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1. A resident in a California skilled nursing facility refuses her scheduled bath. The CNA should:

Under 42 CFR §483.10(a) and California HSC §1599.65, residents have the right to be treated with dignity and to make choices about care, including the right to refuse treatment. The CNA must honor the refusal, document the refusal and any reason given, and notify the licensed nurse so the care plan can be revisited. Forcing care (a, d) constitutes battery and abuse; threats or coercion (c) violate dignity and the Patients' Bill of Rights. Refusal documentation protects the resident, staff, and facility.

2. A resident's adult son calls the facility asking what medications his mother is taking. The CNA should:

HIPAA Privacy Rule (45 CFR §164.502) and 42 CFR §483.10(g) protect resident health information. Family status alone does not authorize disclosure; only individuals designated by the resident or holding valid authority (POA for healthcare, conservator) may receive PHI, and disclosure must be made by appropriate licensed staff. The CNA should not confirm or deny information and must route the request to the nurse, who will verify authorization before any release. Options a, b, and d would each be unauthorized disclosures.

3. A CNA sees a coworker slap a resident across the face. Under California's Elder Abuse Reporting law, the CNA must:

Welfare & Institutions Code §15630 makes CNAs mandated reporters of elder and dependent adult abuse. Physical abuse with serious bodily injury must be reported by phone immediately and in writing within two hours; other physical abuse within 24 hours, to local ombudsman or law enforcement and to CDPH. 42 CFR §483.12 also requires immediate facility reporting. Waiting (b), informal handling (c), or conditioning the report on the resident's wishes (d) are violations that expose the CNA to criminal penalties and loss of certification.

4. Which of the following best reflects a resident's right to participate in care planning?

42 CFR §483.10(f)(8) and HSC §1599.1 establish the resident's right to participate in the development, review, and revision of the comprehensive care plan, including the right to choose a representative. The plan reflects resident goals and preferences, not staff convenience. Option a denies participation; b inappropriately gives family veto power; c conditions a right on physician approval. The team must accommodate scheduling and provide notice so the resident can meaningfully participate.

5. A nurse orders a vest restraint because a resident keeps trying to get out of bed at night. Before applying it, the CNA knows that under federal restraint rules:

42 CFR §483.12(a)(2) prohibits restraints imposed for discipline or staff convenience and requires they be used only to treat the resident's medical symptoms after less restrictive interventions (bed alarms, low beds, frequent rounding, toileting schedule) have been tried. A physician order, documented assessment, informed consent, and ongoing monitoring are required. Routine use (c) or order-alone (a) violate the regulation; family consent (d) does not substitute for medical necessity and least-restrictive analysis.

6. While giving perineal care, a CNA notices the room door is open and visitors are walking past. The CNA should first:

The right to personal privacy and dignity during care is guaranteed by 42 CFR §483.10(e) and California HSC §1599.74. Best practice is to close the door, pull the privacy curtain, and drape the resident with a bath blanket exposing only the area being cleaned. Working faster (a) does not protect dignity, moving the resident mid-care (b) is unsafe and undignified, and asking bystanders to look away (d) places the burden on others and still exposes the resident.

7. A resident has a signed POLST indicating Do Not Resuscitate (DNR) and 'comfort measures only.' The resident becomes unresponsive with no pulse. The CNA should:

Under the Patient Self-Determination Act and 42 CFR §483.10(c)(6), residents may direct refusal of life-sustaining treatment through advance directives and California POLST. A valid POLST is a portable physician order that staff must honor; CPR is not initiated when DNR is specified. The CNA notifies the nurse so death can be pronounced and the family/physician notified. Starting CPR (b) violates the directive; delay (c) and repositioning a pulseless person (d) are inappropriate.

8. A long-term-care resident wishes to vote in the November election but cannot leave the facility. Under federal residents' rights, the facility must:

42 CFR §483.10(f)(11) protects residents' rights to exercise their rights as citizens, including voting. California facilities must reasonably accommodate access to vote-by-mail materials, translators, and adaptive assistance, and may coordinate with the County Registrar of Voters. Discouraging participation (a), proxy voting by staff (b)—which is illegal—, or gatekeeping by physician note (d) all infringe a fundamental civil right.

