Browse all questions

The figures these questions turn on, laid out by section on dense colour pages you can print: California Certified Nursing Assistant cheat sheet PDF — $9.99 →

Own the complete Certified Nursing Assistant (CNA) guide — PDF + EPUB, $19.99 →

Every question with its answer and explanation — study by topic or all at once.

Patient Rights

20 questions
1. A resident in a California skilled nursing facility refuses her scheduled bath. The CNA should:
a.Have two staff hold her still and finish the bath as quickly as possible
b.Honor the refusal, document it, and notify the charge nurse✓
c.Warn her that refusing means she will miss dinner
d.Bathe her anyway since hygiene is a nursing order

Under 42 CFR §483.10(a) and California HSC §1599.65, residents have the right to be treated with dignity and to make choices about care, including the right to refuse treatment. The CNA must honor the refusal, document the refusal and any reason given, and notify the licensed nurse so the care plan can be revisited. Forcing care (a, d) constitutes battery and abuse; threats or coercion (c) violate dignity and the Patients' Bill of Rights. Refusal documentation protects the resident, staff, and facility.

42 CFR §483.10(a); HSC §1599.65
2. A resident's adult son calls the facility asking what medications his mother is taking. The CNA should:
a.Refer the caller to the charge nurse without confirming or denying any clinical information✓
b.Give him the names of the medications but ask him not to share them with anyone outside the family
c.Invite him to the unit and show him his mother's medication record
d.Read the full medication list aloud because he is an immediate family member

HIPAA Privacy Rule (45 CFR §164.502) and 42 CFR §483.10(g) protect resident health information. Family status alone does not authorize disclosure; only individuals designated by the resident or holding valid authority (POA for healthcare, conservator) may receive PHI, and disclosure must be made by appropriate licensed staff. The CNA should not confirm or deny information and must route the request to the nurse, who will verify authorization before any release. Options b, c, and d would each be unauthorized disclosures.

42 CFR §483.10(g); HIPAA 45 CFR §164.502
3. A CNA sees a coworker slap a resident across the face. Under California's Elder Abuse Reporting law, the CNA must:
a.Report the abuse to the facility administrator and CDPH/Adult Protective Services as a mandated reporter, typically within two hours✓
b.Report it only if the resident asks the CNA to file a complaint
c.Wait until the end of shift to tell the charge nurse, since same-day reporting is required only when an injury needs medical treatment
d.Confront the coworker privately and report it only if the behavior happens a second time

Welfare & Institutions Code §15630 makes CNAs mandated reporters of elder and dependent adult abuse. Physical abuse with serious bodily injury must be reported by phone immediately and in writing within two hours; other physical abuse within 24 hours, to local ombudsman or law enforcement and to CDPH. 42 CFR §483.12 also requires immediate facility reporting. Waiting (c), informal handling (d), or conditioning the report on the resident's wishes (b) are violations that expose the CNA to criminal penalties and loss of certification.

42 CFR §483.12; W&I Code §15630
4. Which of the following best reflects a resident's right to participate in care planning?
a.The interdisciplinary team writes the plan and then informs the resident of its decisions at the next quarterly care conference
b.The resident may attend the care conference only if the attending physician agrees
c.Family members must approve the plan before it is shared with the resident
d.The resident (and chosen representative) must be invited to participate in developing and reviewing the plan of care✓

42 CFR §483.10(f)(8) and HSC §1599.1 establish the resident's right to participate in the development, review, and revision of the comprehensive care plan, including the right to choose a representative. The plan reflects resident goals and preferences, not staff convenience. Option a denies participation; b inappropriately gives family veto power; c conditions a right on physician approval. The team must accommodate scheduling and provide notice so the resident can meaningfully participate.

42 CFR §483.10(f)(8); HSC §1599.1
5. A nurse orders a vest restraint because a resident keeps trying to get out of bed at night. Before applying it, the CNA knows that under federal restraint rules:
a.Verbal consent from the resident's family is enough to authorize a vest restraint
b.Restraints are a routine fall-prevention measure for any resident over 80
c.Any restraint may be applied as long as a licensed nurse has ordered it
d.Restraints may be used only when less restrictive interventions have been tried and failed, and only to treat a medical symptom✓

42 CFR §483.12(a)(2) prohibits restraints imposed for discipline or staff convenience and requires they be used only to treat the resident's medical symptoms after less restrictive interventions (bed alarms, low beds, frequent rounding, toileting schedule) have been tried. A physician order, documented assessment, informed consent, and ongoing monitoring are required. Routine use (b) or order-alone (c) violate the regulation; family consent (a) does not substitute for medical necessity and least-restrictive analysis.

42 CFR §483.12(a)(2); CMS State Operations Manual Appendix PP
6. While giving perineal care, a CNA notices the room door is open and visitors are walking past. The CNA should first:
a.Speed up the perineal care and close the door afterward to limit how long the resident is exposed
b.Ask the visitors passing in the hallway to look away until care is finished
c.Move the resident to the bathroom and finish the care in there
d.Close the door, pull the privacy curtain, and cover the resident with a bath blanket✓

The right to personal privacy and dignity during care is guaranteed by 42 CFR §483.10(e) and California HSC §1599.74. Best practice is to close the door, pull the privacy curtain, and drape the resident with a bath blanket exposing only the area being cleaned. Working faster (a) does not protect dignity, moving the resident mid-care (c) is unsafe and undignified, and asking bystanders to look away (b) places the burden on others and still exposes the resident.

42 CFR §483.10(e); HSC §1599.74
7. A resident has a signed POLST indicating Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) and 'comfort measures only.' The resident becomes unresponsive with no pulse. The CNA should:
a.Move the resident into a chair and raise her head so that breathing is easier
b.Call for the nurse immediately and not start CPR, consistent with the POLST✓
c.Begin CPR anyway, because a POLST no longer applies once the pulse has stopped
d.Wait for the family to arrive and let them decide whether CPR should be started

Under the Patient Self-Determination Act and 42 CFR §483.10(c)(6), residents may direct refusal of life-sustaining treatment through advance directives and California POLST. A valid POLST is a portable physician order that staff must honor; CPR is not initiated when DNR is specified. The CNA notifies the nurse so death can be pronounced and the family/physician notified. Starting CPR (c) violates the directive; delay (d) and repositioning a pulseless person (a) are inappropriate.

