national origin. Safety-based or payment-based refusals are different.

20. The California CROWN Act protects clients and employees from discrimination based on:
a.Color of nail polish
b.Type of footwear worn
c.Brand of shampoo used
d.Natural hair texture and protective hairstyles

The CROWN Act (codified within FEHA) bars discrimination based on natural hair texture and protective styles such as braids, locs, twists, and Bantu knots. Salons should welcome, not refuse, these hair types.

21. A client suffers a serious chemical burn during a relaxer service. The salon owner should:
a.Provide first aid, document the incident in writing, and report as required by BBC and insurance protocols
b.Tell the client it is not the salon's responsibility
c.Offer cash to keep quiet
d.Ignore it and hope the client doesn't return

Professional and ethical practice requires immediate first aid, written incident documentation, and reporting through BBC and insurance channels. This protects the client and provides a defensible record for the licensee.

22. Microblading and other permanent makeup (cosmetic tattooing) procedures in California require:
a.No regulation at all
b.Only an esthetician license
c.A separate body art / tattoo registration with the local health department (NOT a BBC license)
d.Only a cosmetology license

Permanent makeup procedures penetrate the skin and are regulated under California's Safe Body Art Act by local health departments — not by the BBC. A BBC license alone does not authorize microblading.

23. Eyelash extension application in California may be performed by which of the following?
a.Only by a manicurist
b.Only by a medical doctor
c.Anyone who has watched a YouTube tutorial
d.A licensed cosmetologist or esthetician within scope

Eyelash extensions are considered skin/eye area services and fall under the cosmetologist and esthetician scope. Manicurists may not perform them, and no medical license is required.

BPC §7316
24. Two pathways to qualify for a BBC license exam are:
a.High school diploma alone or military service alone
b.Completion of an approved school program OR completion of an approved apprenticeship
c.Working unlicensed for one year
d.Self-study and online certification

California allows applicants to qualify by completing the required hours at a BBC-approved school OR by completing a registered BBC-approved apprenticeship. Self-study, working unlicensed, or military service alone is not enough.

25. A licensee receives a citation with a fine from the BBC. The licensee disagrees. What is the proper next step?
a.Post about it on social media
b.Pay the fine even though it is contested, then forget it
c.Request an informal conference or formal appeal within the timeframe stated on the citation
d.Ignore the citation

BBC citations include the right to appeal. The licensee can request an informal conference or contested-case hearing within the deadline printed on the citation. Ignoring the citation increases penalties and may lead to discipline.

26. The BBC discipline ladder from least to most severe is best described as:
a.Revocation → fine → reprimand → probation
b.Citation/fine → probation → suspension → revocation
c.Suspension → fine → letter → revocation
d.Probation → revocation → fine → suspension

Discipline generally escalates: a citation with fine for minor violations, probation for more serious or repeat issues, suspension that pauses the license for a set period, and revocation that ends the license entirely.

27. A student in cosmetology school may receive money for services performed during training when:
a.A friend tips her in cash
b.She works at a salon on Saturdays
c.Services are part of school clinic instruction and any fees go to the school
d.She charges clients privately at home

Students are not licensed and may not work for compensation outside of school clinic instruction supervised by an approved school. Working at a salon or charging privately constitutes unlicensed practice.

28. An apprentice cosmetologist working in a salon must be:
a.Paid only in tips
b.Registered with the BBC apprenticeship program and supervised by an approved licensed trainer
c.Allowed to perform any service if she has been training six months
d.Self-supervised at all times

California's apprenticeship route requires the apprentice to be enrolled and registered in the BBC apprenticeship program and to be supervised by a qualified, approved trainer at all times during salon work.

29. Title 16 of the California Code of Regulations (CCR) provides:
a.Detailed BBC regulations on sanitation, equipment, and conduct
b.Federal income tax rules
c.OSHA hazard codes only
d.City zoning rules for salons

Title 16 CCR contains the detailed BBC regulations that implement the Cosmetology Act, including sanitation, equipment cleaning, conduct, and inspection standards. It is a primary source for the state board exam.

30. Which of these is a clear ethical violation by a licensee?
a.Selling a salon product the client doesn't need just to earn commission, knowing it won't help
b.Suggesting a follow-up appointment in six weeks
c.Recommending a sulfate-free shampoo for color-treated hair
d.Politely declining to perform a service outside her training

Knowingly selling a product the client does not need solely to earn commission is dishonest and a breach of the professional duty to act in the client's best interest.

31. Client records (consultation forms, allergy notes, patch test results) should be:
a.Kept confidential, stored securely, and retained for a reasonable period
b.Posted publicly so other staff can see them
c.Discarded after each visit
d.Shared with the client's employer

Client records are confidential. Salons should store them securely, share only with authorized staff providing service, and keep them long enough to be useful for follow-up care and any potential dispute.

32. A booth-renter stylist is paid directly by clients. Who is responsible for displaying her individual BBC license at her station?
a.The booth-renter herself
b.The BBC office
c.The salon owner only
d.No one — booth renters are exempt

Each individual licensee is responsible for displaying her own license at her workstation, whether she is an employee or a booth renter. The salon owner still must hold a current establishment license.

33. An esthetician offers a treatment she calls "micro-needling." In California, micro-needling that penetrates the skin to a medical depth is:
a.A medical procedure beyond esthetician scope; only a limited cosmetic-grade device on the very surface may be within esthetician practice and only with proper training
b.Allowed if the client signs a waiver
c.Allowed with parental consent
d.Always within esthetician scope

True micro-needling that breaks the skin to a treatment depth is a medical procedure. Only very superficial cosmetic-grade rollers may arguably fit within esthetician scope, and even then training and infection control are critical.

34. If a client's belongings (coat, purse) are lost or damaged at a salon, the salon's best practice is:
a.Tell the client it's not the salon's problem
b.Charge a search fee
c.Offer secure storage, post any disclaimers visibly, and address the loss with reasonable customer service and insurance
d.Refuse service to the client in the future

Salons should provide reasonable safekeeping, post any disclaimers in plain view, and address legitimate losses through customer service and liability insurance. Brushing off a client harms reputation and may invite legal action.

35. If a licensee changes her mailing address, she must:
a.Tell her clients but not the board
b.Only update with the IRS
c.Notify the BBC within 30 days of the change
d.Wait until renewal to update it

BBC rules require licensees to keep their address of record current and to notify the board within 30 days of any change so that renewal notices and discipline notices reach them.

36. California eliminated the practical (hands-on) portion of the licensing exam in 2022. The current state exam is:
a.Oral interview only
b.Written multiple-choice only, administered by PSI
c.Practical only
d.There is no state exam any more

Since 2022, California uses only a written multiple-choice exam administered by PSI. The hands-on practical was removed; written content covers safety, science, scope, law, and services.

37. Mobile or in-home beauty services in California:
a.Require a separate driver's license endorsement
b.Generally require special arrangements; many services must be performed in a licensed establishment, with limited exceptions for shut-in clients arranged through a licensed establishment
c.Are completely unregulated
d.Are allowed by any licensee at any time without notice

BBC rules generally require services to take place at a licensed establishment, with narrow exceptions (such as services to a shut-in client) usually arranged through a licensed salon. Truly mobile salon-style operations need careful compliance review.

38. A salon owner sees a competing salon next door operating without an establishment license. The ethical and lawful response is to:
a.Do nothing because it benefits her own business
b.Take photos and post them on social media to shame them
c.Vandalize the competitor's signage
d.Report the situation to the BBC and let the board investigate

The professional and legal response is to file a complaint with the BBC and allow the board to investigate. Self-help vandalism or public shaming can expose the owner to civil and criminal liability.

39. During a pedicure a regular client asks the manicurist to shave down a hardened callus on the ball of the foot with a small razor-style credo blade. Under California law the manicurist should:
a.Charge an extra fee for the callus removal
b.Have the client sign a waiver and then proceed
c.Use the blade quickly so the cut is shallow
d.Refuse and explain that cutting or removing corns, calluses or growths with a blade or cutting tool is outside any BBC license

BPC §7317.5 makes clear that cutting or removing corns, calluses, warts, ingrown nails or other growths with a credo blade, razor or similar cutting instrument is a medical procedure, not a beauty service. No BBC license (cosmetologist, barber, esthetician, manicurist or hairstylist) authorizes it, and a waiver does not cure the lack of legal authority.

BPC §7317.5
40. Which foot care action IS permitted within the California manicurist scope of practice?
a.Cutting a corn off with a credo blade
b.Injecting a numbing agent before nail trimming
c.Smoothing a callus with a foot file or pumice while the skin remains intact
d.Excising an ingrown toenail with a small scalpel

California limits the manicurist to non-invasive nail and skin care. Filing or buffing intact callused skin with a foot file or pumice is allowed; anything that cuts, excises, or injects is a medical procedure under BPC §7317.5 and is outside the BBC scope entirely.

BPC §7317.5
41. An investor with no beauty license wishes to open a salon and hire licensed staff. Under BPC §7318 this is:
a.Permitted only if the investor takes a 50-hour ownership course
b.Permitted — California does not require the owner of an establishment to hold an individual practitioner license, but the establishment must obtain its own establishment license
c.Permitted only with BBC special approval
d.Forbidden — only licensed cosmetologists may own a salon

BPC §7318 does not require the owner of a beauty establishment to be personally licensed; ownership is open to unlicensed investors. What is required is that the location itself hold a current BBC establishment license and that every practitioner working there be individually licensed.

BPC §7318
42. A company owns three salon locations in three different California cities. Under BPC §7318 how many establishment licenses must it hold?
a.Two — only the main and one branch
b.Three — every separate establishment location must hold its own establishment license
c.It depends on city population
d.One — a single corporate license covers all locations

BPC §7318 ties the establishment license to the physical location of the salon. A chain owner must obtain and renew a separate establishment license for each location, no matter how many sites the same person or company operates.

BPC §7318
43. A licensed cosmetologist plans to take three years off to raise her child and does not want to pay full renewal fees. Under BPC §7321 her best option is to:
a.Keep practicing on family members during the break
b.Elect inactive status at renewal so the license remains valid but she may not legally provide services until she reactivates
c.Send a letter asking the BBC to pause the license without any fee
d.Let the license expire and apply again from scratch later

BPC §7321 lets a licensee elect inactive status at the two-year renewal. The license stays on record and can later be reactivated by paying the active renewal fee and meeting any reactivation requirements, but services to the public are not permitted while inactive.

BPC §7321
44. A cosmetologist whose license was REVOKED two years ago wants to return to practice. Under BPC §7321.3 she must:
a.Wait ten years and the license is automatically restored
b.Simply pay the back renewal fees and resume work
c.Petition the BBC for restoration of the license and meet any conditions the board sets
d.Apply for a hairstylist license instead, which has no restoration requirement

Revocation is the highest level of discipline and the license is no longer valid. BPC §7321.3 sets the framework for petitioning the board for restoration. The board may grant, deny, or impose conditions such as probation, additional training, or fee payment.

BPC §7321.3
45. Under BPC §7326, the schedule of fees for application, examination, and licensure is:
a.Established by statute and adjusted by the BBC within statutory limits, and licensees must pay the fees in effect at the time of the transaction
b.Set freely by each school
c.Waived for all California residents
d.Set only by the Department of Public Health

BPC §7326 authorizes the BBC to set fees within statutory caps for application, examination, original licensure, renewal, and related services. Applicants and licensees pay the fee in force at the time they apply or renew.

BPC §7326
46. Under BPC §7332, an apprentice cosmetologist and an approved training salon must enter into:
a.A verbal handshake agreement
b.An NDA preventing the apprentice from leaving
c.A written apprentice training agreement filed with the BBC that identifies the supervising licensee and the curriculum hours to be completed
d.A separate criminal background contract

BPC §7332 requires that an apprentice and the approved training establishment enter into a written agreement identifying the apprentice, the supervising licensee (trainer), and the curriculum and hour requirements. The agreement is filed with the BBC as part of the apprenticeship program.

BPC §7332
47. Under BPC §7333, an apprenticeship program in California must:
a.Replace school instruction entirely with on-the-job work only
b.Be approved by the BBC and include both supervised related instruction and on-the-job training meeting the board's curriculum
c.Allow apprentices to perform any service starting day one
d.Be self-designed by each salon owner

BPC §7333 requires apprenticeship programs to be approved by the BBC and to combine related instruction (classroom-style) with supervised on-the-job training following the board's prescribed curriculum, so that an apprentice graduates with comparable competency to a school student.

BPC §7333
48. Historically, BPC §7344 governed the appointment of examiners for the practical exam. Following California's 2022 reform:
a.Examiners must be licensed dentists
b.Examiners have replaced the BBC entirely
c.The practical exam has been eliminated, so the examiner role is no longer needed for hands-on testing; written exam delivery is handled by the BBC's testing vendor
d.Examiners now visit each salon weekly

BPC §7344 once provided for appointing practical-exam examiners. After AB-1310/SB-803 eliminated the practical exam in 2022, the practical examiner role is no longer used for testing; the BBC's contracted testing vendor (PSI) administers only the written exam.

BPC §7344
49. Under BPC §7346, the BBC establishment license:
a.Is permanent once issued
b.Need not be posted as long as the owner can produce it on request
c.Is issued to each practitioner, not to the location
d.Has a defined term (renewable every two years like other BBC licenses) and must be posted in a conspicuous location within the establishment

BPC §7346 ties the establishment license to a fixed location for a defined term that is renewable every two years along with other BBC license categories. The license itself must be conspicuously posted on the premises so inspectors and the public can see it.