9. A resident tells the CNA, 'I want to file a complaint about how the night staff speaks to me.' The CNA should:

42 CFR §483.10(j) and HSC §1599.2 guarantee the right to voice grievances without discrimination or reprisal and require facilities to have a grievance officer with prompt written response. The CNA must support access to the grievance process, including posting Long-Term Care Ombudsman contact information (1-800-231-4024). Discouraging the resident (a), delay (b), and informal investigation by an aide (c) all violate residents' rights and may constitute retaliation if they suppress the complaint.

10. A resident wants to keep his late wife's photograph and a small wooden rosary at the bedside. The facility should:

42 CFR §483.10(f)(2) and HSC §1599.69 grant residents the right to retain and use personal possessions, including religious items, to the extent space permits, unless doing so would infringe on others' rights, health, or safety. Personal items support identity, comfort, and dignity. Removal (a) or storage (b) without cause violates the right; medical director gatekeeping (d) is not the standard—facilities apply space and safety criteria, not arbitrary approval.

11. Visiting hours and access rights in California skilled nursing facilities require that:

42 CFR §483.10(f)(4) and HSC §1599.76 protect the right to receive visitors of the resident's choosing, including same-sex partners, friends, and clergy, at times the resident chooses, subject only to reasonable clinical or safety restrictions and the resident's own consent. Limiting to blood relatives (b), rigid hours (c), or requiring approval based on relationship type (d) violate both federal regulation and California nondiscrimination law (Unruh Act; HSC §1439.50 LGBT Long-Term Care Bill of Rights).

12. A resident asks the CNA to hold $40 in cash for her in the CNA's pocket. The correct response is:

42 CFR §483.10(f)(10) and HSC §1599.81 require facilities to safeguard resident personal funds in a separate accounting system with quarterly statements, and prohibit staff from commingling resident funds with personal property. A CNA holding cash (a) or spending it (c) creates risk of allegations of theft and violates policy; entrusting to a roommate (d) is also improper. Funds belong in the facility's resident-trust account where they remain the resident's property with full access.

13. A resident asks to read her own medical record. Under the right to access records, the facility must allow access:

Per 42 CFR §483.10(g)(2) and California HSC §1599.78, residents have the right to access their records upon oral or written request within 24 hours (excluding weekends/holidays) and to receive copies within 2 working days at a reasonable cost. Physician approval (a) is not required for the resident's own record, family presence (b) is not a condition, and access is not delayed until discharge (d). HIPAA 45 CFR §164.524 also supports patient access.

14. Which of the following is an example of psychological abuse that must be reported?

42 CFR §483.12(a)(1) prohibits verbal, mental, physical, and sexual abuse. Name-calling, humiliation, ridicule, and threats are psychological/verbal abuse and must be reported under W&I §15630. Routine reminders (a), brief task prioritization (b), and accurate documentation (c) are normal care activities. CNAs witnessing verbal abuse have the same mandatory-reporting duty as for physical abuse and may face certification action for failure to report.

15. A CNA is discussing a resident's diagnosis with another CNA in the hallway near the elevator. This is:

HIPAA (45 CFR §164.530) and 42 CFR §483.10(h) require minimum necessary disclosure and reasonable safeguards. Discussing PHI in public hallways violates confidentiality even between staff if others can overhear and the second staff member does not need the information for care. Staff status (b), volume control (c), or elevator doors (d) do not cure the violation. Discussions should occur in nursing stations, behind closed doors, or via secure shift report.

16. A transgender resident asks staff to use her chosen name and 'she/her' pronouns. Under California's LGBT Long-Term Care Bill of Rights, staff must:

HSC §1439.51 makes it unlawful for California long-term-care facilities to willfully and repeatedly fail to use a resident's preferred name or pronouns, or to deny appropriate room assignment by gender identity. Staff must respect chosen name, pronouns, and gender identity. Using legal name only (a) or deferring to family (c) or physician notes (d) over the resident's stated identity violates state law and the resident's dignity rights.

17. A resident receives a 30-day notice of involuntary transfer to another facility. Which is true of the resident's rights?

42 CFR §483.15(c) and HSC §1599.61 require written notice of involuntary transfer or discharge, usually 30 days in advance, stating the reason and informing the resident of the right to appeal to the California Department of Health Care Services state hearing. Permissible reasons are limited (welfare, no longer needs services, endangerment, nonpayment, facility closure). The resident—and a representative—may appeal; lack of appeal rights (a), immediate transfer (b), and family-only appeal (d) are incorrect.