42 CFR §483.10(c)(6); Patient Self-Determination Act 42 USC §1395cc(f)
8. A long-term-care resident wishes to vote in the November election but cannot leave the facility. Under federal residents' rights, the facility must:
a.Reasonably accommodate the resident's right to vote, including assistance obtaining a vote-by-mail ballot✓
b.Discourage the resident from voting, because following the election overstimulates her and disrupts the unit routine
c.Have a staff member cast the ballot on the resident's behalf based on her stated preferences
d.Require a physician's note confirming capacity before the resident may receive a ballot

42 CFR §483.10(f)(11) protects residents' rights to exercise their rights as citizens, including voting. California facilities must reasonably accommodate access to vote-by-mail materials, translators, and adaptive assistance, and may coordinate with the County Registrar of Voters. Discouraging participation (b), proxy voting by staff (c)—which is illegal—, or gatekeeping by physician note (d) all infringe a fundamental civil right.

42 CFR §483.10(f)(11); HSC §1599.79
9. A resident tells the CNA, 'I want to file a complaint about how the night staff speaks to me.' The CNA should:
a.Tell the resident that complaints rarely change anything and encourage her to let it go
b.Inform the resident of the grievance process and assist in contacting the grievance officer or ombudsman without retaliation✓
c.Hold the concern until the next quarterly care conference, several weeks away, so the whole interdisciplinary team can review it together
d.Investigate the night staff personally and forward the complaint only if the account seems credible

42 CFR §483.10(j) and HSC §1599.2 guarantee the right to voice grievances without discrimination or reprisal and require facilities to have a grievance officer with prompt written response. The CNA must support access to the grievance process, including posting Long-Term Care Ombudsman contact information (1-800-231-4024). Discouraging the resident (a), delay (c), and informal investigation by an aide (d) all violate residents' rights and may constitute retaliation if they suppress the complaint.

42 CFR §483.10(j); HSC §1599.2
10. A resident wants to keep his late wife's photograph and a small wooden rosary at the bedside. The facility should:
a.Place the photograph and rosary in facility storage until a family member visits, since bedside keepsakes are not covered by facility insurance
b.Allow only bedside items that the medical director has reviewed and approved in writing
c.Remove both items because loose objects at the bedside are fall and injury hazards
d.Allow the resident to retain and use personal possessions to the extent space permits and they do not infringe on others' rights or safety✓

42 CFR §483.10(f)(2) and HSC §1599.69 grant residents the right to retain and use personal possessions, including religious items, to the extent space permits, unless doing so would infringe on others' rights, health, or safety. Personal items support identity, comfort, and dignity. Removal (c) or storage (a) without cause violates the right; medical director gatekeeping (b) is not the standard—facilities apply space and safety criteria, not arbitrary approval.

42 CFR §483.10(f)(2); HSC §1599.69

Want these explained in order? CNA — Complete Study Guide (2026) — PDF + EPUB, $19.99 · 14-day refund →

11. Visiting hours and access rights in California skilled nursing facilities require that:
a.Visits are limited to the posted hours of 1-3 pm daily so care and therapy schedules are not interrupted
b.Only blood relatives and legal spouses may visit, since other visitors cannot be verified at the front desk
c.The resident has the right to receive visitors of his or her choosing at the times of his or her choosing, subject only to reasonable clinical and safety limits✓
d.Same-sex partners may visit only after the administrator approves the relationship in writing

42 CFR §483.10(f)(4) and HSC §1599.76 protect the right to receive visitors of the resident's choosing, including same-sex partners, friends, and clergy, at times the resident chooses, subject only to reasonable clinical or safety restrictions and the resident's own consent. Limiting to blood relatives (b), rigid hours (a), or requiring approval based on relationship type (d) violate both federal regulation and California nondiscrimination law (Unruh Act; HSC §1439.50 LGBT Long-Term Care Bill of Rights).

42 CFR §483.10(f)(4); HSC §1599.76
12. A resident asks the CNA to hold $40 in cash for her in the CNA's pocket. The correct response is:
a.Hold the cash in a uniform pocket, return it at the end of the shift, and note the amount on the resident's care sheet
b.Spend the money on her behalf at the facility gift shop and bring her the receipt
c.Decline and direct the resident to the facility's resident personal-funds account managed by the business office✓
d.Give the money to the resident's roommate to keep in her drawer for safekeeping

42 CFR §483.10(f)(10) and HSC §1599.81 require facilities to safeguard resident personal funds in a separate accounting system with quarterly statements, and prohibit staff from commingling resident funds with personal property. A CNA holding cash (a) or spending it (b) creates risk of allegations of theft and violates policy; entrusting to a roommate (d) is also improper. Funds belong in the facility's resident-trust account where they remain the resident's property with full access.

42 CFR §483.10(f)(10); HSC §1599.81
13. A resident asks to read her own medical record. Under the right to access records, the facility must allow access:
a.Within 24 hours of an oral or written request, and provide copies within 2 working days (charges may apply)✓
b.Only when a family member is present in the room to review the chart with her
c.Only after the attending physician approves the request in writing, which the facility must obtain within five working days
d.Only after discharge, once medical records has closed and released the complete chart

Per 42 CFR §483.10(g)(2) and California HSC §1599.78, residents have the right to access their records upon oral or written request within 24 hours (excluding weekends/holidays) and to receive copies within 2 working days at a reasonable cost. Physician approval (c) is not required for the resident's own record, family presence (b) is not a condition, and access is not delayed until discharge (d). HIPAA 45 CFR §164.524 also supports patient access.