BPC §7346
50. Operating a salon to the public WITHOUT a current BBC establishment license is best described under BPC §7349 as:
a.Allowed for the first 90 days while the application is pending
b.Allowed if every practitioner inside is individually licensed
c.A purely civil tax matter
d.Unlawful — the establishment must hold its own license, and the BBC may cite, fine, and order closure regardless of whether individual licensees are present

BPC §7349 makes operating a beauty establishment without a current establishment license unlawful. The individual licenses of practitioners inside do not substitute for the location license. The BBC may issue citations, fines, and orders to cease operation.

BPC §7349
51. Under BPC §7352 the BBC citation procedure typically includes which feature?
a.A written citation that describes the violation, sets a fine or correction order, and informs the licensee of the deadline and right to request an informal conference or formal appeal
b.Anonymous fines with no right to know what was violated
c.A right to dispute the citation only after the fine is paid
d.Permanent loss of the license at first offense

BPC §7352 authorizes the BBC to issue written citations that identify the violation, set a fine or correction order, and notify the licensee of how and when to appeal. Citations are not anonymous, do not result in automatic loss of license, and the right to dispute does not require paying first.

BPC §7352
52. A barber uses electric clippers and shears that he owns personally. Under BPC §7363:
a.Equipment ownership is irrelevant to the BBC
b.Personally owned tools are exempt from inspection
c.His BBC license number must be associated with the equipment and tools he uses for services so an inspector can identify the licensee responsible for them
d.Only the salon owner's name needs to appear on the clippers

BPC §7363 ties the license display and identification requirements to the individual licensee and the equipment they use. An inspector must be able to associate the equipment in use with a specific licensed practitioner. Personal ownership of the tools does not exempt the licensee from this accountability.

BPC §7363
53. Under BPC §7401 an "itinerant" beauty operator who travels door-to-door soliciting paid haircuts at customer homes is generally:
a.Allowed only on weekends
b.Encouraged because it improves access
c.Allowed if the operator carries a printed copy of her license
d.Prohibited — services must be provided in a licensed establishment, with only narrow exceptions (such as services to shut-in or disabled clients) arranged through a licensed establishment

BPC §7401 prohibits itinerant practice — going from place to place soliciting customers — except under narrowly defined exceptions normally arranged through a licensed establishment. Random door-to-door beauty service does not qualify.

BPC §7401
54. BPC §7406 sets statutory DEFINITIONS for the regulated practices. Which of the following is the most accurate consequence of those definitions?
a.An act fits within BBC regulation only when it falls within the statutory definition of cosmetology, barbering, esthetics, electrology, manicuring, or hairstyling; acts outside those definitions are not BBC-regulated even if performed in a salon
b.Definitions only apply to advertising, not to scope of practice
c.Anything done in a salon is by definition cosmetology
d.Any beauty term in marketing is automatically a licensed practice

BPC §7406 defines the regulated practices. Whether a particular act is within BBC jurisdiction depends on whether it matches the statutory definition of cosmetology, barbering, esthetics, electrology, manicuring or hairstyling. Acts outside those definitions (e.g., body art, medical procedures) are regulated elsewhere or not at all by the BBC.

BPC §7406
55. Under California's CROWN Act (amending the definition of "race" in the Government Code's anti-discrimination statutes), discrimination because of "race" expressly includes:
a.Eye color and height
b.Traits historically associated with race, including hair texture and protective hairstyles such as braids, locs and twists
c.Only skin color
d.Only national origin

The CROWN Act amended the Government Code's definition of "race" to include traits historically associated with race, specifically hair texture and protective hairstyles such as braids, locs and twists. Salons and employers must not refuse service or jobs because of these protected traits.

56. Tattooing, branding, and body piercing in California are regulated under the Safe Body Art Act (Health & Safety Code §119300 and following). How does this interact with a BBC license?
a.Body art and cosmetology share the same license
b.A BBC esthetician license automatically authorizes tattoo work
c.A BBC cosmetologist license authorizes nipple piercing
d.Body art is OUTSIDE the BBC's scope; a BBC license (cosmetologist, esthetician, etc.) does NOT authorize tattooing, branding or body piercing, and those acts must be registered separately with the local health jurisdiction

The Safe Body Art Act places tattooing (including permanent makeup), branding and body piercing under local health department registration and inspection. A BBC license does not authorize these acts; they require Body Art Practitioner registration and a registered body art facility.

57. Two California laws (AB-1310 and SB-803) reformed BBC licensing around 2022. Which of the following is a CORRECT description of their effect?
a.They created a national reciprocity license
b.They eliminated the hands-on practical examination and adjusted minimum training hours, leaving a single written examination for licensure
c.They tripled the required training hours
d.They abolished the BBC

AB-1310 and SB-803 (effective 2022) eliminated the long-standing hands-on practical state exam and revised minimum training-hour requirements. After the reform, applicants take only the written multiple-choice state board exam to obtain BBC licensure.

58. A licensed cosmetologist moves to a new apartment on March 1. Under BBC rules her duty to notify the board of the new mailing address must be completed:
a.Within 90 days
b.Only at the next two-year renewal
c.Within 30 days of the change
d.Only if she leaves California entirely

California BBC rules require licensees to keep their address of record current with the board and to notify the BBC within 30 days of any change so that renewal notices, complaints and disciplinary mail reach them. The 30-day deadline applies whether or not it is renewal time.

59. During a routine BBC inspection of an establishment, the inspector expects to see FOUR required postings. Which list correctly captures them?
a.Each practitioner's individual BBC license at their station, the establishment license, a no-smoking notice, and a current itemized price list of services
b.Federal OSHA poster, fire extinguisher tag, exit sign, and parking permit
c.Owner's home address, employee Social Security numbers, lease, and supplier invoices
d.Owner's tax return, salon photos, payroll roster, and product list

BBC inspection rules expect the following postings to be conspicuously visible: each practitioner's individual license at their workstation, the establishment license, a no-smoking notice in the service area, and a current itemized price list of services. Tax returns, payroll, and personal addresses are not required.

60. A diabetic client asks for a pedicure that includes "shaving down" the calluses on her heels because they crack and bleed. The licensed manicurist should:
a.Trim the calluses with cuticle nippers because nippers are not blades
b.Explain that California law forbids cutting or shaving calluses, recommend a non-invasive smoothing with a fine foot file, and refer the client to a podiatrist or her physician for the cracked skin
c.Refuse to do any service at all on a diabetic client
d.Use a sharp credo blade quickly, since the client requested it

Under BPC §7317.5 cutting or shaving calluses is a medical act outside any BBC scope, regardless of a client's request. The professional response is to provide only non-invasive smoothing on intact skin and refer medical concerns (especially in a diabetic with cracked, bleeding skin) to a physician or podiatrist. A blanket refusal of all service would also be inappropriate.

BPC §7317.5
61. A consumer believes a salon performed an unsafe service and wants to file a complaint with the BBC. The correct first step is to:
a.Call the FDA; cosmetology is federally regulated
b.Sue the salon in small-claims court; the BBC accepts only court-confirmed cases
c.Post anonymously on social media and wait for the BBC to find the post
d.Submit a written complaint (online form or paper) to the BBC, which then assigns an investigator and may inspect the salon

California's Board of Barbering and Cosmetology receives consumer complaints directly through its online complaint form or by mailed paper form. Once received, the BBC opens an investigation, may inspect the establishment, and may pursue citation, fine, or discipline up to revocation. This complaint and enforcement framework is rooted in the Barbering and Cosmetology Act, including Bus. & Prof. Code §7314 (board's authority) and §7352 (citation procedure). Social media is not a complaint channel. Small-claims court is a private remedy, not a regulatory one. The FDA regulates cosmetics ingredients federally but does NOT license cosmetology services; that is a state function.

Bus. & Prof. Code §7314
62. A licensee changes her legal name after marriage. With respect to her BBC license, she must:
a.Take no action; the license follows the social security number regardless of name
b.Notify the BBC in writing within 30 days and request a license updated to her new legal name, supplying acceptable documentation
c.Have her employer notify the BBC; individual licensees are not responsible
d.Surrender her current license immediately and re-take the licensing exam

California licensees have an affirmative duty to keep their name and address records current with the BBC and to notify the board of changes in writing within 30 days, as required under the Barbering and Cosmetology Act and BBC rules (see Bus. & Prof. Code §7332.5 and §7392 et seq., and Bus. & Prof. Code §136 for the general 30-day name/address rule). Failure to update creates problems renewing and receiving disciplinary notices. Option B confuses the social-security identifier with the public name on the wall license. Option C invents a re-exam requirement that does not exist. Option D shifts responsibility away from the individual, contrary to the statute.

Bus. & Prof. Code §7332.5
63. A California-licensed manicurist's scope of practice does NOT include:
a.Performing a hand and foot massage that does not extend beyond the elbow or knee
b.Polishing, shaping, and applying artificial nails and gel polish to fingernails and toenails
c.Performing a facial chemical peel or extracting comedones from a client's face
d.Applying nail-product remover such as acetone

The Barbering and Cosmetology Act defines four license categories with different scopes. A manicurist may work on the hands, feet, and nails, including polish, artificial nails, gel, and a hand or foot massage that does not extend beyond the elbow or knee. Facial chemical peels and comedone extraction are esthetician (or full-cosmetologist) services that are OUTSIDE the manicurist scope and are prohibited for a manicurist under Bus. & Prof. Code §7321 (scope of manicurist license). Options A, C, and D are squarely within the manicurist scope. Stepping outside scope risks citation and license discipline.

Bus. & Prof. Code §7321
64. A California cosmetology license is valid for how long before it must be renewed, and what happens if the licensee allows it to lapse?
a.Five years; once lapsed it is permanently void and the holder must take all examinations again
b.Ten years; renewal is automatic if the licensee is still employed
c.One year; renewal requires 24 hours of continuing education each year
d.Two years; if it lapses, the license becomes delinquent but can typically be renewed by paying the renewal fee plus a delinquency fee for a limited period, after which restoration becomes more burdensome

California BBC licenses are renewed every two years. A timely renewal requires only the renewal fee; no continuing education is currently required by the BBC for cosmetologists. If a license lapses, it becomes delinquent and may be renewed by paying both renewal and delinquency fees within statutory windows; after extended non-renewal, restoration becomes more involved and can require additional steps. The biennial framework and renewal rules are set under the Barbering and Cosmetology Act (Bus. & Prof. Code §7330 and surrounding sections). Options A, B, and C state incorrect renewal periods or invent CE requirements that the BBC does not impose.

Bus. & Prof. Code §7330
65. A licensee moves to a new apartment. By California rule, the licensee must report the new address to the BBC within:
a.10 days
b.30 days
c.90 days
d.14 days

Bus. & Prof. Code §136 requires every licensee of any board within the Department of Consumer Affairs (which includes the BBC) to notify the board of a change of address of record within 30 days. The address of record is how the BBC sends renewal notices, citations, and inspection results, so timely updates protect the licensee's right to receive notice. The 30-day rule is one of the most-cited administrative requirements on the cosmetology law exam. Options A, B, and D either compress or extend the window incorrectly; only 30 days is the statutory standard.

Bus. & Prof. Code §136
66. A California-licensed MANICURIST is asked by a client to also perform a pedicure that includes scrubbing, foot-mask, and polish. Within scope, the manicurist may:
a.Refuse, because a manicurist license covers hands only and never feet
b.Perform the pedicure, because California's manicurist license expressly authorizes care of nails and skin on BOTH hands and feet, including non-invasive callus filing, scrub, mask, and polish, with a hand- or foot-massage that does not extend beyond the elbow or knee
c.Perform the pedicure only with a doctor's supervision because feet are medical territory
d.Perform the pedicure plus a Brazilian-style leg wax extending above the knee, because a manicurist scope is the same as a cosmetologist scope

California's manicurist license (Bus. & Prof. Code §7321) authorizes the manicurist to perform any practice 'in the cleaning, cutting, shaping, manicuring, pedicuring or beautifying of the fingernails or toenails' and the immediately surrounding skin, hands, feet, with a non-invasive hand or foot massage that does not extend beyond the elbow or knee. So pedicures are squarely IN scope. Credo blades and cutting living tissue are out of scope. Leg waxing above the knee crosses into esthetician/cosmetologist scope (option D). Option A misreads the statute. Option C invents physician supervision that the statute does not require for routine cosmetic foot care.

Bus. & Prof. Code §7321
67. A California BBC inspector arrives at a salon during business hours. The inspector's general authority typically includes:
a.Demanding personal medical records of any client present
b.Requiring the licensee to perform a service on the inspector for free
c.Entering the licensed premises during business hours without prior notice to inspect for compliance with the Barbering and Cosmetology Act and Title 16 rules, including verifying that posted licenses, sanitation, and equipment standards meet the law
d.Arresting any licensee on the spot for any violation, without due process

Under the Barbering and Cosmetology Act (see Bus. & Prof. Code §7350 and surrounding sections), the BBC and its inspectors are authorized to enter LICENSED premises during business hours without prior notice to inspect for compliance with the Act and the implementing regulations at Title 16 of the California Code of Regulations. Inspections verify license posting, sanitation, equipment storage, single-use practices, signage, and recordkeeping. Inspectors do not have authority to demand client medical records (option A), conscript free services (option B), or arrest licensees on the spot (option D). Findings may lead to a citation, fine, or referral for discipline with full notice and hearing rights.