18. When sharing a semi-private room, residents' rights to privacy include:

42 CFR §483.10(e)(3) requires accommodation of privacy needs in shared rooms: privacy curtains during personal care, private telephone access, and private space for visits, including with spouses/partners. Mandating an open curtain (a) violates dignity; sharing personal hygiene items (b) violates infection control; allowing eavesdropping (c) violates confidentiality. Facility design and operations must accommodate these rights even within shared accommodations.

19. An alert resident states she does not want a feeding tube even if she stops eating. The CNA should:

42 CFR §483.10(c)(7) and HSC §1418.8 protect a competent adult's right to formulate advance directives and refuse treatment, including artificial nutrition and hydration. The CNA's role is to relay the wish promptly to the licensed nurse so it can be documented in an advance directive (AHCD/POLST) and integrated into the care plan. Dismissing the wish (b), deferring vaguely (c), or inviting family override (d) violate self-determination and the Patient Self-Determination Act.

20. California Title 22 §72527 Patients' Bill of Rights must be:

22 CCR §72527 requires SNFs to provide each patient (or representative) a written copy of the Patients' Bill of Rights upon admission and to post it prominently. CDPH guidance requires translation into the primary languages of residents served. Silent staff reading (a), restricted office storage (c), or conditioning on family request (d) defeat the rule's purpose of ensuring residents actually know their rights and can exercise them, including filing complaints with CDPH and the Ombudsman.

1. A newly admitted resident speaks only Tagalog. The CNA's best action is to:

Title VI of the Civil Rights Act and HSC §1259 require hospitals and SNFs that receive federal funds to provide meaningful language access, typically through qualified interpreters (in person, phone, or video). Family members—especially minors—should not interpret clinical information; they may misinterpret or filter sensitive content. Speaking louder (a) does not aid comprehension; minor-interpreter use (b) violates federal guidance; skipping explanations (d) violates informed consent and dignity.

2. A CNA notices a resident's blood pressure rose from a baseline 118/76 to 168/96 with new headache. The best way to report this to the nurse is:

SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) is the standard structured communication tool taught in CNA programs and endorsed by Joint Commission and ANA for safe handoffs. It conveys complete, actionable information so the nurse can prioritize response. Vague reports (b), chart-only documentation (c), and indirect relay (d) delay needed assessment of a possible hypertensive event and place the resident at risk.

3. When communicating with a resident who has moderate dementia, the CNA should:

Best practice for residents with cognitive impairment is to approach from the front to avoid startling, make eye contact, use the resident's name, give one-step simple instructions, and allow time to respond. Reality-testing quizzes (a) increase anxiety and are not recommended; rapid speech (b) reduces comprehension; complex instructions (c) overwhelm working memory and cause distress. Calm, validating, person-centered communication preserves dignity per 22 CCR §72527.

4. Which of the following CNA documentation entries is most appropriate?

Per 42 CFR §483.20(g), documentation must be accurate, objective, factual, timely, and within scope of practice. Option b records measurable facts (intake %, refusal with stated reason, output amount and characteristics). Subjective judgments ('rude,' 'difficult'), diagnoses ('depressed'), and medication recommendations ('Prozac') are outside CNA scope and may misrepresent the resident. Objective documentation supports continuity of care and legal protection.

5. A resident who is profoundly deaf communicates in ASL. To explain a transfer procedure, the facility should:

The ADA (28 CFR §35.160) requires effective communication, which for many Deaf individuals means a qualified ASL interpreter, not written notes (which assume English literacy) or family. Lip-reading captures only about 30% of speech and is unreliable for clinical content. The choice of auxiliary aid must give 'primary consideration' to the resident's preference. Family interpreters create privacy and accuracy risks.

6. A Vietnamese Buddhist resident is dying. The family asks that monks be allowed in to chant at the bedside through the night. The CNA should:

Cultural and religious end-of-life practices are protected expressions of resident dignity under 42 CFR §483.10(e). Buddhist chanting, Catholic last rites, Filipino prayer vigils, and Latinx novenas are end-of-life rituals that should be accommodated. The CNA coordinates with the nurse for private space and care timing. Denial (b), arbitrary limits (c), or suppression (d) violate religious accommodation and add suffering at a sacred time.

7. A resident says, 'I just want to die.' The most therapeutic CNA response is:

Therapeutic communication uses open-ended invitation, validation, and immediate escalation when statements suggest suicidal ideation. Reassurance clichés (a, c) and topic change (d) shut down the resident and miss safety risk. The CNA must take the statement seriously, listen, and report to the nurse immediately so the resident can be assessed for suicidal ideation and a safety plan implemented—a duty under both standards of care and facility policy.