42 CFR §483.10(g)(2); HSC §1599.78
14. Which of the following is an example of psychological abuse that must be reported?
a.Reminding a resident several times that the dining room will open at noon
b.Asking a resident to wait a few minutes while the CNA finishes helping another resident
c.Calling the resident 'old fool' and laughing when she spills her drink✓
d.Documenting in the chart that the resident refused her morning medication

42 CFR §483.12(a)(1) prohibits verbal, mental, physical, and sexual abuse. Name-calling, humiliation, ridicule, and threats are psychological/verbal abuse and must be reported under W&I §15630. Routine reminders (a), brief task prioritization (b), and accurate documentation (d) are normal care activities. CNAs witnessing verbal abuse have the same mandatory-reporting duty as for physical abuse and may face certification action for failure to report.

42 CFR §483.12(a)(1)
15. A CNA is discussing a resident's diagnosis with another CNA in the hallway near the elevator. This is:
a.Acceptable, because both people in the conversation are employees of the facility
b.A HIPAA confidentiality violation; discussions must occur in private and only with those who need to know✓
c.Acceptable, as long as the resident's name is left out and the diagnosis is not spoken above a normal conversational volume
d.Acceptable, because the hallway is a staff corridor and the elevator doors are closed

HIPAA (45 CFR §164.530) and 42 CFR §483.10(h) require minimum necessary disclosure and reasonable safeguards. Discussing PHI in public hallways violates confidentiality even between staff if others can overhear and the second staff member does not need the information for care. Staff status (a), volume control (c), or elevator doors (d) do not cure the violation. Discussions should occur in nursing stations, behind closed doors, or via secure shift report.

42 CFR §483.10(h); HIPAA 45 CFR §164.530
16. A transgender resident asks staff to use her chosen name and 'she/her' pronouns. Under California's LGBT Long-Term Care Bill of Rights, staff must:
a.Follow whatever name and pronouns appear in the physician's admission notes
b.Use the resident's legal name and birth-certificate pronouns until a court-ordered name change is filed with the facility
c.Use whichever name and pronouns the resident's family is comfortable with
d.Use the resident's preferred name and pronouns; willful and repeated failure is unlawful discrimination✓

HSC §1439.51 makes it unlawful for California long-term-care facilities to willfully and repeatedly fail to use a resident's preferred name or pronouns, or to deny appropriate room assignment by gender identity. Staff must respect chosen name, pronouns, and gender identity. Using legal name only (b) or deferring to family (c) or physician notes (a) over the resident's stated identity violates state law and the resident's dignity rights.

HSC §1439.51 (LGBT Long-Term Care Bill of Rights)
17. A resident receives a 30-day notice of involuntary transfer to another facility. Which is true of the resident's rights?
a.The resident has no right to appeal once the physician certifies the transfer
b.Only a family member or legal representative may appeal on her behalf
c.The resident has the right to written notice (generally 30 days), the reason, the right to appeal to the state, and bed-hold rights✓
d.The facility may transfer the resident within 24 hours if Medi-Cal stops paying

42 CFR §483.15(c) and HSC §1599.61 require written notice of involuntary transfer or discharge, usually 30 days in advance, stating the reason and informing the resident of the right to appeal to the California Department of Health Care Services state hearing. Permissible reasons are limited (welfare, no longer needs services, endangerment, nonpayment, facility closure). The resident—and a representative—may appeal; lack of appeal rights (a), immediate transfer (d), and family-only appeal (b) are incorrect.

42 CFR §483.15(c); HSC §1599.61
18. When sharing a semi-private room, residents' rights to privacy include:
a.Sharing bath linens and toiletries between roommates to reduce laundry costs
b.Use of privacy curtains during care, private telephone access, and private space for visits with spouses or partners✓
c.Keeping the privacy curtain open during personal care so that staff at the doorway can observe both residents at the same time
d.Allowing the roommate to listen to phone calls so staff can monitor the conversation

42 CFR §483.10(e)(3) requires accommodation of privacy needs in shared rooms: privacy curtains during personal care, private telephone access, and private space for visits, including with spouses/partners. Mandating an open curtain (c) violates dignity; sharing personal hygiene items (a) violates infection control; allowing eavesdropping (d) violates confidentiality. Facility design and operations must accommodate these rights even within shared accommodations.

42 CFR §483.10(e)(3); CDPH AFL 20-22
19. An alert resident states she does not want a feeding tube even if she stops eating. The CNA should:
a.Inform the nurse so the wish can be documented in an advance directive and care plan✓
b.Tell her she will have no choice about a feeding tube once she stops eating on her own
c.Suggest that she let her children decide, since family members can overrule her request later
d.Reassure her that the doctor will make that decision for her when the time actually comes

42 CFR §483.10(c)(7) and HSC §1418.8 protect a competent adult's right to formulate advance directives and refuse treatment, including artificial nutrition and hydration. The CNA's role is to relay the wish promptly to the licensed nurse so it can be documented in an advance directive (AHCD/POLST) and integrated into the care plan. Dismissing the wish (b), deferring vaguely (d), or inviting family override (c) violate self-determination and the Patient Self-Determination Act.

42 CFR §483.10(c)(7); HSC §1418.8
20. California Title 22 §72527 Patients' Bill of Rights must be:
a.Read aloud to the resident by the CNA at admission, with the written copy filed in the medical record instead of given to the resident
b.Kept on file in the administrator's office and shown to residents on request
c.Provided in writing to the resident and posted prominently in the facility in English and the primary languages of residents✓
d.Given to the resident only when a family member or the ombudsman asks to see it

22 CCR §72527 requires SNFs to provide each patient (or representative) a written copy of the Patients' Bill of Rights upon admission and to post it prominently. CDPH guidance requires translation into the primary languages of residents served. Reading it aloud without giving the resident a written copy (a), restricted office storage (b), or conditioning on family or ombudsman request (d) defeat the rule's purpose of ensuring residents actually know their rights and can exercise them, including filing complaints with CDPH and the Ombudsman.