Bus. & Prof. Code §7350
68. A licensee notices that a regular client has a fresh, weeping cold sore (herpes simplex) on her lip 30 minutes before a scheduled facial. The professional and legal response is to:
a.Perform the facial as planned because the client has paid in advance and is not contagious if she takes antiviral pills
b.Diagnose the lesion as herpes simplex out loud and refer her to a dermatologist by name
c.Decline to perform the facial today, explain in non-diagnostic terms that an open lesion in the service area is a contraindication and a contamination risk both to the client and to subsequent clients, offer to reschedule once the area is fully healed, and document the decision
d.Apply extra disinfectant to her face and proceed

Open or weeping skin lesions in the service area are a contraindication for facials, waxing, and similar services. The lesion can spread to other areas of the client's own face, to the worker, and to subsequent clients via tools and surfaces. The professional response is to decline the service today, explain in non-diagnostic terms (the licensee may not diagnose), offer to reschedule once the area is fully healed, and document the decision on the consultation form. Options A and B continue the service despite an obvious contraindication. Option C diagnoses the lesion, which is outside scope under Bus. & Prof. Code §7320 and the practice-of-medicine prohibition. Refusing service for a medical contraindication is not unlawful discrimination.

Bus. & Prof. Code §7320
69. A licensee posts an Instagram ad that promises 'medical-grade microneedling for guaranteed permanent acne scar removal in one session.' Which is the BIGGEST legal problem with the ad?
a.It misrepresents scope (microneedling beyond the stratum corneum is the practice of medicine), uses 'guaranteed' and 'permanent' language that violates BPC §651 false-and-misleading-advertising prohibitions for licensed professionals, and may also violate cosmetic-medical scope rules; the licensee may face BBC discipline and Medical Board referral
b.It uses the wrong font size
c.It does not include the price
d.It was posted on Instagram instead of Facebook

Bus. & Prof. Code §651 broadly prohibits false, fraudulent, misleading, or deceptive advertising by licensed professionals. 'Guaranteed' and 'permanent' results, claims of 'medical-grade' procedures, and any service that pierces beyond the stratum corneum (such as microneedling beyond about 0.3 mm) cross into the practice of medicine and are outside cosmetology and esthetician scope. The licensee risks BBC discipline for unlicensed practice of medicine and false advertising, and potential Medical Board enforcement. Font size, price disclosure, and platform choice (options B, C, D) are not the substantive legal problem the exam is testing.

Bus. & Prof. Code §651
70. A licensee learns during consultation that a client has active, draining tinea pedis (athlete's foot) and asks for a pedicure. The lawful and ethical response is to:
a.Perform the pedicure but use 'extra' alcohol on the tools
b.Refuse the pedicure for today, explain in non-diagnostic terms that an apparent fungal skin infection is a contraindication that risks spreading to herself and to subsequent clients, refer her to a physician without naming a diagnosis, and document the refusal
c.Loudly diagnose the client with 'athlete's foot' so other clients in the salon know to avoid her
d.Perform the pedicure but require the client to sign a waiver releasing the salon from infection liability

Active infectious skin conditions in the service area are a contraindication and a public-health hazard in a shared salon environment. The professional response is to decline the service today, explain WITHOUT diagnosing (the licensee may not diagnose under Bus. & Prof. Code §7320 and the practice-of-medicine prohibition), refer to a physician, and document. Tools cannot be 'fixed' with extra alcohol while the client is on them (option A); pumice and emery boards are porous single-use and cannot be disinfected at all. Publicly diagnosing the client (option C) violates dignity and scope. Liability waivers do not override sanitation rules or extinguish public-health duties (option D).

Bus. & Prof. Code §7320

Hair Services

68 questions
1. During a hair consultation, you stretch a single strand and it returns to its original length without breaking. What property are you assessing?
a.Elasticity
b.Texture
c.Porosity
d.Density

Elasticity is the ability of a hair strand to stretch and return without breaking. Healthy wet hair can typically stretch about 50% of its length and recoil. Porosity is moisture absorption, density is hairs per square inch, and texture is the diameter of a single strand.

2. A client's hair absorbs liquids quickly and chemical services process faster than expected. This indicates which condition?
a.Normal porosity
b.High porosity
c.Low porosity
d.Low elasticity

High porosity hair has a raised, damaged cuticle layer that absorbs liquids quickly and processes chemicals faster. Low porosity hair resists absorption. Normal porosity processes predictably. Elasticity is a separate property describing stretch and recovery.

3. Which term describes the diameter of a single hair strand rather than how many hairs grow per square inch of scalp?
a.Density
b.Porosity
c.Texture
d.Elasticity

Texture refers to the diameter of an individual strand and is described as fine, medium, or coarse. Density measures how many hairs grow per square inch of scalp. The two are independent: a person can have fine but dense hair, or coarse but sparse hair.

4. What is the primary purpose of shampoo surfactants?
a.To restore the hair's natural pH only
b.To attract and lift away oils and debris so water can rinse them away
c.To deposit color pigment into the cortex
d.To permanently rebuild the disulfide bonds in damaged hair

Surfactants (surface-active agents) have a head that attracts water and a tail that attracts oil. They surround dirt and sebum and emulsify them so they can be rinsed away with water. They do not rebuild bonds or deposit permanent color.

5. Which water temperature is generally recommended for shampooing most clients?
a.Cold, to seal the cuticle before any cleansing
b.Boiling, for full sterilization of the scalp
c.Warm, comfortable to the inside of the wrist
d.Hot, to maximize oil removal

Warm water that is comfortable to the inside of the operator's wrist is the safe and standard choice. It opens the cuticle enough to release dirt without scalding the client. Hot water can burn skin, and water temperature does not sterilize the scalp.

6. Which cut produces a one-length, straight, weighted perimeter where all hairs meet the same horizontal or curved line?
a.Blunt cut
b.Razor cut
c.Layered cut
d.Point cut

A blunt cut, also called a one-length or zero-elevation cut, holds all the hair to a single line so the perimeter is heavy and clean. Layering removes weight at varied lengths. Point cutting softens ends. Razor cutting creates a tapered, textured edge.

7. A client wants softer, less blocky ends without losing length. Which technique is the best fit?
a.Aggressive slithering through the interior
b.A heavy razor taper from mid-length
c.A blunt one-length perimeter cut
d.Point cutting the ends

Point cutting (also called pointing) means cutting into the ends with the shears held nearly vertical, softening the line without shortening the overall length. A blunt cut would keep the heavy line. Razor tapers and aggressive slithering remove much more weight and length.

8. What does razor cutting tend to produce that traditional shears do not?
a.Permanent removal of hair from the follicle
b.Heavier, blunter perimeter ends
c.Equal length across all sections
d.Tapered, softened ends with built-in texture

A razor slices the hair on an angle, so each strand is shorter on one side and longer on the other. This creates a tapered, feathered, textured end. Shears make a clean perpendicular cut producing a blunt edge. Cutting does not remove hair from the follicle.

9. Which landmark on the head separates the top (parietal area) from the sides?
a.Nape line
b.Apex
c.Parietal ridge
d.Occipital bone

The parietal ridge is the widest area of the head, running roughly along where a hat band sits. It separates the top section from the sides and is a key reference for partings and elevation. The occipital is at the lower back. The nape is the lowest hairline. The apex is the highest point.

10. On the color wheel, which pair is complementary and therefore neutralizes each other on hair?
a.Blue and green
b.Yellow and orange
c.Green and red
d.Red and orange

Complementary colors sit opposite each other on the color wheel: red/green, blue/orange, and yellow/violet. Mixed on hair, they neutralize unwanted tones (for example, a green-based toner cancels red brassiness). Yellow/orange, red/orange, and blue/green are adjacent (analogous), not complementary.

11. On the haircolor level system from 1 to 10, which level represents the lightest?
a.Level 4
b.Level 10
c.Level 7
d.Level 1

The standard level system goes from 1 (black) to 10 (lightest blonde). Higher number = lighter. Level 4 is medium brown, level 7 is medium blonde. Knowing the natural starting level guides choices about lift, deposit, and developer volume.

12. Which three colors are the PRIMARY colors in haircoloring theory?
a.Green, orange, violet
b.Red, orange, yellow
c.Red, blue, green
d.Red, yellow, blue

The primary colors are red, yellow, and blue. They cannot be made by mixing other colors. Secondary colors (orange, green, violet) come from mixing two primaries. Knowing this is the foundation for choosing tones and neutralizing unwanted casts.

13. A blonde client complains of brassy orange tones after weeks in the sun. Which toner color family will best neutralize the orange?
a.Blue
b.Yellow
c.Red
d.Gold

Orange's complementary color is blue, so a blue-based toner cancels orange brassiness. Violet toners cancel yellow, and green toners cancel red. Gold, red, or yellow toners would emphasize the warm tones rather than counter them.

14. What is the key difference between highlights and lowlights?
a.Highlights are temporary; lowlights are always permanent
b.Highlights use no developer; lowlights always use 40-volume
c.Highlights are lighter than the base; lowlights are darker than the base
d.Highlights are always at the roots; lowlights are always at the ends

Highlights are strands lifted to a lighter level than the natural base, while lowlights are strands deposited DARKER than the base, used to restore depth or contrast. Both can be placed anywhere on the head and can be permanent, semi, or demi depending on the chemistry chosen.

15. Balayage is best described as which kind of color technique?
a.A semi-permanent gloss that washes out in three shampoos
b.Saturating every strand to the scalp at one level
c.A freehand, painted-on lightening technique with soft, blended grow-out
d.A two-step relaxer-then-color process

Balayage (French for sweeping) is a freehand painting technique where lightener is applied to surface strands to create a naturally blended, sun-kissed effect with a soft regrowth line. It is not a full base saturation, a relaxer service, or a semi-permanent gloss.

16. Why must a strand test be performed before applying a chemical relaxer to a new client?
a.To preview the final haircut shape
b.To measure shampoo viscosity
c.To predict processing time and confirm the hair can withstand the chemical without breaking
d.Only to choose between perfume scents

A strand test (also called a preliminary test) applies the product to a small section and times the result. It confirms the hair has the strength and integrity to tolerate the relaxer and reveals how long the chemical needs to process safely, reducing the risk of breakage on the whole head.

17. Before applying a chemical relaxer, the scalp shows fresh scratches and abrasions. What is the correct action?
a.Proceed normally; relaxers are mild enough to ignore broken skin
b.Reschedule the service until the scalp is fully healed
c.Apply a base cream over the cuts and proceed
d.Use a stronger relaxer to process faster over the cuts

Chemical relaxers are highly caustic. Applying them to broken skin can cause severe chemical burns, sores, and infection. The correct action is to reschedule and tell the client to come back after the scalp has fully healed. A base cream is a precaution but cannot make a cut-up scalp safe.

18. What personal protective equipment is REQUIRED for the operator when applying a chemical relaxer?
a.No PPE is needed if the product is professional
b.Single-use gloves and protective eyewear
c.Open-toed sandals to keep cool
d.Wool gloves only

Chemical relaxers can cause severe burns and eye injury. Single-use chemical-resistant gloves and protective eyewear are required to protect the operator. Wool gloves do not block chemicals, and open-toed sandals offer no protection from spills. Professional packaging does not eliminate the chemical hazard.

19. After rinsing a chemical relaxer, what is the next critical step?
a.Apply a high-volume developer to lift color
b.Use a neutralizing shampoo to stop the chemical action and rebalance pH
c.Skip conditioning to lock in straightness
d.Wrap immediately for a perm

After thorough rinsing, an acid-balanced neutralizing shampoo is applied to stop the alkaline chemical action and return the hair toward its normal pH. Skipping this step leaves residual chemical in the hair and can lead to severe damage and breakage. Perming or coloring on top would compound the damage.

20. A client has coarse, resistant hair and wants a tight curl from a permanent wave. Which rod and timing strategy fits best?
a.Smaller rods, longer processing time
b.Larger rods, longer processing time
c.Smaller rods, very short processing time
d.Larger rods, shorter processing time

Tighter curl comes from SMALLER rods. Coarse, resistant hair is harder for chemicals to penetrate, so it usually needs LONGER processing time. The combination smaller rod + longer time gives a tight curl on resistant hair. Always follow the manufacturer's directions and confirm with a test curl.

21. A client has fine hair and wants a soft, loose wave. Which rod and timing strategy fits best?
a.No rods, only chemicals
b.Larger rods, shorter processing time
c.Very small rods, very long time
d.Smaller rods, longer processing time

Looser waves come from LARGER rods. Fine hair absorbs chemicals quickly and is easily over-processed, so a SHORTER processing time is appropriate. The combination larger rod + shorter time creates a soft wave with less risk of breakage. Always test-curl and follow manufacturer instructions.

22. What is the purpose of the neutralizer in a permanent wave service?
a.To clean the scalp before wrapping
b.To rebuild the disulfide bonds in the new curled shape and stop processing
c.To soften the hair so it can wrap around the rod
d.To lift natural pigment for a lighter shade

Waving lotion (typically a thio compound) breaks the disulfide bonds so the hair can be reshaped on the rod. The neutralizer (usually a peroxide-based solution) rebuilds those bonds in the NEW curled position and stops the chemical action. Without it, the curl will not hold and damage continues.

23. What is the main risk of running a flat iron at maximum heat on fine, previously bleached hair?
a.The iron will cool too quickly to be useful
b.The hair will gain weight
c.It will permanently change the natural color back to its original level
d.Severe protein damage, breakage, and possible burns to the scalp or ears

Fine and chemically lightened hair has less structural protein and a fragile cuticle. Excessive flat-iron heat literally cooks the proteins, leading to dryness, breakage, and a brittle feel, plus burn risk to skin. Lower temperatures and a heat protectant are required. Heat does not restore natural color.