8. A Latina resident insists on drinking 'agua tibia' (warm water) instead of ice water, citing cultural beliefs about hot/cold balance. The CNA should:

Cultural humility and person-centered care require accommodating fluid temperature preferences. Many cultures (Latinx 'caliente/frio,' Vietnamese 'âm/dương,' Chinese 'hot/cold' yin-yang) link beverage temperature to wellness. Respecting the preference supports adequate hydration. Rigid insistence (a), withholding fluids (b), or dismissing beliefs (c) violate dignity, may reduce intake leading to dehydration, and breach 42 CFR §483.10 rights. Warm water meets the same hydration need.

9. A nonverbal resident with end-stage dementia grimaces, moans, and guards the abdomen during repositioning. The CNA should interpret this as:

Nonverbal cues—grimacing, moaning, guarding, withdrawal, tense posture—are valid pain indicators in cognitively impaired residents, assessed with tools such as PAINAD or FLACC. The CNA must stop nonessential activity, ensure safety, and notify the nurse for assessment and analgesic decision. Ignoring (a) or mischaracterizing (b, d) leads to undertreated pain, a recognized quality-of-care deficiency under CMS F-tags.

10. The nurse gives the CNA a verbal instruction: 'Get a clean-catch urine on Mrs. Park before lunch.' The CNA should:

Joint Commission National Patient Safety Goals require read-back/repeat-back for verbal communications to prevent error. Repeating ensures both parties confirm the same task, resident, and timeframe. Silent acknowledgment (b) risks misinterpretation; waiting for written orders (c) delays necessary care for a verbal task within CNA scope; secondhand relay (d) introduces additional error. Read-back is a basic patient-safety habit expected of CNAs.

11. A Muslim resident requests halal meals. The facility should:

Religious dietary practices—halal (Muslim), kosher (Jewish), vegetarian (Hindu/Buddhist), no beef (Hindu)—are protected by 42 CFR §483.10(e)(2) and HSC §1599.69. Facilities must coordinate with dietary services to provide compliant meals or acceptable alternatives. Refusal to accommodate (a, c) violates religious rights and may compromise nutrition. Physician orders (d) are not required for religious diets, only for therapeutic restrictions.

12. Two family members argue loudly at the bedside about a parent's care. The CNA should first:

De-escalation involves remaining calm, acknowledging feelings, redirecting to a private space, and engaging appropriate professionals (nurse, social worker) for facilitated discussion. The resident's emotional safety is the first priority; arguments at the bedside cause distress. Siding (a) inflames conflict; ignoring (b) abandons the resident; expelling family (d) is rarely necessary and damages the therapeutic relationship and visitation rights.

13. When entering the room of a visually impaired resident, the CNA should:

Best practice with visually impaired residents: announce presence (knock, state name/role), describe each action before touching, narrate movements, and never relocate personal items, which are placed for navigation. Silent entry (a) and unannounced touch (b) startle and erode trust. Rearranging furniture (c) creates falls and disorientation. These practices honor autonomy and prevent injury for residents who cannot visually anticipate care.

14. A Chinese resident's family asks the CNA not to tell the resident she has cancer because in their culture it is harmful to inform the patient directly. The CNA should:

Cultural practices around 'protective truth-telling' are common in many Asian and Latinx families, but the resident's right to know is paramount under 42 CFR §483.10(c). The team should ascertain what the resident wants to know (the resident may delegate decision-making to family). The CNA does not decide alone—she communicates the family's request to the nurse and social worker for ethical, culturally informed planning. Promising silence (b), unilateral disclosure (c), or ignoring (d) all bypass the proper process.

15. A CNA observes that a resident who was alert yesterday is now confused, mumbling, and unable to follow simple instructions. The CNA should:

Acute mental status change is a 'red flag' that often signals serious underlying conditions—UTI (a leading cause of delirium in elders), stroke, hypoglycemia, sepsis, dehydration, or medication reaction. Per ANA and facility standards, the CNA must report immediately so the nurse can assess and intervene. Delay (a), reliance on family normalization (c), or attributing to fatigue (d) can result in deterioration or death.

16. A gay resident is visited daily by his husband. A new CNA refers to the husband as 'your friend.' The appropriate correction is:

HSC §1439.51 prohibits willful and repeated failure to use the resident's preferred name, pronouns, and chosen family relationship terms. Married same-sex partners are spouses. Substituting 'friend' minimizes the relationship and may constitute discriminatory treatment. Staff comfort (b) does not outweigh the resident's right; the resident does not have to accept disrespectful terms (d); this is squarely a CNA conduct issue (a).