22 CCR §72527; HSC §1599

Communication & Culture

20 questions
1. A newly admitted resident speaks only Tagalog. The CNA's best action is to:
a.Ask the resident's teenage grandchild at the bedside to interpret the admission questions, the consent forms, and the nurse's instructions for care
b.Skip the explanations and proceed with care, charting that the resident is non-English-speaking
c.Use hand gestures and speak English more loudly and slowly until the resident nods
d.Request a qualified medical interpreter through the facility's language-access service, as required for limited-English-proficient patients✓

Title VI of the Civil Rights Act and HSC §1259 require hospitals and SNFs that receive federal funds to provide meaningful language access, typically through qualified interpreters (in person, phone, or video). Family members—especially minors—should not interpret clinical information; they may misinterpret or filter sensitive content. Speaking louder (c) does not aid comprehension; minor-interpreter use (a) violates federal guidance; skipping explanations (b) violates informed consent and dignity.

Title VI Civil Rights Act 1964; HSC §1259
2. A CNA notices a resident's blood pressure rose from a baseline 118/76 to 168/96 with new headache. The best way to report this to the nurse is:
a.Write the blood pressure in the chart and pass it along in end-of-shift report
b.'Mr. Lee doesn't look so good today, can you check on him when you get a chance?'
c.SBAR: Situation (BP elevated with headache), Background (baseline 118/76), Assessment (current 168/96, c/o headache), Recommendation (request nurse assessment now)✓
d.Ask another CNA to mention the blood pressure reading to the nurse after lunch

SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) is the standard structured communication tool taught in CNA programs and endorsed by Joint Commission and ANA for safe handoffs. It conveys complete, actionable information so the nurse can prioritize response. Vague reports (b), chart-only documentation (a), and indirect relay (d) delay needed assessment of a possible hypertensive event and place the resident at risk.

ANA Standards of Practice; SBAR communication
3. When communicating with a resident who has moderate dementia, the CNA should:
a.Approach from the front, make eye contact, use the resident's name, speak slowly with short simple sentences, allow time for response✓
b.Quiz the resident on the day, the date, and the name of the current president at every interaction so that she stays oriented to reality
c.Speak rapidly and finish the conversation quickly so the resident does not tire
d.Give complex multi-step instructions to challenge the resident's remaining cognition

Best practice for residents with cognitive impairment is to approach from the front to avoid startling, make eye contact, use the resident's name, give one-step simple instructions, and allow time to respond. Reality-testing quizzes (b) increase anxiety and are not recommended; rapid speech (c) reduces comprehension; complex instructions (d) overwhelm working memory and cause distress. Calm, validating, person-centered communication preserves dignity per 22 CCR §72527.

22 CCR §72527(a)(8) (right to information)
4. Which of the following CNA documentation entries is most appropriate?
a.'Family is difficult and unrealistic about the resident's prognosis.'
b.'Resident was rude and uncooperative with staff throughout the day.'
c.'Resident is depressed about her decline and should probably be started on an antidepressant by the physician.'
d.'Resident ate 75% of breakfast; refused shower stating she wanted to rest; voided 200 mL clear yellow urine.'✓

Per 42 CFR §483.20(g), documentation must be accurate, objective, factual, timely, and within scope of practice. Option d records measurable facts (intake %, refusal with stated reason, output amount and characteristics). Subjective judgments ('rude,' 'difficult'), diagnoses ('depressed'), and medication recommendations ('should probably be started on an antidepressant') are outside CNA scope and may misrepresent the resident. Objective documentation supports continuity of care and legal protection.

42 CFR §483.20(g) (accurate documentation)
5. A resident who is profoundly deaf communicates in ASL. To explain a transfer procedure, the facility should:
a.Have the CNA write each step on a small whiteboard during the transfer, since written English is equivalent to interpretation
b.Speak slowly and loudly facing the resident so that she can lip-read the steps
c.Ask a family member who knows some signs to interpret the procedure for her
d.Provide a qualified sign-language interpreter (in person or via video) for substantive clinical communication✓

The ADA (28 CFR §35.160) requires effective communication, which for many Deaf individuals means a qualified ASL interpreter, not written notes (which assume English literacy) or family. Lip-reading captures only about 30% of speech and is unreliable for clinical content. The choice of auxiliary aid must give 'primary consideration' to the resident's preference. Family interpreters create privacy and accuracy risks.

ADA 1990; 28 CFR §35.160
6. A Vietnamese Buddhist resident is dying. The family asks that monks be allowed in to chant at the bedside through the night. The CNA should:
a.Ask the family to chant silently so the sound does not carry into the hallway
b.Coordinate with the nurse and charge to accommodate the religious practice, providing private space and minimizing interruptions✓
c.Tell the family that overnight chanting disturbs other residents and deny the monks entry until the morning shift begins at seven
d.Allow one monk at the bedside for ten minutes at the end of visiting hours

Cultural and religious end-of-life practices are protected expressions of resident dignity under 42 CFR §483.10(e). Buddhist chanting, Catholic last rites, Filipino prayer vigils, and Latinx novenas are end-of-life rituals that should be accommodated. The CNA coordinates with the nurse for private space and care timing. Denial (c), arbitrary limits (d), or suppression (a) violate religious accommodation and add suffering at a sacred time.

42 CFR §483.10(e); CDPH guidance
7. A resident says, 'I just want to die.' The most therapeutic CNA response is:
a.'Don't talk like that — you have your grandchildren and so much left to live for, so let's not upset ourselves today.'
b.'Everyone your age feels that way sometimes; it will pass by tomorrow.'
c.'Let's talk about something cheerful — what would you like for lunch?'
d.'That sounds really painful. Can you tell me more about what you're feeling? I will let the nurse know right away.'✓

Therapeutic communication uses open-ended invitation, validation, and immediate escalation when statements suggest suicidal ideation. Reassurance clichés (a, b) and topic change (c) shut down the resident and miss safety risk. The CNA must take the statement seriously, listen, and report to the nurse immediately so the resident can be assessed for suicidal ideation and a safety plan implemented—a duty under both standards of care and facility policy.