24. Which step is the BEST first defense against thermal damage before blow-drying and ironing?
a.Skip the conditioner so the hair holds the style longer
b.Hold the dryer two inches closer to the scalp
c.Increase the iron temperature so the pass is shorter
d.Apply a heat-protectant product evenly to towel-dried hair

A heat protectant forms a thin barrier that distributes heat more evenly and reduces direct damage to the cuticle. Higher iron temperatures and a closer dryer worsen damage. Skipping conditioner removes moisture and protein support, making heat damage more likely.

25. Under California sanitation rules for licensees, what must happen to shears and combs between two clients?
a.Clean of debris and then disinfect with an EPA-registered hospital-level disinfectant per label directions
b.Wipe with a dry towel only
c.Soak in a glass of tap water
d.Rinse under cold water only

California sanitation rules require that nonelectrical tools that touch a client be cleaned of debris and then disinfected with an EPA-registered hospital-grade disinfectant according to label directions before they are used on another client. A dry wipe, plain water rinse, or tap water soak does not satisfy this standard.

16 CCR §979
26. A licensed Cosmetologist in California may legally perform which of the following?
a.Perform laser hair removal
b.Inject filler into a client's lips
c.Cut, color, perm, and chemically relax hair
d.Diagnose and treat a scalp infection

The Cosmetologist scope under the BBC includes services on hair (cutting, coloring, perming, chemical relaxing), skin care above the shoulders, and nails. Injections, medical diagnosis, and laser treatments are medical procedures outside the cosmetology license and require a different professional.

27. What is the safest response when a chemical product label disagrees with what a senior coworker tells you to do?
a.Skip the timer to be safe
b.Mix both approaches together
c.Follow the manufacturer's written instructions on the label
d.Follow the coworker because they have more experience

Manufacturer instructions reflect tested safety and processing guidelines for that exact product. They are also the legal and professional standard. Personal habits, even from experienced coworkers, do not override the label. Always read the label and follow it; ignoring the timer multiplies risk.

28. What is a single-process color service?
a.Two complete color applications on different days
b.One application of color that lifts and deposits in the same step
c.Color and perm performed together in one chair
d.Lightener applied, rinsed, then a separate toner applied as step two

Single-process color uses one application of a permanent or demi-permanent color that lifts (where the developer allows) and deposits pigment at the same time. Double-process is two separate steps, typically pre-lightening with bleach followed by a toner or color formula.

29. When sectioning the head for a haircut, why are clean, accurate partings important?
a.They keep elevation, tension, and guide lines consistent so the result is predictable
b.They are only decorative
c.They make the haircut take three times longer
d.They eliminate the need for guides

Clean sectioning gives the stylist control over elevation, tension, and the cutting line. With consistent sections the same guide can be carried through the head, producing a balanced, predictable shape. Sloppy partings produce uneven results no matter how good the shear work is.

30. Where on the head is the OCCIPITAL area?
a.At the lower back of the head, above the nape
b.Behind each ear only
c.Along the front hairline
d.At the very top, the highest point

The occipital is the rounded area at the lower back of the head, above the nape but below the crown. It is named for the underlying occipital bone. The highest point is the apex, the front hairline is the hairline, and the small zones behind each ear are part of the side sections.

31. Scalp massage during shampooing should be done with what part of the hand?
a.A hard plastic comb pressed against the scalp
b.The fingernails, scratching in long strokes
c.The knuckles, pressing as hard as possible
d.The cushioned pads of the fingers, in slow circular motion

Scalp massage uses the cushioned pads of the fingers in slow, circular movements to stimulate circulation, lift product, and relax the client. Fingernails can scratch and damage skin, hard combs can injure the scalp, and forceful knuckles cause discomfort and possible irritation.

32. Slithering and slide cutting are techniques used mainly to do what?
a.Permanently change hair texture
b.Create a heavier, blunter perimeter
c.Add color highlights without lightener
d.Remove bulk and create soft, blended texture inside the haircut

Slithering (an open-shear gliding technique) and slide cutting move the shears down the strand to remove bulk and blend layers without creating a hard line. They do not change chemical texture or color, and they reduce rather than build perimeter weight.

33. A client wants a one-length bob with no graduation or layering. At what cutting angle should the hair be held from the head to achieve a true blunt cut?
a.0 degrees (held straight down at natural fall)
b.180 degrees from the head
c.45 degrees from the head
d.90 degrees from the head

A blunt or one-length cut is performed with the hair at 0 degrees of elevation, meaning it falls in its natural position with no lift from the head. Elevating to 45 degrees creates graduated layering, 90 degrees produces a uniform layer, and 180 degrees creates long-layered or disconnected shapes.

34. Which elevation produces a uniform-layer haircut in which every strand is the same length when extended straight out from the scalp?
a.0 degrees
b.45 degrees
c.180 degrees
d.90 degrees

A 90-degree elevation lifts each section perpendicular to the curve of the head, so every strand is cut to the same length, producing a uniform-layer shape (round layer). 0 degrees is blunt, 45 degrees is graduation, and 180 degrees gives long layers.

35. A long-layered haircut where the interior is shorter than the perimeter (such as a shag) is achieved by holding the hair at what elevation?
a.180 degrees
b.90 degrees
c.0 degrees
d.45 degrees

180-degree elevation pulls all sections straight up toward the ceiling and cuts to a stationary guide, leaving interior lengths shorter than the perimeter. This produces long layers or disconnection effects. Lower elevations build weight along the perimeter instead.

36. Before applying an aniline-derivative oxidation hair color, how long in advance must a patch (predisposition) test be performed, and where?
a.5 minutes before, on the scalp
b.12 hours before, on the forearm
c.One week before, on the back of the neck
d.24 to 48 hours before, behind the ear or on the inner elbow

Manufacturer instructions for aniline (PPD) tints require a patch test 24 to 48 hours before service, applied behind the ear or in the bend of the inner elbow. The area is observed for redness, swelling, itching, or blistering, any of which indicates the client should not receive the service.

37. What is the purpose of a strand test performed on a small section of hair before a full color service?
a.To preview color result, processing time, and condition of the hair after the chemical
b.To set the curl pattern for a permanent wave
c.To clean buildup from the hair before chemical service
d.To check the client for allergic reaction to PPD

A strand (preliminary) test is a small swatch of hair processed with the actual color formula to preview the final shade, gauge required processing time, and confirm the hair's condition will tolerate the service. The patch test, by contrast, checks for allergic reaction on the skin, not in the hair.

38. On the standard hair-color level system used industry-wide, which numbers represent the darkest and lightest natural levels respectively?
a.Level 1 is black; level 10 is lightest blonde
b.Level 5 is black; level 20 is platinum
c.Level 1 is lightest blonde; level 10 is black
d.Level 0 is white; level 5 is black

The universal level system runs from 1 (black) to 10 (lightest blonde), measuring lightness or darkness of the hair. Tone refers to the warmth or coolness within a level. Numbering above 10 is used in some lines but the core scale is 1-10.

39. A client has level 6 natural hair and wants to go to level 8. Which volume of hydrogen peroxide developer is typically appropriate when used with a permanent color?
a.40 volume (3-4 levels of lift)
b.10 volume (no lift)
c.30 volume (2-3 levels of lift)
d.20 volume (1-2 levels of lift)

20 volume peroxide provides approximately 1-2 levels of lift and full gray coverage, matching a 2-level lift from 6 to 8. 10 volume gives no lift (deposit only), 30 volume lifts 2-3 levels, and 40 volume lifts 3-4 levels and is generally reserved for high-lift formulations.

40. What volume of hydrogen peroxide developer deposits color without lifting natural pigment?
a.10 volume
b.30 volume
c.40 volume
d.20 volume

10 volume peroxide is a deposit-only developer used when the goal is to add tone or darken without lightening the natural pigment. Higher volumes progressively lift more underlying pigment as the percentage of hydrogen peroxide rises.

41. What is the primary difference between a single-process and a double-process hair color service?
a.Single-process requires a patch test; double-process does not
b.Single-process uses semipermanent dye; double-process uses temporary dye
c.Single-process is performed by barbers; double-process is performed only by cosmetologists
d.Single-process lifts and deposits in one step; double-process pre-lightens first, then deposits tone in a second step

A single-process color combines lift and deposit in one application. A double-process requires first pre-lightening (bleaching) the hair to remove pigment and then applying a separate toner or color in a second step. Double-process is used for dramatic light blondes or fashion shades.

42. Which highlighting technique uses a perforated plastic cap and a crochet hook to pull strands through holes for lightening?
a.Ombré sweep
b.Foil highlighting
c.Balayage
d.Cap highlighting

Cap highlighting places a perforated cap over clean hair, and a crochet hook pulls selected strands through the holes for lightener application. Foil highlighting wraps sections in foil for greater precision. Balayage is freehand surface painting; ombré is a graduated dark-to-light effect.

43. What is the chemical difference between highlights and lowlights?
a.Highlights are only for blondes; lowlights are only for brunettes
b.Highlights deposit color; lowlights remove color
c.Highlights are temporary; lowlights are permanent
d.Highlights lighten strands using an oxidative lightener; lowlights deposit a darker shade than the natural base

Highlights chemically lighten selected strands using a lightener or high-lift color (oxidation removes pigment). Lowlights use deposit-only or oxidative color to add strands darker than the existing base for depth and dimension. Either may be applied via foil, balayage, or cap.

44. After pre-lightening, a typical demi-permanent toner is processed for how long, and the operator monitors visually?
a.Overnight
b.5 to 15 minutes at room temperature with frequent visual checks
c.60 minutes covered with a plastic cap
d.30 to 45 minutes under heat

Toners are typically demi-permanent or semipermanent products processed 5 to 15 minutes at room temperature, with the operator checking the color development every few minutes because over-processing leads to muddy or undesired tones. Manufacturer instructions always govern exact timing.

45. Within hair-texture classification systems, what does "type 4" describe?
a.Coily or kinky hair with very tight zig-zag or spring-like pattern
b.Curly hair with a defined spiral
c.Straight hair with no curl pattern
d.Wavy hair with a loose S pattern

Common hair-typing systems describe type 1 as straight, type 2 as wavy, type 3 as curly, and type 4 as coily or kinky with a tight zig-zag, spring, or Z-pattern. Each type has subcategories (a/b/c) reflecting tightness. Texture (strand diameter) is separate from wave pattern.

46. Before any chemical service, a scalp examination is required. Which finding requires the licensee to postpone or refuse the service?
a.Recently shampooed hair
b.A few flakes of dandruff
c.Abrasions, scratches, open sores, or irritated skin on the scalp
d.Slight oiliness near the hairline

Chemicals applied to broken or irritated skin can cause burns, systemic absorption, or severe reactions. Abrasions, scratches, open sores, or any signs of disease or irritation require the licensee to postpone or refuse the chemical service. Minor oiliness or normal dandruff alone is not a contraindication.

16 CCR §979
47. Resistant gray hair often refuses to absorb color evenly. Which preparation technique helps the cuticle accept the color?
a.Skip the patch test
b.Apply 40 volume peroxide to the gray strands first
c.Pre-soften or pre-pigment the resistant area before applying the final color formula
d.Pre-shampoo with sulfate-free conditioner

Resistant gray has tightly compacted cuticle scales. Pre-softening (mild peroxide application) gently raises the cuticle, and pre-pigmentation deposits a warm base so the final permanent color penetrates and looks balanced. Higher peroxide volumes alone risk damage and do not solve cuticle resistance.

48. Which chemical relaxer is classified as a no-lye relaxer and is commonly marketed for at-home or sensitive-scalp use?
a.Guanidine hydroxide
b.Lithium hydroxide
c.Sodium hydroxide
d.Potassium hydroxide

Guanidine hydroxide is a no-lye relaxer formed by mixing calcium hydroxide with a guanidine carbonate activator. It is gentler on the scalp than sodium hydroxide (lye) relaxers but can leave hair drier. Sodium, lithium, and potassium hydroxide are lye relaxers.

49. Which reducing agent is commonly used in thio relaxers, which are milder than hydroxide-based relaxers?
a.Sodium hydroxide
b.Guanidine hydroxide
c.Hydrogen peroxide
d.Ammonium thioglycolate

Ammonium thioglycolate (thio) breaks disulfide bonds via reduction rather than the higher-pH hydroxide cleavage. Thio relaxers are milder and often used on previously color-treated or finer hair. Hydroxide relaxers (sodium, guanidine) are stronger and work by lanthionization.

50. Compared with acid permanent waves, what pH range and characteristics define alkaline (cold) waves?
a.pH 9.0 to 9.6, processes at room temperature, produces firm curl
b.pH 6.5 to 7.0, requires no neutralizer
c.pH 11.0 to 14.0, processes in five seconds
d.pH 4.5 to 7.0, requires external heat, slower processing

Alkaline or cold permanent waves run pH 9.0 to 9.6 with ammonium thioglycolate, process at room temperature, and create a firm curl. Acid waves run pH 4.5 to 7.0 using glyceryl monothioglycolate, usually require heat, process more slowly, and produce a softer curl.