Therapeutic communication standards
8. A Latina resident insists on drinking 'agua tibia' (warm water) instead of ice water, citing cultural beliefs about hot/cold balance. The CNA should:
a.Accommodate the preference for warm water provided fluid intake remains adequate and there is no medical contraindication✓
b.Chart that the resident refused fluids and offer nothing further until the dietary department delivers the next meal tray
c.Insist on ice water because chilled fluids are the facility's hydration standard
d.Explain that beliefs about hot and cold have no place in a medical setting

Cultural humility and person-centered care require accommodating fluid temperature preferences. Many cultures (Latinx 'caliente/frio,' Vietnamese 'âm/dương,' Chinese 'hot/cold' yin-yang) link beverage temperature to wellness. Respecting the preference supports adequate hydration. Rigid insistence (c), withholding fluids (b), or dismissing beliefs (d) violate dignity, may reduce intake leading to dehydration, and breach 42 CFR §483.10 rights. Warm water meets the same hydration need.

CDPH guidance on cultural competence
9. A nonverbal resident with end-stage dementia grimaces, moans, and guards the abdomen during repositioning. The CNA should interpret this as:
a.Hunger, and offer the resident a snack before continuing the repositioning
b.Possible pain; stop care, ensure safety, and report to the nurse for assessment using a tool such as PAINAD✓
c.Attention-seeking behavior, and continue repositioning while speaking calmly to the resident until she settles
d.Normal end-stage dementia behavior that does not need to be reported

Nonverbal cues—grimacing, moaning, guarding, withdrawal, tense posture—are valid pain indicators in cognitively impaired residents, assessed with tools such as PAINAD or FLACC. The CNA must stop nonessential activity, ensure safety, and notify the nurse for assessment and analgesic decision. Ignoring (d) or mischaracterizing (a, c) leads to undertreated pain, a recognized quality-of-care deficiency under CMS F-tags.

ANA scope and standards (nonverbal observation)
10. The nurse gives the CNA a verbal instruction: 'Get a clean-catch urine on Mrs. Park before lunch.' The CNA should:
a.Nod silently, then collect the specimen sometime before the lunch trays arrive
b.Repeat back: 'Clean-catch urine on Mrs. Park before lunch — got it.'✓
c.Wait for the nurse to enter a written order before collecting the specimen
d.Ask another CNA what the nurse said and follow that CNA's understanding

Joint Commission National Patient Safety Goals require read-back/repeat-back for verbal communications to prevent error. Repeating ensures both parties confirm the same task, resident, and timeframe. Silent acknowledgment (a) risks misinterpretation; waiting for written orders (c) delays necessary care for a verbal task within CNA scope; secondhand relay (d) introduces additional error. Read-back is a basic patient-safety habit expected of CNAs.

Joint Commission read-back; SBAR
11. A Muslim resident requests halal meals. The facility should:
a.Tell the resident to eat what is served and simply set the pork aside on the tray
b.Require a written physician's order and a dietitian consultation before the kitchen may send halal-compliant meals to the unit each day
c.Provide only fruit and bread at every meal so that no dietary law is broken
d.Coordinate with the dietary department to provide halal-compliant meals or appropriate alternatives, respecting religious dietary law✓

Religious dietary practices—halal (Muslim), kosher (Jewish), vegetarian (Hindu/Buddhist), no beef (Hindu)—are protected by 42 CFR §483.10(e)(2) and HSC §1599.69. Facilities must coordinate with dietary services to provide compliant meals or acceptable alternatives. Refusal to accommodate (a, c) violates religious rights and may compromise nutrition. Physician orders (b) are not required for religious diets, only for therapeutic restrictions.

42 CFR §483.10(e)(2) (religious diet)
12. Two family members argue loudly at the bedside about a parent's care. The CNA should first:
a.Ask both family members to leave the building until they can speak calmly
b.Calmly acknowledge the tension, ensure the resident is safe and comfortable, invite the family to a quieter area, and notify the nurse or social worker✓
c.Side with the calmer family member so that the argument ends more quickly
d.Step out of the room and let the family resolve the disagreement themselves

De-escalation involves remaining calm, acknowledging feelings, redirecting to a private space, and engaging appropriate professionals (nurse, social worker) for facilitated discussion. The resident's emotional safety is the first priority; arguments at the bedside cause distress. Siding (c) inflames conflict; ignoring (d) abandons the resident; expelling family (a) is rarely necessary and damages the therapeutic relationship and visitation rights.

ANA standards; therapeutic communication
13. When entering the room of a visually impaired resident, the CNA should:
a.Enter quietly and begin care without speaking so the resident is not startled, then explain what was done after the care is finished
b.Knock, identify themselves by name and role, and explain each step before doing it; do not move personal items without permission✓
c.Touch the resident's arm first and then explain what care is about to be done
d.Rearrange the bedside furniture so there is more room to work during care

Best practice with visually impaired residents: announce presence (knock, state name/role), describe each action before touching, narrate movements, and never relocate personal items, which are placed for navigation. Silent entry (a) and unannounced touch (c) startle and erode trust. Rearranging furniture (d) creates falls and disorientation. These practices honor autonomy and prevent injury for residents who cannot visually anticipate care.

ADA; effective communication for visually impaired
14. A Chinese resident's family asks the CNA not to tell the resident she has cancer because in their culture it is harmful to inform the patient directly. The CNA should:
a.Tell the resident her diagnosis right away, since family cannot override her right to know
b.Inform the nurse and social worker so the team can navigate disclosure preferences in accordance with the resident's stated wishes and culturally sensitive practice✓
c.Promise the family that the CNA will never mention the diagnosis to the resident
d.Ignore the request and let the physician handle disclosure however he chooses

Cultural practices around 'protective truth-telling' are common in many Asian and Latinx families, but the resident's right to know is paramount under 42 CFR §483.10(c). The team should ascertain what the resident wants to know (the resident may delegate decision-making to family). The CNA does not decide alone—she communicates the family's request to the nurse and social worker for ethical, culturally informed planning. Promising silence (c), unilateral disclosure (a), or ignoring (d) all bypass the proper process.

42 CFR §483.10(c); shared decision-making
15. A CNA observes that a resident who was alert yesterday is now confused, mumbling, and unable to follow simple instructions. The CNA should:
a.Encourage the resident to nap and recheck afterward, since new confusion in older adults usually clears on its own once they have rested for a few hours
b.Document the change and check on the resident again in a few hours
c.Report the change in mental status to the nurse immediately—acute changes may signal infection (e.g., UTI), stroke, hypoglycemia, or other emergencies✓
d.Ask the family whether this level of confusion is normal for the resident

Acute mental status change is a 'red flag' that often signals serious underlying conditions—UTI (a leading cause of delirium in elders), stroke, hypoglycemia, sepsis, dehydration, or medication reaction. Per ANA and facility standards, the CNA must report immediately so the nurse can assess and intervene. Delay (b), reliance on family normalization (d), or attributing to fatigue (a) can result in deterioration or death.

ANA observation and reporting standards
16. A gay resident is visited daily by his husband. A new CNA refers to the husband as 'your friend.' The appropriate correction is:
a.The CNA may use whatever term for the visitor she is personally comfortable with
b.The resident must accept the terms staff use as long as no insult is intended
c.The CNA must use the term 'husband' as the resident has chosen, in keeping with respect for chosen family relationships under California's LGBT Long-Term Care Bill of Rights✓
d.Disagreements about family labels are a social-work matter, not a CNA concern

HSC §1439.51 prohibits willful and repeated failure to use the resident's preferred name, pronouns, and chosen family relationship terms. Married same-sex partners are spouses. Substituting 'friend' minimizes the relationship and may constitute discriminatory treatment. Staff comfort (a) does not outweigh the resident's right; the resident does not have to accept disrespectful terms (b); this is squarely a CNA conduct issue (d).

HSC §1439.50–51 (LGBT bill of rights)
17. Which of the following is an example of active listening?
a.Watching the clock and charting while the resident is still speaking
b.Offering advice as soon as the resident pauses for breath, so that the conversation reaches a solution more quickly
c.Finishing the resident's sentences so the conversation moves along faster
d.Maintaining eye contact, nodding, paraphrasing what was said, and asking open-ended follow-up questions✓

Active listening uses verbal and nonverbal techniques—eye contact, nodding, paraphrasing ('It sounds like...'), and open-ended follow-up ('Tell me more')—to convey understanding and elicit further information. Interrupting (b), distraction (a), and finishing sentences (c) shut down communication and signal disregard. Active listening builds trust and helps surface clinically important information the resident might otherwise withhold.

Therapeutic communication; active listening
18. A Filipino resident says 'opo' and smiles when the CNA explains a procedure but appears confused. The CNA should:
a.Recognize that polite affirmation may not indicate understanding; verify comprehension by asking the resident to teach back or demonstrate, and arrange Tagalog interpreter support✓
b.Speak more loudly and repeat the explanation until the resident stops smiling
c.Document that the resident verbalized understanding and continue the procedure
d.Proceed with the procedure, since the resident answered 'opo' and did not object

Cultural communication patterns may include polite affirmation ('opo,' 'po') that signals respect rather than comprehension. The teach-back method—asking the resident to explain or demonstrate in their own words—is the validated way to confirm understanding. Assuming understanding (c, d) risks consent failure; loud speech (b) does not address comprehension. Combining teach-back with appropriate interpretation supports informed care.

Therapeutic communication standards
19. When end-of-shift report is given, the CNA should include:
a.The CNA's personal opinions about which residents were cooperative and which were difficult, so that the oncoming shift knows what to expect from each of them
b.Only the positive observations, so the oncoming shift starts the day well
c.Comments about which coworkers arrived late or left their work unfinished
d.Vital signs trends, intake/output, ADL completion, refusals, changes in condition, falls/incidents, and any concerns raised by resident or family✓

End-of-shift report must convey complete, accurate, objective information to the oncoming team to maintain continuity of care: vitals, I&O, ADL status, refusals, condition changes, incidents, and resident/family concerns. Omitting negatives (b) endangers safety; opinions (a) and gossip (c) are unprofessional and create liability. Per 42 CFR §483.20(g), reports and documentation must be factual and contemporaneous.

42 CFR §483.20(g); accurate reporting
20. A resident speaks limited English but the facility's video-interpreter device is down. The CNA needs to obtain consent for a procedure. The CNA should:
a.Ask another resident who speaks the language to interpret the consent discussion
b.Notify the nurse, who will use the facility's contracted telephonic interpreter service or arrange an in-person interpreter before consent or substantive care✓
c.Skip the consent discussion and proceed, charting that no interpreter was available
d.Use a translation app on a personal phone to explain the procedure and obtain consent

Language access is a legal duty (Title VI; HSC §1259). When primary tools fail, facilities must use backup qualified interpreters via telephone services like Language Line. Skipping consent (c) is battery; lay interpreters (a) violate privacy and accuracy; personal-device translation apps (d) are not approved, may be inaccurate, and may transmit PHI insecurely. The nurse coordinates an approved interpretation pathway.

ADA; AB 1195 (cultural competency)

Safety & Infection Control

30 questions
1. Effective handwashing with soap and water requires a minimum of:
a.5 seconds of vigorous friction with soap covering the palms and backs of the hands, followed by a rinse under warm running water
b.20 seconds of vigorous friction with soap covering all surfaces, including between fingers, under nails, wrists✓
c.Air-drying the hands after rinsing rather than using a clean paper towel
d.Rinsing under cold running water without soap, then drying with a paper towel

CDC handwashing guidance specifies at least 20 seconds of vigorous friction with soap on all hand surfaces, including between fingers, under nails, and wrists, then rinse and dry with a clean towel, turning off the faucet with the towel. Five seconds (a) is inadequate; rinse alone (d) does not remove organic soil and pathogens; air-drying (c) is slower and not standard in clinical care. Handwashing is the single most important infection-control measure.

CDC Standard Precautions; WHO 'My 5 Moments'
2. Proper order for donning PPE before entering a contact + droplet isolation room is:
a.Hand hygiene, goggles/face shield, gloves, mask, gown
b.Hand hygiene, gown, mask, goggles/face shield, gloves✓
c.Hand hygiene, mask, gloves, gown, goggles/face shield
d.Hand hygiene, gloves, gown, goggles/face shield, mask

CDC PPE donning sequence is hand hygiene → gown → mask/respirator → goggles or face shield → gloves (gloves pulled over gown cuffs). Doffing is in opposite order (gloves → goggles → gown → mask) with hand hygiene between steps and again at the end. Correct sequence prevents self-contamination and protects both worker and other residents under OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogen Standard (29 CFR §1910.1030). Practicing the order until it is automatic is essential before independent isolation care.