51. A razor-cutting technique that removes bulk and softens ends by gliding the razor along a section of hair is best described as:
a.Slithering (effilating) along the strand
b.Point cutting with shears at 90 degrees
c.Clipper-over-comb
d.Blunt cutting on wet hair

Slithering, also called effilating, glides the razor (or open shears) along a section to taper and remove bulk while softening ends. Point cutting jabs the tips of the shears into the ends for texture. Razor work is generally performed on wet hair to avoid splitting the cuticle.

52. Which thermal styling temperature range is most appropriate for fine, fragile, or chemically treated hair?
a.Under 300°F (under 150°C)
b.350 to 375°F (175-190°C)
c.400 to 450°F (205-232°C)
d.375 to 400°F (190-205°C)

Fine, fragile, or chemically processed hair should be styled under 300°F (about 150°C) to limit cuticle damage. Medium hair generally tolerates 300-380°F, and very coarse or resistant hair may need up to 400-450°F, but the lowest effective temperature is always preferred to preserve hair integrity.

53. A client received a patch test 48 hours ago and the test site now shows redness, swelling, and itching. What is the correct action?
a.Do not perform the color service; advise the client to consult a physician
b.Perform the service but dilute the color with conditioner
c.Perform a second patch test on the other arm and continue
d.Switch to 10-volume developer and proceed

A positive patch test (redness, swelling, itching, blistering) means the client is sensitive to ingredients in the formula, most often PPD. The service must not be performed; the client should be advised to consult a physician. Diluting or changing developer does not eliminate the allergen.

54. After completing a chemical service that touched the comb, neck strip, and cape, what must the licensee do before the next client?
a.Rinse tools in warm tap water
b.Discard single-use items and clean and disinfect all multi-use tools with an EPA-registered hospital-grade disinfectant
c.Spray the cape with cologne
d.Wipe the comb with a dry towel only

Board sanitation rules require single-use items (neck strips, applicator brushes, etc.) to be discarded and multi-use tools (combs, clips, shears) to be cleaned and then disinfected with an EPA-registered, hospital-grade disinfectant before reuse. Capes that touch skin must be laundered or covered with a clean neck strip.

16 CCR §979
55. A client requests a 'spiral perm' for very long hair. Which rod and wrapping pattern most appropriately produces a spiral curl?
a.Bender rods folded in half so the hair stacks at the scalp
b.Long, straight rods wrapped vertically from scalp to ends in a helical (spiral) fashion, so each rotation of the rod produces a different turn of the spiral
c.Concave rods wrapped horizontally across the head with overlapping bands
d.Tool-free wrap; the practitioner simply twirls the hair and waits for the lotion to act

Spiral perming produces a uniform, corkscrew curl from scalp to ends, which is the visual effect the client wants. It requires long, straight rods (or specially designed spiral rods) wrapped vertically along the strand so that each rotation produces a fresh turn of the helix. Concave rods wrapped horizontally produce a 'croquignole' curl pattern that is tightest at the ends and loosest at the scalp, not a spiral. Bender rods produce a soft, irregular bend. There is no acceptable tool-free perm. California licensees perform perms under CCR Title 16 §979.4.

CCR Title 16 §979.4
56. A foiling technique that begins at a precise parting and selects very thin slices of hair on the foil, alternating with thicker slices left out, in order to produce a softly blended, sun-touched look is best described as:
a.Slicing for high-contrast chunky stripes
b.Weaving for a fine, blended, dimensional highlight
c.Cap highlighting for a uniform, even allover lift
d.Balayage applied without foil

Weaving uses the tail of the comb to lift a very thin alternating selection of hair onto the foil, leaving an equal or thicker section out. The result is a fine, dimensional, soft-blend highlight, ideal for a sun-touched look. Slicing (option A) takes a single solid slice, producing thicker, higher-contrast stripes. Cap highlighting (option C) pulls strands through a perforated cap and produces a uniform pattern but is not foil-based. Balayage (option D) is freehand painting that is generally done without foil, and is also a different selection logic. California licensees perform color under CCR Title 16 §979.4.

CCR Title 16 §979.4
57. The 'tone' designation on a hair color label (for example, 6N, 6G, 6A) tells the stylist:
a.The dominant reflective hue at that level, such as Natural, Gold, or Ash, allowing the colorist to predict warmth or coolness and to choose corrective tones using the color wheel
b.The viscosity of the cream base
c.Whether the formula contains ammonia
d.The recommended processing time only

Hair color is specified as a level (1 to 10 from darkest to lightest) and a tone (the reflective hue at that level, such as N for natural, G for gold, A for ash, R for red, V for violet). The tone tells the colorist whether the formula will pull warm or cool and is used together with the color wheel to neutralize unwanted tones (for example, a violet-based toner neutralizes yellow). Viscosity, processing time, and ammonia content are formulation properties not encoded in the level-and-tone label. California licensees apply oxidative color under CCR Title 16 §979.4.

CCR Title 16 §979.4
58. During a relaxing scalp massage at the shampoo bowl, the practitioner should move with which pattern and pressure to maximize relaxation and lymph/blood return?
a.Static pressing with the palms while not moving the hands at all for several minutes
b.Hard, fast scrubbing with the fingernails to stimulate the scalp
c.Tugging straight upward on the hair shafts repeatedly to lift the follicles
d.Slow, rhythmic, circular motions with the pads of the fingers (not nails), working from the front hairline back, and from the occipital toward the crown, using firm but comfortable pressure

Effective scalp massage uses the PADS of the fingers, never the nails, to perform slow, rhythmic, circular movements. The pattern typically begins at the front hairline and works back, and also from the occipital toward the crown, mobilizing the scalp over the cranium and aiding venous and lymphatic return. Pressure should be firm enough to move the scalp on the bone but not so hard that it tears hair. Option A scratches the scalp and is a contraindication for chemical services. Option B pulls on hair, not on scalp. Option C is not massage at all. Scope of practice is set under CCR Title 16 §979.4.

CCR Title 16 §979.4
59. A stylist sections damp hair into four quadrants with a center part and an ear-to-ear part before beginning a precision cut. The PRIMARY purpose of clean sectioning is to:
a.Speed the blow-dry at the end of the service
b.Reduce shampoo product use
c.Establish consistent control of the strands, isolate each subsection so that elevation and angle stay accurate, and prevent stray hairs from being cut by mistake
d.Make the cut appear longer than it really is

Clean four-quadrant sectioning gives the stylist control of the hair, isolates the subsection actively being cut, and ensures that elevation and finger angles remain accurate so that the cut is consistent and reproducible. It also keeps unsectioned hair out of the line of the shears, reducing accidental cuts. Speed of blow-drying, shampoo volume, and visual elongation are unrelated to sectioning. Scope-of-practice for cutting is established under CCR Title 16 §979.4 and the BBC's enabling statute.

CCR Title 16 §979.4
60. A client has previously been color-treated to a level 8 warm blonde and now wants to return to her natural level 5 cool brown in one appointment. The safest color-correction strategy is to:
a.Use a black box dye from a drugstore to guarantee dark deposit
b.Apply a level 5 ash permanent color directly over the blonde at 20 volume and process for a full 45 minutes
c.Pre-pigment the hair with a warm gold/orange filler (level 5 to 6) to replace the missing red-orange undertone, then apply a level 5 cool-brown deposit-only formula at 10 volume
d.Apply a high-lift series 12 color at 40 volume to clear all existing pigment, then a single coat of level 5

Going darker on previously lightened hair requires REPLACING the underlying warm pigment that bleaching removed; without it the deposit looks ashy, dull, and 'green' because the hair lacks its red-orange contributing pigment. The professional correction is to pre-pigment (fill) with a warm gold/orange filler matched to the natural underlying tone at level 5 to 6, then immediately follow with a deposit-only level 5 cool-brown formula at 10 volume. Option A skips the fill and produces a muddy green-grey result. Option C uses a lifting formula when no lift is needed and ruins integrity. Option D substitutes an unknown drugstore formula for color theory. California licensees perform oxidative color under CCR Title 16 §979.4 and must understand contributing pigment to deliver predictable color.

CCR Title 16 §979.4
61. A salon offers both a 'gloss' and a 'glaze' add-on after a color service. Which statement most accurately distinguishes them as commonly used by manufacturers?
a.Both terms are protected by federal trademark and have a single legal definition
b.Both terms describe permanent lifteners that contain bleach
c.Both terms describe semi- or demi-permanent depositing services that add tone and shine; in common usage a 'gloss' is often a demi-permanent (with low-volume developer) that lasts 4 to 6 weeks, while a 'glaze' is often a non-developer acidic deposit that lasts 1 to 2 weeks
d.A gloss is always permanent oxidative color; a glaze is always pure conditioner with no dye

Manufacturers use the terms inconsistently, but in common professional usage a GLOSS is a demi-permanent depositing color mixed with low-volume developer (often 5 volume) that lasts 4 to 6 weeks and refreshes tone and adds shine. A GLAZE is typically an acidic, no-developer treatment that coats the cuticle, deposits a faint tone, and lasts 1 to 2 weeks until it shampoos off. Neither term is federally protected. Neither contains lift agents. California licensees perform both services under CCR Title 16 §979.4. Option A invents legal protection. Options B and D mislabel the chemistry entirely.

CCR Title 16 §979.4
62. The MAIN visual and technical difference between traditional FOIL highlights and BALAYAGE is best described as:
a.Foil is faster and produces less dimension; balayage is slower and produces a single solid color
b.Foil highlights wash out in two weeks; balayage is permanent
c.Foil highlights are applied to woven or sliced sections wrapped in foil for an isolated, even lift from scalp to ends; balayage is freehand-painted onto the surface of the hair without foil, producing a softer, more graduated, sun-kissed result with little or no scalp saturation
d.Foil highlights are always done with bleach; balayage is always done with permanent color

Foil highlighting uses a thin woven or sliced section, saturated with lightener, sealed in foil from scalp to ends, producing a brighter, more uniform, edge-to-edge lift. Balayage (French for 'to sweep') is freehand-painted on the surface of the section, usually without foil, with heavier saturation toward mid-lengths and ends and a soft, blurry start, producing a graduated, sun-kissed effect with very little scalp lift. Both can be done with bleach or with permanent color; both can be applied to all colors of hair. California licensees perform both services under CCR Title 16 §979.4. Options B, C, and D state characteristics that simply are not true of either technique.

CCR Title 16 §979.4
63. A salon offers Brazilian-style smoothing treatments. The chemistry-and-safety concern that California regulators have repeatedly flagged is that many such products release:
a.Ammonia at a very low ppm that is exempt from disclosure
b.Formaldehyde (or methylene glycol that decomposes to formaldehyde) when heated by the flat iron, exceeding occupational exposure limits and triggering hazard communication and ventilation duties
c.Pure water vapor only
d.Carbon dioxide, which is non-toxic at any level

Many keratin smoothing systems contain methylene glycol (formaldehyde dissolved in water) or other formaldehyde-releasing ingredients. When the product-saturated hair is flat-ironed at high temperature, the solution releases free formaldehyde into the breathing zone of the stylist and client, often exceeding the Cal/OSHA permissible exposure limit (0.75 ppm 8-hour TWA) and short-term exposure limit (2 ppm 15 min). Cal/OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard §5194 requires accurate SDS disclosure, employee training, and engineering controls (local exhaust ventilation). Options A, B, and C minimize or misstate the hazard. The exam tests recognition that formaldehyde is the regulated airborne contaminant, not water vapor or CO2.

Cal/OSHA §5194
64. A client asks for a 'double-process' blonde service. Compared with a single-process color, a double process means:
a.The same single bottle of color is applied twice in one sitting for richer deposit
b.Two separate chemical steps are used: first a pre-lightener (bleach) to remove natural pigment to the target level, then a separate toner or oxidative color to deposit the desired tone
c.The hair is shampooed twice before color is applied
d.Two stylists are required by California law to perform the service

A SINGLE-process color completes lift (if any) and deposit in a single application of one formula. A DOUBLE-process service uses two distinct chemical steps in sequence: a pre-lightener (typically powder bleach plus developer) lifts the natural pigment to the required underlying level, then a separate toner or oxidative color is applied to deposit the chosen cool, neutral, or warm tone. This is the standard route to pale-cool blonde from a darker natural starting point. California licensees perform both processes under CCR Title 16 §979.4. Option A confuses re-application with double process. Options C and D invent rules with no statutory basis.

CCR Title 16 §979.4
65. A client wants long extensions for a wedding next month but plans to remove them after the event. The MOST removable, least chemically/mechanically aggressive professional extension method commonly chosen for this short timeframe is:
a.Keratin-bond fusion extensions, melted into each strand and removed with solvent
b.Micro-link / micro-bead extensions that crimp around the natural hair with no heat or glue
c.Sew-in weft extensions installed onto small braided cornrow tracks, removable in one appointment by cutting the thread without affecting the natural hair
d.Glue-in tape that is forced down with a hot fusion iron

For a short-term wedding install with planned removal, sew-in wefts on braided tracks are very removable: the stylist clips the cotton or nylon thread, the wefts release, the cornrow tracks unravel, and the natural hair returns to its prior state without solvent, heat, or pulled-out strands. Fusion (option A) leaves keratin residue and requires solvent for removal. Micro-link (option B) is removable but can damage the strand at the bead point if installed too tightly. Tape-ins are usually applied with adhesive only, NOT with a fusion iron (option D mixes two systems). California licensees apply extensions under their general hair-services scope at CCR Title 16 §979.4.