OSHA 29 CFR §1910.1030; CDC PPE guidance
3. A resident with active pulmonary tuberculosis requires:
a.Contact precautions: gown and gloves for every room entry, dedicated equipment, door may stay open
b.Standard precautions only: hand hygiene and gloves when body-fluid contact is likely
c.Droplet precautions: surgical mask within six feet, private room, door may stay open
d.Airborne precautions: AIIR (negative-pressure room), N95 or PAPR for staff, door kept closed✓

TB is transmitted by airborne droplet nuclei. CDC requires Airborne Infection Isolation Room (negative pressure with at least 6 air changes/hour, exhausted outdoors or through HEPA), N95 respirator (fit-tested) or PAPR for staff, and door kept closed. Standard (b), contact (a), or droplet precautions (c) are insufficient and risk staff and other-resident infection. The resident wears a surgical mask if transported.

CDC transmission-based precautions
4. When caring for a resident with C. difficile diarrhea, the CNA must:
a.Wear gloves only, use alcohol-based hand rub after care, and wipe surfaces with a quaternary ammonium cleaner
b.Wear gown and gloves, use alcohol-based hand rub, and clean surfaces with any general-purpose detergent
c.Wear gown and gloves, use soap-and-water handwashing (alcohol gel does NOT kill C. diff spores), and clean surfaces with EPA-registered sporicidal (bleach-based) disinfectant✓
d.Wear gloves only, use alcohol-based hand rub between residents, and leave terminal cleaning to housekeeping

C. difficile produces spores resistant to alcohol-based hand sanitizers; soap-and-water handwashing is mandatory after care. Contact Precautions (gown + gloves) apply. Environmental cleaning requires EPA-registered sporicidal agents (typically 1:10 bleach). Gloves without a gown (a, d), or a general-purpose detergent instead of an EPA-registered sporicide (b), allow spore transmission. C. difficile is a leading healthcare-associated infection with significant mortality in elders.

CDC C. difficile guidance
5. A CNA is accidentally stuck by a discarded needle while making a bed. The first action is:
a.Squeeze the site to make it bleed for several minutes, apply alcohol, and report it at the end of the shift
b.Wash the area immediately with soap and water, report to the supervisor without delay, and follow the facility's post-exposure protocol including baseline labs and prophylaxis as indicated✓
c.Finish making the bed, then report the exposure to the supervisor at the end of the shift, wash the site with soap and water at that time, and ask the nurse to order baseline laboratory tests the next morning
d.Apply an adhesive bandage and watch the site for redness over the next few days before reporting it

OSHA Bloodborne Pathogen Standard requires immediate post-exposure response: wash area with soap and water (or flush mucous membranes with water/saline), report to supervisor immediately, complete an incident report, and access post-exposure evaluation (source-patient testing, baseline labs, possible HIV/HBV prophylaxis per CDC guidance—within hours). Delay (c, d) reduces prophylaxis effectiveness; aggressive squeezing (a) is not recommended and may worsen tissue damage.

OSHA 29 CFR §1910.1030; needlestick policy
6. The correct disposal of a used disposable razor with visible blood is:
a.Wrap the razor tightly in several layers of tissue and drop it into the regular trash bag in the resident's room
b.Place the razor in the soiled-linen hamper for laundry staff to remove and discard
c.Rinse the razor at the sink and return it to the resident's bedside drawer
d.Immediately drop it into a rigid puncture-resistant red sharps container, never recap or pass hand to hand✓

OSHA 29 CFR §1910.1030 requires sharps to be placed in closable, puncture-resistant, leakproof, labeled biohazard containers immediately at point of use; never recap, bend, or hand-pass. Regular trash (a) and linen hampers (b) pose injury and infection risk to coworkers, housekeeping, and laundry staff who handle bags downstream; rinsing a bloodied razor and returning it to the bedside drawer (c) leaves a contaminated sharp in the resident's room. Sharps containers must not exceed 3/4 full and must be replaced promptly by a designated process to prevent overfill injuries.

OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens; sharps safety
7. During a facility fire, the CNA uses the RACE acronym. RACE stands for:
a.Read the fire alarm panel, Avoid the smoke, Carry residents down to the stairwell, Empty the wing floor by floor
b.React to the smoke, Activate the alarm, Cool the fire, Eliminate the hazard
c.Run from the area, Alert the charge nurse, Cover the fire, Escape outside
d.Rescue (those in immediate danger), Alarm (pull and call 9-1-1), Contain (close doors), Extinguish or Evacuate✓

RACE is the standard fire-response acronym: Rescue residents in immediate danger, sound the Alarm and call 9-1-1, Contain the fire by closing doors and windows, and Extinguish if small/safe or Evacuate per plan. CNAs work under nurse direction during evacuation; horizontal evacuation (through smoke doors to adjacent compartment) is usually preferred over vertical. PASS (Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep) is the extinguisher acronym.

NFPA Life Safety Code; CDPH fire safety
8. An evidence-based fall-prevention intervention for a high-risk resident is:
a.Tie the call light to the bed frame out of the resident's reach so that repeated night-time calls do not pull staff away from other residents
b.Low bed, non-slip floor mat on the rising side, call light within reach, scheduled toileting, properly fitted footwear, adequate lighting✓
c.Keep the resident in bed at all times and use a wheelchair only for meals
d.Apply a bedside vest restraint every night shift as a routine fall precaution

Falls prevention bundles include low beds, floor mats, accessible call lights, scheduled toileting (anticipating elimination needs), proper footwear (non-skid soles), bedside lighting, and rounding. Restraints (d) increase injury and death risk and are prohibited as routine prevention (CMS F-689, 42 CFR §483.12). Withholding the call light (a) is abuse; bed-confinement (c) causes deconditioning, pressure injury, and depression.