CCR Title 16 §979.4
66. The chemistry difference between a thio relaxer (ammonium thioglycolate-based) and a hydroxide relaxer (sodium hydroxide or 'lye') is best described as:
a.Both require an oxidizing peroxide neutralizer to lock in the straightened shape
b.Both relaxers work by the same redox mechanism; only the brand differs
c.Thio relaxers raise pH to 13; hydroxide relaxers lower pH to 5
d.A thio relaxer chemically REDUCES disulfide bonds (breaking them by adding hydrogen) and requires a separate oxidizing neutralizer to rebuild them; a hydroxide relaxer chemically converts cystine disulfide bonds into a single lanthionine bond, a permanent change that is NOT reformed and is followed by an acid-balancing rinse rather than an oxidizing neutralizer

Thio relaxers (ammonium or sodium thioglycolate, pH around 9 to 10) break disulfide bonds reductively by donating hydrogen; the bonds can be rebuilt in a new position by an oxidizing neutralizer, the same as in a cold perm. Hydroxide relaxers (sodium, lithium, potassium, or guanidine hydroxide at pH 12 to 14) act by lanthionization: the disulfide bond loses a sulfur atom and becomes a single lanthionine bond that is permanent and irreversible, so an acid-balancing neutralizing shampoo (not peroxide) is used afterward to lower pH. Knowing the difference is critical: NEVER apply a thio over a hydroxide-relaxed head or vice versa, because the chemistries are incompatible and cause breakage. Cal/OSHA §5194 SDS hazard disclosure covers both classes.

Cal/OSHA §5194
67. A client books a 'scalp treatment' add-on for chronic dryness and flaking. Within California cosmetology scope, an appropriate scalp treatment includes:
a.Diagnosing seborrheic dermatitis and prescribing ketoconazole shampoo
b.Injecting platelet-rich plasma into the scalp
c.Performing dermarolling with a 0.5 mm needle to drive growth serum into the dermis
d.Cleansing with a clarifying shampoo, applying a moisturizing or exfoliating scalp masque (cosmetic, OTC), performing a relaxation scalp massage, rinsing, and recommending an OTC home-care regimen, while referring suspected medical scalp conditions to a physician

Cosmetology scope in California covers cosmetic, non-invasive scalp and hair treatments: clarifying shampoos, OTC scalp masques, manual exfoliating scrubs, hot-towel and steam treatments, and relaxation massage. Diagnosing conditions like seborrheic dermatitis (option A), administering prescription drugs, performing PRP injections (option B), or piercing the skin with a dermaroller of any depth (option C) is the practice of medicine or nursing and is OUTSIDE the scope of any BBC license. Suspected medical scalp conditions require referral. The general service scope and sanitation duties are set under CCR Title 16 §979.4 and the BBC's enabling statute.

CCR Title 16 §979.4
68. When razor cutting (using a styling/feathering razor), the BLADE ANGLE relative to the strand and the HAIR CONDITION both matter for a safe, clean cut. Best practice is to:
a.Hold the razor at 90 degrees on bleached hair to deliberately split the ends for texture
b.Use a straight razor with a permanent blade so the same blade serves many clients
c.Hold the razor at a shallow angle (close to parallel) to the strand, work on properly damp hair only, use a fresh guard for each client, and avoid razor cutting on very fine or chemically over-processed hair to prevent split ends
d.Hold the razor perpendicular to the strand (90 degrees) and cut dry hair to maximize control

A razor is held at a shallow angle (closer to parallel) to the strand so that the blade glides through, removing weight gradually and producing soft, textured ends. The hair must be DAMP, not dry, because dry razor cutting splits the cuticle. A fresh disposable guard or blade is used for each client per California single-use rules; a permanent straight-razor blade on multiple clients is prohibited because porous/edge surfaces touching skin cannot be reliably disinfected (the BBC requires single-use cutting blades that contact skin). Razor cutting is generally NOT recommended for fine or over-processed hair because it accelerates splitting. Scope and sanitation duties are set under CCR Title 16 §979.4.

CCR Title 16 §979.4

Skin & Nail Services

53 questions
1. A client asks for acrylic nail enhancements applied with methyl methacrylate (MMA) monomer. What must a California-licensed manicurist do?
a.Apply the MMA product if the client signs a waiver
b.Apply MMA only if the salon owner approves it in writing
c.Refuse the service because MMA is prohibited in California salons
d.Apply MMA only on toenails, not fingernails

California prohibits the use of methyl methacrylate (MMA) liquid monomer in nail products. Licensees must use ethyl methacrylate (EMA) or other approved monomers. MMA is brittle, hard to remove, and has caused injuries; a waiver cannot override a statutory ban.

BPC §7315
2. During lip waxing, after applying wax to one section of the lip, the esthetician should:
a.Re-dip only if the client has no visible skin damage
b.Wipe the stick on a tissue and re-dip it
c.Re-dip the same stick to coat the next section quickly
d.Discard the used stick and use a new one for any additional wax

California sanitation rules prohibit double-dipping wax applicators. Once a stick touches the skin, it must be discarded; the next application requires a fresh, single-use stick. This prevents transferring bacteria back into the wax pot.

16 CCR §979
3. A new client mentions she started oral isotretinoin (Accutane) two months ago for acne. She requests a brow wax. The correct action is to:
a.Perform the waxing only after a 24-hour patch test
b.Perform the waxing and apply extra moisturizer afterward
c.Perform the waxing but use a cooler wax temperature
d.Decline the waxing service and suggest she return after she has been off the medication for at least 6 months

Isotretinoin thins the skin and dramatically weakens its barrier. Waxing can lift live skin, leaving raw wounds and scars. The standard contraindication window is at least 6 months after the last dose. A cooler temperature or patch test does not eliminate the risk.

4. Before applying wax to a client's leg, where should the practitioner test the wax temperature?
a.On a paper towel until the wax cools visibly
b.On the client's outer thigh
c.On the client's earlobe
d.On the inside of the practitioner's own wrist

Standard safe practice is to test wax temperature on the inside of the practitioner's own wrist, where the skin is thin and sensitive. Testing on the client risks burning them, and a paper towel does not reveal how the wax will feel on skin.

5. A client's facial skin shows enlarged pores in the T-zone but dry, tight cheeks. This skin is best classified as:
a.Oily
b.Dry
c.Combination
d.Sensitive

Combination skin has different conditions in different zones, typically oily forehead/nose/chin (T-zone) and drier cheeks. Treatment must be tailored zone by zone rather than treating the whole face as oily or dry.

6. Which cranial nerve provides the main motor supply to the muscles of facial expression?
a.Vagus nerve (CN X)
b.Optic nerve (CN II)
c.Trigeminal nerve (CN V)
d.Facial nerve (CN VII)

The facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) controls the muscles of facial expression. The trigeminal nerve (CN V) is mainly sensory for the face and motor only to the chewing muscles. Estheticians should know this when performing facial massage.

7. Which cranial nerve carries most of the sensation from the skin of the face?
a.Trigeminal nerve (CN V)
b.Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
c.Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)
d.Facial nerve (CN VII)

The trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V) provides sensory innervation to almost all of the face through its three branches: ophthalmic (V1), maxillary (V2), and mandibular (V3). The facial nerve is mostly motor.

8. Which is the correct general order in a basic facial?
a.Cleanse → exfoliate → massage → mask → tone → moisturize → SPF
b.Cleanse → moisturize → exfoliate → mask → tone → SPF
c.Mask → cleanse → moisturize → exfoliate → SPF
d.Exfoliate → cleanse → tone → mask → SPF

A standard facial starts by cleansing the skin, then removes dead cells with exfoliation, optionally extracts where appropriate, moves into massage, applies a treatment mask, tones, moisturizes, and finishes with SPF for daytime sun protection.

9. A client requests a manicure. During the cuticle step, the manicurist should:
a.Gently push back the cuticle and only trim dead, lifted skin if needed
b.Cut the entire cuticle along the nail edge with nippers
c.Cut the eponychium with a sharp blade
d.Remove the entire fold of skin around the nail

Manicurists must NOT cut living tissue. The proper technique is to soften the cuticle, gently push it back, and only trim already-loose dead skin if necessary. Cutting living cuticle or the eponychium can cause infection and is outside safe practice.

10. A client asks a California-licensed manicurist to wax her eyebrows. The manicurist should:
a.Perform the service because waxing is sanitary
b.Decline because eyebrow waxing is outside the manicurist's scope of practice
c.Perform the service if she has personally taken a waxing class
d.Perform the service only on female clients

A California manicurist license covers care of the nails and surrounding skin of the hands and feet. Facial skin services such as eyebrow waxing are outside scope; that work requires an esthetician or cosmetology license.

BPC §7316
11. A pedicure client has a thickened, yellow, crumbling toenail that has been worsening for months. The professional response is to:
a.File the nail down very thin so polish will hide it
b.Soak the foot in disinfectant and continue the service
c.Decline the toenail service on that nail and refer the client to a physician or podiatrist
d.Buff the nail smooth and apply colored polish to hide it

A thickened, yellow, crumbling toenail is a likely sign of onychomycosis (nail fungus), which is a medical condition. Services on the infected nail are contraindicated. The proper action is to skip that nail and refer to a physician or podiatrist.

12. A client comes in with redness, swelling, and pus along the side of the fingernail fold. This is most consistent with:
a.Paronychia (bacterial infection of the nail fold)
b.Healthy regrowth
c.Ingrown nail only
d.Onychomycosis (nail fungus)

Paronychia is a bacterial infection of the soft tissue around the nail, often causing redness, swelling, and pus. It is contraindicated for cosmetic nail services; the client should be referred to a physician for treatment.

13. Gel polish hardens (cures) primarily because of:
a.The base coat reacting with metal in the file
b.Heat from the client's body
c.Exposure to UV or LED light that triggers polymerization
d.Air drying as the solvent evaporates

Gel polish contains photoinitiators that begin polymerization when exposed to specific wavelengths of UV or LED light. Without proper light exposure for the required time, the gel will not fully cure, which can cause skin allergy and lifting.

14. Between two pedicure clients, the foot spa basin must be:
a.Cleaned of debris, then disinfected with an EPA-registered hospital-grade disinfectant for the contact time on the label
b.Refilled with fresh water without any cleaning
c.Rinsed with warm water only
d.Wiped with a dry towel and re-used immediately

California sanitation rules require foot spas to be drained, cleaned of all visible debris, and disinfected with an EPA-registered hospital-grade disinfectant between every client, leaving the disinfectant in contact for the time stated on the product label.

16 CCR §979
15. Metal cuticle nippers used on one client and then needed for the next client must be:
a.Cleaned of debris, then fully immersed in an EPA-registered hospital-grade disinfectant for the contact time on the label
b.Rinsed under hot tap water
c.Wiped with a paper towel
d.Sprayed with a fragrance mist

Reusable, non-porous metal tools must be cleaned of debris and then fully immersed in an EPA-registered hospital-grade disinfectant for the contact time stated on the label. Wiping or rinsing does not disinfect.

16. Single-use items used in nail or skin services — such as wooden orangewood sticks, emery boards (one-time-use), and cotton pads — must be:
a.Discarded immediately after use on one client
b.Stored in a sealed jar for future use
c.Wiped with disinfectant and reused on the next client
d.Soaked in alcohol for 30 seconds and reused

Porous or single-use implements absorb material and cannot be effectively disinfected. California requires that any such item used on a client be discarded immediately afterward. Reusing them risks transferring fungi and bacteria.

17. A client requests a chemical peel during her facial. A California esthetician should:
a.Use any peel strength because she is licensed
b.Use peels labeled physician-only as long as a doctor is in the building
c.Use only superficial peels labeled and intended for esthetic, non-medical use, and never perform peels reaching the dermis
d.Use peels reaching the dermis if the client signs a waiver

Estheticians are limited to superficial, non-medical exfoliating peels (typically light AHA/BHA products meant for licensed esthetic use). Peels that penetrate to the dermis are a medical procedure outside their scope, regardless of client consent.

18. Which of the following is NOT within a California esthetician's scope of practice?
a.Injecting Botox or dermal fillers
b.Applying makeup
c.Performing a relaxing facial massage
d.Performing eyebrow waxing

Injectables are a medical act and must be performed by appropriately licensed medical professionals. Facials, makeup, and brow waxing fall within the esthetician scope.

19. A client says her facial skin stings whenever she tries a new product and turns red easily. This skin should be treated as:
a.Combination, requiring no special precautions
b.Mature, requiring deep peels
c.Oily, requiring stronger exfoliation
d.Sensitive, requiring gentle products and patch tests

Reactive, easily flushed skin that stings with new products is classified as sensitive. Sensitive skin needs gentle, fragrance-light products, lower-strength actives, and patch testing before introducing anything new.

20. Which facial massage movement is generally light, stroking, and used to begin and end a massage?
a.Effleurage
b.Friction
c.Tapotement
d.Petrissage

Effleurage is a light, gliding stroke used to begin and end a massage and to apply product. Petrissage is kneading; friction is deep rubbing; tapotement is tapping or percussive movement and is generally avoided on delicate facial skin.

21. During extraction (clearing a comedone), the safest practice is to:
a.Apply gentle pressure with cotton-wrapped fingers or a clean extractor on softened, prepared skin; stop if the comedone resists
b.Squeeze hard with bare fingernails until any comedone releases
c.Extract every visible spot, regardless of inflammation
d.Use a sewing needle to pierce the skin and extract

Extractions should only be done after the skin has been cleansed, warmed, and softened; gentle, even pressure with cotton-wrapped fingers (or a sanitized extractor) is used. If a comedone resists, stop — forcing it can damage tissue. Bare nails or needles risk cuts, infection, and scarring; inflamed/active acne should not be aggressively extracted.