CMS F-tag 689; CDC fall prevention
9. Standard Precautions are applied to:
a.Only residents on isolation precautions, using the PPE listed on the door sign
b.Only residents known to have HIV, hepatitis B, or hepatitis C on the chart
c.All residents, all the time, treating blood, all body fluids (except sweat), non-intact skin, and mucous membranes as potentially infectious✓
d.Only when the resident is visibly bleeding or has an open, draining wound

Standard Precautions, the foundation of infection control per CDC and OSHA Bloodborne Pathogen Standard, apply to ALL residents regardless of known infection status because exposures may occur before infection is known. They cover blood, all body fluids (sweat excepted), non-intact skin, and mucous membranes. Limiting to known cases (a, b) or visible blood (d) misses asymptomatic carriers and post-exposure scenarios; that thinking caused historic HIV/HBV transmission to staff.

CDC standard precautions; OSHA
10. Proper body mechanics when assisting a resident to stand from bed include:
a.Bend at the waist with the knees straight, keep the feet close together, and pull the resident up and forward by both arms
b.Wide stance, bend knees and hips (not back), keep load close, lift with legs, use gait belt and ask for help when needed✓
c.Lift the resident alone regardless of her weight, keeping the feet together
d.Twist at the spine to bring the resident around toward the wheelchair

OSHA ergonomic principles for safe patient handling: feet shoulder-width apart, bend knees and hips, keep back straight and load close, pivot rather than twist, use gait belt for controlled assist, and use mechanical lifts and two-person assist per the resident's mobility plan. Bending at waist with locked knees (a) and twisting (d) cause >50% of CNA back injuries; lifting alone (c) ignores the 35-lb safe-handling limit (NIOSH/ANA Safe Patient Handling).

Body mechanics; OSHA ergonomics

Last reviewed: · editorial process

PrepPass team · Verified against California CDPH + D&S Diversified · How we review

What's on the California Certified Nursing Assistant exam (D&S Diversified / Headmaster)?

The California Certified Nursing Assistant exam (D&S Diversified / Headmaster) is administered by the California Department of Public Health (CDPH); training under HSC §1276.5. The topic weights below are a PrepPass estimate, not figures published by the California Department of Public Health (CDPH); training under HSC §1276.5.

Questions
Not published by CDPH
Time limit
Not published by CDPH
Passing score
Not published by CDPH

Every figure above, with the document it came from and the date we read it →

Topic blueprint

  • 20%
    Basic Nursing Skills
  • 17%
    Legal & Ethical
  • 15%
    Safety & Infection Control
  • 10%
    Patient Rights
  • 10%
    Communication & Culture
  • 10%
    Restorative Care
  • 10%
    Mental Health
  • 8%
    Emotional Support
PrepPass team · Verified against California Department of Public Health (CDPH); training under HSC §1276.5 · How we review

How hard is the exam?

Moderate. There is no single California CNA written exam: CDPH approves several testing vendors and publishes none of the mechanics itself. D&SDT-Headmaster's knowledge exam is 75 questions in 60 minutes; Credentia's written examination is 70 questions, 60 of them scored, and Credentia publishes no cut score at all. Whichever vendor you sit, there is a separate skills/clinical portion, and the written portion tests resident rights, safety/infection control, and basic nursing skills.

Recommended study hours
30-60 hours of written review (separate from the required 160-hour HSC §1276.5 training)
Pass rate
We read CDPH (California Department of Public Health)'s own published material in September 2026 and there is no pass rate in it. There is also no national CNA pass rate, because there is no national CNA exam: each state contracts its own vendor. Some states do publish — Minnesota posts nurse-aide results for every approved training program — so check your own state registry rather than any prep site.Source: CDPH — Certified Nurse Assistant (California Department of Public Health) · Minnesota Department of Health — Nurse Aide Registry test data by training program (an example of a state that does publish)
Where to focus first
Basic Nursing Skills (20% of exam) and Safety & Infection Control (15%) — focus practice rounds on these topic chips.

Fees and salaries are approximate and change over time. The pass rate above is quoted from the source linked beside it, for the period that source covers — where we have not checked a source, we say so and give no number.

Frequently asked questions

How many California CNA practice questions are here?+

200 original practice questions across all 8 topics of the California CNA written exam, with answers, explanations, and statute citations on 200 of the 200 questions (42 CFR §483, HSC §1276.5, Title 22 CCR §72527, W&I §15630, HIPAA, OSHA, CDPH guidance).

Is this CNA practice test free?+

Yes — completely free with no signup required. You can take unlimited practice rounds without creating an account.

Are these the real California CNA exam questions?+

No. All 200 questions are original prose authored from public-domain sources (federal CFR, California HSC and W&I codes, Title 22 CCR, CDPH guidelines, ANA standards). We never copy from the real D&S Diversified exam.

What's the passing score for the California CNA exam?+

CDPH publishes none, and the approved testing vendors do not agree: one sets a numeric cut score on its knowledge portion and the other publishes no numeric cut score for its written or oral examination at all. Each vendor's own wording, with the handbook it came from, is on our CNA exam-facts page. You must ALSO pass a 5-skill demonstration scored by a state-approved evaluator.

Is the California CNA exam available in Spanish, Chinese, or Vietnamese?+

The official CNA knowledge exam is offered in English and Spanish by D&S Diversified. PrepPass provides all 200 practice questions in English, 中文, Español, and Tiếng Việt so Filipino, Vietnamese, Chinese, and Latina caregivers can study in their strongest language first.

Why is California's CNA training 160 hours (vs federal 75)?+

HSC §1276.5 sets California's training requirement higher than the federal 75-hour minimum: 60 hours classroom + 100 hours supervised clinical = 160 hours total. The wage boost under SB 525 (healthcare workers reach $23/hr in June 2026) is driving more entrants — making this exam one of the most in-demand in California.

Is there a study guide for the California CNA (Certified Nursing Assistant)?+

Yes. PrepPass sells CNA — Complete Study Guide (2026), a PDF + EPUB download, $19.99 one-time; the practice on this page stays free without it. See the study guide →

Report