22. A client returns 24 hours after a brow wax with intense redness, itching, and small lifted patches of skin where the wax was applied. The most likely cause is:
a.Skin lifting because the client was using a retinoid product she did not disclose at intake
b.Bacterial infection from the wax itself
c.Normal post-wax appearance, no concern
d.Allergy to facial moisturizer applied at home that night

Retinoids (Retin-A, tretinoin) and other exfoliating actives thin and weaken the stratum corneum, making it easy for wax to lift live skin. This shows the importance of a thorough intake form asking about Accutane, Retin-A, and recent peels before any waxing.

23. The orbicularis oculi muscle is responsible for:
a.Moving the jaw side to side
b.Wrinkling the forehead
c.Closing the eyelids
d.Raising the upper lip

Orbicularis oculi is the circular muscle around the eye that closes the eyelid. The frontalis raises eyebrows/wrinkles the forehead, and the masseter/pterygoids move the jaw.

24. When applying SPF as the final step of a daytime facial, the esthetician should:
a.Apply SPF only to the cheeks where sun damage shows
b.Apply a broad-spectrum SPF 30 (or higher) over the entire face, ears, and neckline
c.Skip SPF if the client says she is going straight home
d.Skip SPF on cloudy days

Broad-spectrum SPF should cover the full facial area, including ears and neckline, every time, regardless of weather or short outdoor exposure. UVA passes through clouds and windows, so daily SPF is the standard recommendation.

25. A client wants long, hard nail enhancements that are very rigid and inexpensive. A salon advertises an 'odorless liquid' product priced far below normal acrylic. What is the most important concern?
a.The unusually low price and very hard, brittle result suggest possible illegal MMA monomer, which is banned in California
b.Hard nails cure faster, which is unsafe
c.The salon is allowed to use any product if it does not smell strong
d.Odorless products are always low quality

MMA is sometimes marketed deceptively or used because it is cheaper, and the resulting nails are notoriously hard, brittle, and very difficult to remove. Suspicious low prices for very hard acrylics are a red flag. California bans MMA in nail products.

26. On the Fitzpatrick skin-type scale, which type describes very fair skin that always burns and never tans?
a.Type III
b.Type I
c.Type IV
d.Type VI

Fitzpatrick Type I is the lightest classification: very fair skin, often with red or blond hair, that always burns and never tans. The scale runs I through VI and helps the esthetician judge risk for sun damage, peel reactions, and laser hair removal.

27. Which superficial chemical peel is generally considered the most appropriate first choice for a client with active, oily, acne-prone skin?
a.Glycolic-acid peel (AHA)
b.Mandelic-acid peel only on dry skin
c.Trichloroacetic acid (TCA) medium-depth peel
d.Salicylic-acid peel (BHA)

Salicylic acid is a BHA that is oil-soluble, so it penetrates into the sebum inside pores, making it the preferred superficial peel for oily, acneic skin. Glycolic acid is a smaller AHA but water-soluble; TCA medium peels are a medical procedure outside esthetic scope.

28. Which of the following is within a California esthetician's scope but NOT within a manicurist's scope?
a.Dermaplaning to remove vellus hair and surface dead skin from the face
b.Removing soak-off gel from a fingernail
c.Applying gel polish to toenails
d.Filing a fingernail to shape

Dermaplaning is a facial-skin service performed with a single-use blade to remove vellus hair and dead surface cells; it falls under esthetic scope. Filing, gel polish, and gel removal on the hands and feet are nail services within the manicurist's scope.

29. During the desincrustation phase of a galvanic facial, which pole and which product type are used to soften and emulsify sebum in the pores?
a.Negative pole with an alkaline (negatively charged) desincrustation solution
b.Positive pole with plain water
c.Negative pole with a positively charged anti-aging serum
d.Positive pole with a positively charged serum

Desincrustation uses the negative pole together with a negatively charged, alkaline solution. Like charges repel, driving the product into the skin and softening hardened sebum so that comedones release more easily. The positive pole (iontophoresis) is used later with positively charged serums.

30. What is the main difference between direct and indirect application of high-frequency current during a facial?
a.Direct must be performed only with neon (red) electrodes; indirect requires argon (violet)
b.Direct places the electrode on the client's skin for a germicidal effect; indirect has the client hold the electrode while the practitioner massages the skin for a stimulating effect
c.Direct produces no ozone; indirect produces only ozone
d.Direct and indirect are the same technique with different names

In DIRECT high-frequency, the electrode is glided over the client's skin and produces small amounts of ozone with an antibacterial/drying effect, helpful on oily and acneic skin. In INDIRECT, the client holds the electrode while the esthetician massages the face with hands, producing a gentle stimulating/toning effect.

31. Which color of LED light therapy is most commonly associated with stimulating collagen and addressing fine lines on aging skin?
a.Yellow light only
b.Red light
c.Blue light
d.Green light

Red LED light is most commonly associated with stimulating fibroblasts and collagen production, supporting anti-aging treatments. Blue LED targets P. acnes bacteria for acne, and green LED is often promoted for pigmentation and redness.

32. Before performing eyebrow tinting with a semi-permanent dye, the esthetician should:
a.Skip any patch test because the dye is for brows only
b.Use the dye only on clients who have never had any cosmetic before
c.Perform a patch test at least 24-48 hours in advance to check for allergic reaction
d.Apply the dye and rinse quickly if the client reports stinging

Brow tints often contain ingredients such as PPD that can trigger severe allergic contact dermatitis. A patch test 24-48 hours before the service is the standard precaution; skipping it can put the client at risk of swelling, blistering, and anaphylaxis.

33. What is the key chemistry-and-application difference between traditional acrylic and dip-powder nail enhancements?
a.Acrylic uses a liquid monomer mixed with polymer powder that polymerizes in air; dip powder uses a cyanoacrylate-based resin that is layered with colored powder
b.Acrylic is applied with water only; dip powder requires no resin
c.Acrylic cures under UV light; dip powder cures under LED light
d.They are exactly the same product sold under two names

Acrylic combines a liquid methacrylate monomer with a polymer powder, polymerizing in air without a lamp. Dip powder uses a cyanoacrylate (resin/glue) base in which colored powder is embedded layer by layer and sealed. Neither cures with light in the typical sense, unlike gel polish.

34. Compared with traditional UV gel polish, modern LED gel polish typically:
a.Takes longer to cure under the lamp
b.Cannot be cured under any UV lamp at all
c.Always requires no base coat
d.Cures in significantly shorter time (often around 30-60 seconds per layer)

LED gels are formulated with photoinitiators tuned to the narrow LED wavelength and typically cure in about 30-60 seconds per layer, much faster than older UV gels which often need 2 minutes. Application steps (base, color, top) remain similar.

35. A client presents with the free edge of a fingernail visibly lifting away from the nail bed, with a whitish space underneath, but no obvious infection. This condition is best described as:
a.Healthy regrowth
b.Onycholysis (separation of the nail plate from the nail bed)
c.Pterygium (forward growth of cuticle onto the nail plate)
d.Onychomadesis (shedding of the entire nail from the base)

Onycholysis is separation of the nail plate from the bed, usually starting at the free edge, creating a whitish gap. Onychomadesis is shedding of the whole nail from its base. Pterygium is abnormal forward growth of skin onto the plate.

36. When a client has a pterygium (skin growing forward over the nail plate), the manicurist should:
a.Cut the pterygium with sharp nippers as part of a standard manicure
b.Cover it with thick polish so no one notices
c.Not cut the pterygium because it is living tissue and refer the client to a dermatologist if it is unusual or painful
d.Burn the pterygium off with a hot tool

A true pterygium is living tissue that has grown abnormally onto the nail plate. Cutting it causes bleeding, severe pain, and risk of infection, and may make the condition worse. The licensee should not cut and should refer unusual or symptomatic cases for medical evaluation.

37. The main practical difference between hard wax and soft wax during a service is:
a.Hard wax can only be used on men
b.Hard wax requires a hotter pot temperature than soft wax
c.Soft wax is only used for facial hair, never the body
d.Hard wax is applied thicker and peels off in one piece without a strip, while soft wax is spread thin and removed with a cloth or paper strip

Hard (stripless) wax is applied in a thicker layer, allowed to set, and peeled off in one piece, which is gentler on delicate areas such as the face, underarms, and bikini. Soft wax is spread thin and pressed onto a muslin or pellon strip, then pulled off.

38. When applying eyelash extensions, what is the most important safety practice regarding the cyanoacrylate-based adhesive?
a.Place adhesive only on the artificial lash and isolate the natural lash so the bond never touches the lid
b.Use as much adhesive as possible to ensure retention
c.Apply adhesive directly onto the eyelid skin
d.Skip the under-eye gel pad to save time

Cyanoacrylate adhesive is for lash-to-lash bonding only. The technician must isolate each natural lash and apply adhesive to the extension so the bond sits a tiny distance from the lid. Contact with the lid causes burning, swelling, allergic reactions, and potential corneal injury.

39. Before using a hot wax pot, the practitioner tests the wax on the inside of the wrist and feels comfortable warmth without burning. The recommended safe application temperature range for body waxing is approximately:
a.About 110 to 115 F (warm, comfortable, never scalding)
b.200 F or higher to ensure deep penetration
c.Cold; wax must be applied below body temperature
d.70 to 80 F (room temperature)

A practical, comfortable application range for body wax is roughly 110-115 F (43-46 C) — warm enough to flow but never hot enough to burn. The wrist test is the recommended verification before applying to the client.

40. After the end of every business day, the screen, pump, drain, and other parts that contact water in a whirlpool foot spa must be:
a.Sprayed with air freshener and left wet overnight
b.Wiped only on the outside
c.Cleaned once per month at minimum
d.Removed, cleaned of debris, and circulated with an EPA-registered disinfectant according to the manufacturer's and label instructions, with a record kept

California rules for whirlpool foot spas require disassembly and cleaning of the removable parts (screen, filter, etc.), then circulation of an EPA-registered hospital-grade disinfectant through the unit at the end of each day. A written cleaning log must be maintained for inspection.

16 CCR §980
41. Under BPC §7320, sanitation duties of a licensee during a service primarily mean that the licensee must:
a.Sanitize tools once a week regardless of use
b.Defer all sanitation responsibilities to the salon owner
c.Personally follow the BBC's infection-control rules at all times during services — including hand washing, tool disinfection, single-use item disposal, and clean work surfaces
d.Sanitize only when an inspector is present

California law assigns infection-control responsibility directly to the licensee performing the service. The licensee must follow BBC sanitation rules (16 CCR §979 et seq.) at every service: hand hygiene, properly disinfected reusable tools, immediate disposal of single-use items, and clean linens and surfaces. Owner instructions do not override this personal duty.

BPC §7320
42. A manicurist is preparing the natural nail before applying gel polish. Which step preserves the most natural nail integrity while still promoting adhesion?
a.Drill the surface aggressively with an electric file until shiny layers are removed
b.Lightly buff the surface to remove shine, dehydrate, then apply a thin bonder; do not file into the nail plate
c.Soak the nails in pure acetone for 20 minutes before priming
d.Apply methyl methacrylate primer to soften the keratin

Adhesion comes from a clean, dry, slightly textured surface, not from removing nail thickness. The correct prep is to gently buff away surface shine, push back cuticle proximally, dehydrate with a salon-grade nail dehydrator, and apply a thin coat of bonder. Drilling into the plate (option A) thins the nail, causes thermal damage, and is a leading cause of brittleness and onycholysis. Long acetone soaks (option C) desiccate the surrounding skin without improving adhesion. Methyl methacrylate (option D) is prohibited in California for use on natural nails because of its allergy and damage profile, and it is not a primer. California manicurists work under the general nail-services rules at CCR Title 16 §979.4.

CCR Title 16 §979.4
43. A nail technician sees a client with a greenish-black discoloration between the natural nail and a lifted artificial enhancement. The condition is most likely:
a.Pseudomonas bacterial infection growing in the moist space between the nail and lifted product
b.Melanoma of the nail bed requiring immediate biopsy
c.A bruise from a recent injury that will fade on its own
d.Onychomycosis (toenail fungus) that appeared overnight

A green-to-black discoloration under a lifted nail enhancement is classically Pseudomonas aeruginosa, a gram-negative bacterium that thrives in the dark, moist gap created when an enhancement lifts and traps moisture. The professional response is to refuse new product over the area, remove the lifted enhancement, and refer to a physician if the discoloration does not clear, because California licensees may not diagnose or treat disease (CCR Title 16 §980.3 and BBC scope rules). Option A confuses the pattern with subungual hematoma, which is purple-red, not green. Option B is a medical diagnosis outside the scope of a manicurist. Option D is a slow, weeks-to-months change and is not greenish-black.

CCR Title 16 §980.3
44. Paronychia and onychomycosis can both affect nails. Which statement correctly distinguishes them?
a.Both are bacterial; paronychia is in toenails and onychomycosis is in fingernails
b.Both are fungal; only the location differs
c.Paronychia is a bacterial (often Staph) infection of the surrounding skin fold; onychomycosis is a fungal infection of the nail plate itself
d.Both are caused by Pseudomonas and produce green nails

Paronychia is an infection of the soft tissue fold around the nail (the paronychium), typically caused by Staphylococcus or Streptococcus, presenting as a red, swollen, painful, sometimes pus-filled cuticle area. Onychomycosis is a fungal infection of the nail plate itself, usually by dermatophytes, presenting as thickened, yellow, crumbling nails over weeks to months. A California licensee may not diagnose or treat either; the correct response is to refuse the service over the infected area and refer to a physician, consistent with CCR Title 16 §980.3 and BBC scope. Options B, C, and D blur the bacterial-versus-fungal distinction the exam tests directly.

CCR Title 16 §980.3
45. During an acrylic nail service the monomer (liquid) and polymer (powder) combine because of which reaction, and what role does the initiator (typically benzoyl peroxide) play?
a.Saponification; the initiator turns the mixture to soap
b.An acid-base neutralization; the initiator donates hydrogen ions
c.An emulsion separation; the initiator binds oil and water
d.A polymerization (chain-growth) reaction; the initiator releases free radicals that trigger the monomer molecules to link into a long polymer chain

Acrylic nail systems cure by free-radical chain polymerization. Benzoyl peroxide in the polymer powder decomposes to free radicals when it contacts the liquid monomer (ethyl methacrylate in California-legal systems). The radicals attack the monomer's double bond and start a chain reaction that links thousands of monomer units into a hard polymer matrix that traps the polymer beads. California licensees must understand the chemistry well enough to use the product safely under their general sanitation and product-use duties (Bus. & Prof. Code §7320). Options A through C describe entirely different chemistries that do not apply to acrylic nails.

Bus. & Prof. Code §7320
46. Between two clients in the same chair, the manicure table surface, lamp, and arm rest must be:
a.Sprayed with rubbing alcohol once
b.Cleaned only at the end of the day
c.Wiped with a dry paper towel only
d.Cleaned of debris and then wiped with an EPA-registered hospital-grade disinfectant per label directions

Contact surfaces touched during a service are reservoirs for skin flora and product dust. California requires that surfaces and non-electrical tools be cleaned of debris and then disinfected with an EPA-registered hospital-grade disinfectant (bactericidal, virucidal, and fungicidal) for the contact time on the label, between every client, under CCR Title 16 §979.4 and the general sanitation rules. A dry wipe only spreads contamination. Rubbing alcohol at 70 percent is acceptable for instruments in some jurisdictions but is not the BBC standard between clients; the BBC standard is EPA-registered, hospital-grade. End-of-day cleaning is required, but does not replace between-client cleaning.

CCR Title 16 §979.4
47. A pedicure client says she has diabetes and asks for callus removal with a credo blade (a razor-style callus shaver). The correct response is to:
a.Refuse the credo blade entirely and use only a non-invasive foot file or pumice, because diabetes increases infection risk and credo blades are prohibited
b.Use the credo blade only on the thickest area to minimize time
c.Use the credo blade but apply antibacterial ointment after
d.Refer the client to a physician; California allows the credo blade but only with a doctor's note

California prohibits use of credo blades, razors, or any device that cuts living tissue by licensees, regardless of client status; manicurists and cosmetologists may only smooth keratin with non-invasive files and pumice. Diabetic clients are at especially high risk for ulceration and infection if skin is nicked, but the prohibition on credo blades applies to everyone, not only diabetics. This is rooted in CCR Title 16 §980.3 and the scope-of-practice provisions of the Barbering and Cosmetology Act. Options A, C, and D either permit a prohibited tool or invent a doctor's-note loophole that does not exist.

CCR Title 16 §980.3
48. A nail technician sticks herself with a metal cuticle nipper while disassembling tools for cleaning. The correct sequence is to:
a.Soak the nipper in alcohol for 10 minutes and reuse it on the next client without further cleaning
b.Throw the nipper away because it is now medical waste
c.Apply a styptic and continue working since it was her own blood
d.Wash the wound with soap and water, encourage bleeding, cover with a clean bandage, report and document the exposure, and seek medical evaluation for bloodborne pathogen exposure

A sharps injury is a potential bloodborne pathogen exposure even when the contaminated source is the worker herself, because the wound is now an open portal that contacts whatever was on the tool. The Cal/OSHA Bloodborne Pathogen standard requires washing the area with soap and water, encouraging bleeding, dressing the wound, documenting the event, and seeking medical evaluation. Sharps that contact blood are managed per the Medical Waste Management Act, including disposal of single-use sharps in an approved container (HSC §118285). Option B ignores documentation and reuses a contaminated tool. Option C wastes a reusable instrument that can be properly cleaned and disinfected. Option D skips the cleaning step that must precede disinfection.

HSC §118285
49. A manicurist sees that a regular client's nail plate is gradually thinning and developing horizontal grooves after a year of biweekly gel manicures with aggressive electric filing. The most likely cause is:
a.Vitamin deficiency the manicurist should treat with biotin
b.Repeated mechanical thinning of the nail plate from over-filing, plus possible irritation from removal soaks; reduce filing pressure, lengthen intervals between services, and counsel the client
c.An undiagnosed thyroid disease the manicurist should mention to the client by name
d.Fungal infection requiring an antifungal lacquer

Chronic aggressive e-filing thins the nail plate, weakens its dorsal layers, and produces longitudinal and horizontal irregularities; long acetone soaks during gel removal further dehydrate the plate and surrounding skin. The professional response is mechanical: reduce filing pressure, use a finer grit, lengthen intervals between services, and use plastic-wrap foil soaks no longer than necessary. California licensees may not diagnose vitamin deficiencies, thyroid disease, or fungal infections (CCR Title 16 §980.3 and BBC scope), so options A, C, and D crossing into medical territory are wrong. Counseling the client on filing pressure and service interval is within scope.

CCR Title 16 §980.3
50. A manicurist explains nail anatomy to a curious client. Which pairing is correct?
a.The nail bed is the hard visible nail; the nail plate is the soft skin underneath
b.The nail PLATE is the visible, hardened keratin that we polish; the nail BED is the soft vascular tissue UNDERNEATH the plate that supplies nutrients and gives the plate its pink color and that the plate slides along as it grows forward
c.The nail plate and the nail bed are the same structure
d.The nail bed produces new nail; the matrix is the visible white half-moon and does nothing

The nail PLATE is the dead, hardened keratin we file and polish. The nail BED is the soft, vascular, sensitive layer of living tissue directly beneath the plate; its rich blood supply gives the plate its pink color, and the plate slides forward along it as growth proceeds. The MATRIX (under the proximal nail fold, partly visible as the lunula) is the only LIVING structure that produces new plate. Mixing these up (options A, C, D) misleads clients about what damage to which structure means. Manicurists work under CCR Title 16 §980.3 and the BBC's scope rules and must communicate accurately without diagnosing disease.

CCR Title 16 §980.3
51. A pedicure client is in her third trimester of pregnancy and asks for a paraffin foot dip. The most appropriate response is to:
a.Skip the paraffin if she has uncontrolled diabetes, vascular disease, fragile or broken skin in the area, neuropathy that makes her unable to feel temperature, or active infection in the foot, regardless of pregnancy; otherwise proceed with paraffin tested for safe temperature on the practitioner's wrist and with a single-use plastic liner so no client's skin touches the tank wax
b.Refuse all pedicure services to every pregnant client
c.Heat the paraffin much hotter than usual to compensate for her reduced sensitivity
d.Reuse the paraffin between clients because it is hot enough to sterilize itself

True contraindications to paraffin are not pregnancy itself but the medical conditions that make heated wax dangerous: uncontrolled diabetes, peripheral vascular disease, peripheral neuropathy, fragile or broken skin in the treatment area, and active local infection. If none of these apply, paraffin is safe in pregnancy. The wax must be tested on the practitioner's wrist for safe temperature, applied via a single-use plastic liner so client skin never touches tank wax, and the used wax discarded with the liner (paraffin is NOT self-sterilizing, option D). Refusing every pregnant client (option B) is over-broad and may even raise discrimination issues. Manicurists work under CCR Title 16 §980.3.

CCR Title 16 §980.3
52. Which pairing correctly distinguishes TINEA PEDIS from ONYCHOMYCOSIS?
a.Tinea pedis is in the nail and onychomycosis is in the skin
b.Both are bacterial infections of the foot and are identical
c.TINEA PEDIS ('athlete's foot') is a fungal infection of the SKIN of the feet, presenting as itching, peeling, scaling, fissuring, often between the toes; ONYCHOMYCOSIS is a fungal infection of the NAIL PLATE, presenting as thickened, yellow-brown, crumbling, lifted nails; both are contraindications for routine pedicure service and require physician referral
d.Tinea pedis is an injury bruise; onychomycosis is a vitamin deficiency

TINEA PEDIS is dermatophyte infection of the SKIN of the feet (interdigital scaling, itching, fissuring, sometimes vesicles). ONYCHOMYCOSIS is dermatophyte (or sometimes yeast/mold) infection of the NAIL PLATE (thickened, discolored, crumbling, lifted nails over weeks to months). Both are infectious and both are contraindications to routine pedicure service in California: the licensee may not diagnose or treat either condition, must decline the service over the affected area, and must refer the client to a physician (CCR Title 16 §980.3 and BBC scope). Options A, B, and D confuse the categories or reverse the anatomy.

CCR Title 16 §980.3
53. A client asks the difference between SCULPTURED acrylic nails, a TIP-WITH-OVERLAY, and DIP-POWDER nails. The technician should explain that:
a.SCULPTURED acrylic builds the entire extension on a paper form using liquid monomer plus polymer powder. A TIP-WITH-OVERLAY glues a plastic tip to the free edge of the natural nail and then coats the whole nail with acrylic, gel, or dip product. DIP POWDER bonds a colored polymer powder to the nail with a cyanoacrylate-based resin, sealed with a top resin and an activator; no UV/LED lamp is used. Each differs in chemistry, durability, and removal method
b.All three are identical and only the price varies
c.Sculptured is the cheapest because no product is used
d.All three use the same liquid-and-powder system but different file sizes

SCULPTURED acrylic uses a paper form taped under the natural nail and builds the entire extension out of monomer-and-polymer acrylic, no plastic tip required. TIP-WITH-OVERLAY glues a pre-formed plastic tip to the free edge, then overlays with acrylic, gel, or dip product for strength. DIP POWDER applies a cyanoacrylate-based base resin to the nail, dips it into a colored polymer powder, repeats for layers, then seals with top resin and an activator that catalyzes the chemistry; no UV/LED lamp is needed (unlike gel polish). Each method differs in chemistry, durability, and removal. Manicurists work under CCR Title 16 §980.3. Options A, B, and C collapse the distinctions or invent facts.

CCR Title 16 §980.3

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Sen Lin, PrepPass Founder · Verified against California BBC · How we review

What's on the California Cosmetology / Barber / Esthetician / Manicurist Exam?

The California Cosmetology / Barber / Esthetician / Manicurist Exam is administered by the California Board of Barbering and Cosmetology (BBC). Topic weights below come directly from the official exam blueprint — focus your study on the highest-weighted areas first.

Exam length
Cosmetologist 100 Qs · Barber 100 Qs · Esthetician 60 Qs · Manicurist 40 Qs
Passing score
75%

Topic blueprint

  • 25%
    Infection Control & Safety
  • 22%
    Anatomy & Sciences
  • 15%
    Ethics & California Law
  • 13%
    Hair Services
  • 12%
    Chemistry & Products
  • 8%
    Electricity & Equipment
  • 5%
    Skin & Nail Services
Sen Lin, PrepPass Founder · Verified against California Board of Barbering and Cosmetology (BBC) · How we review

How hard is the exam?

Moderate. The BBC written exam is 100 multiple-choice questions (50 for Manicurist, 60 for Esthetician) with 75% to pass. California eliminated the practical portion in 2022, so it's written-only at a PSI testing center.

Recommended study hours
60-100 hours of dedicated review for working students
First-attempt pass rate
Approximately 65-75% first-attempt pass rate (varies by license type; Manicurist has the highest pass rate, Cosmetologist the most demanding).
Where to focus first
Infection Control & Safety (25% of exam) and Anatomy & Sciences (22%) — these two topics alone are about half the exam.

Figures (pass rates, fees, salaries) are approximate and can change — always verify with the official testing body or licensing board before you rely on them.

Frequently asked questions

How many California cosmetology practice questions are in this bank?+

484 original practice questions covering all 7 areas of the California Board of Barbering and Cosmetology (BBC) written exam — useful for Cosmetologist, Barber, Esthetician, and Manicurist candidates.

Is this California cosmetology practice test free?+

Yes, completely free with no signup required. Unlimited rounds, full mock exam, and explanations all included.

Are these real BBC exam questions?+

No. All questions are original prose authored from Title 16 CCR (California Code of Regulations) and the California Barbering and Cosmetology Act. We never copy from real exams or providers like Milady.

What topics does the California cosmetology exam cover?+

Seven topics: Anatomy & Basic Sciences, Chemistry & Products, Electricity & Equipment, Infection Control & Safety, Ethics & California Law, Hair Services, and Skin & Nail Services.

What's the passing score for the BBC written exam?+

75%. The real BBC written exam is approximately 100 questions; you need 75% correct on the written portion (the practical portion is graded separately).

Is the California cosmetology exam offered in languages other than English?+

Yes — the BBC exam is available in English, Spanish, Vietnamese, Korean, and several other languages by request. PrepPass practice is available in English, 中文, Español, and Tiếng Việt.

Does this cover Barber, Esthetician, and Manicurist exams too?+

The fundamentals (Anatomy, Chemistry, Infection Control, Ethics & CA Law) are shared across all four licenses. Hair Services applies to Cosmetologist and Barber; Skin & Nail Services applies to Cosmetologist, Esthetician, and Manicurist.

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