17. Which of the following is an example of active listening?

Active listening uses verbal and nonverbal techniques—eye contact, nodding, paraphrasing ('It sounds like...'), and open-ended follow-up ('Tell me more')—to convey understanding and elicit further information. Interrupting (a), distraction (b), and finishing sentences (c) shut down communication and signal disregard. Active listening builds trust and helps surface clinically important information the resident might otherwise withhold.

18. A Filipino resident says 'opo' and smiles when the CNA explains a procedure but appears confused. The CNA should:

Cultural communication patterns may include polite affirmation ('opo,' 'po') that signals respect rather than comprehension. The teach-back method—asking the resident to explain or demonstrate in their own words—is the validated way to confirm understanding. Assuming understanding (b, c) risks consent failure; loud speech (d) does not address comprehension. Combining teach-back with appropriate interpretation supports informed care.

19. When end-of-shift report is given, the CNA should include:

End-of-shift report must convey complete, accurate, objective information to the oncoming team to maintain continuity of care: vitals, I&O, ADL status, refusals, condition changes, incidents, and resident/family concerns. Omitting negatives (a) endangers safety; opinions (c) and gossip (d) are unprofessional and create liability. Per 42 CFR §483.20(g), reports and documentation must be factual and contemporaneous.

20. A resident speaks limited English but the facility's video-interpreter device is down. The CNA needs to obtain consent for a procedure. The CNA should:

Language access is a legal duty (Title VI; HSC §1259). When primary tools fail, facilities must use backup qualified interpreters via telephone services like Language Line. Skipping consent (a) is battery; lay interpreters (b) violate privacy and accuracy; personal-device translation apps (d) are not approved, may be inaccurate, and may transmit PHI insecurely. The nurse coordinates an approved interpretation pathway.

1. Effective handwashing with soap and water requires a minimum of:

CDC handwashing guidance specifies at least 20 seconds of vigorous friction with soap on all hand surfaces, including between fingers, under nails, and wrists, then rinse and dry with a clean towel, turning off the faucet with the towel. Five seconds (a) is inadequate; rinse alone (c) does not remove organic soil and pathogens; air-drying (d) is slower and not standard in clinical care. Handwashing is the single most important infection-control measure.

2. Proper order for donning PPE before entering a contact + droplet isolation room is:

CDC PPE donning sequence is hand hygiene → gown → mask/respirator → goggles or face shield → gloves (gloves pulled over gown cuffs). Doffing is in opposite order (gloves → goggles → gown → mask) with hand hygiene between steps and again at the end. Correct sequence prevents self-contamination and protects both worker and other residents under OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogen Standard (29 CFR §1910.1030). Practicing the order until it is automatic is essential before independent isolation care.

3. A resident with active pulmonary tuberculosis requires:

TB is transmitted by airborne droplet nuclei. CDC requires Airborne Infection Isolation Room (negative pressure with at least 6 air changes/hour, exhausted outdoors or through HEPA), N95 respirator (fit-tested) or PAPR for staff, and door kept closed. Standard (a), contact (b), or droplet precautions (d) are insufficient and risk staff and other-resident infection. The resident wears a surgical mask if transported.

4. When caring for a resident with C. difficile diarrhea, the CNA must:

C. difficile produces spores resistant to alcohol-based hand sanitizers; soap-and-water handwashing is mandatory after care. Contact Precautions (gown + gloves) apply. Environmental cleaning requires EPA-registered sporicidal agents (typically 1:10 bleach). Alcohol gel only (a), gloves only (b), or generic cleaner (c) allow spore transmission. C. difficile is a leading healthcare-associated infection with significant mortality in elders.

5. A CNA is accidentally stuck by a discarded needle while making a bed. The first action is:

OSHA Bloodborne Pathogen Standard requires immediate post-exposure response: wash area with soap and water (or flush mucous membranes with water/saline), report to supervisor immediately, complete an incident report, and access post-exposure evaluation (source-patient testing, baseline labs, possible HIV/HBV prophylaxis per CDC guidance—within hours). Delay (a, c) reduces prophylaxis effectiveness; aggressive squeezing (d) is not recommended and may worsen tissue damage.

6. The correct disposal of a used disposable razor with visible blood is:

OSHA 29 CFR §1910.1030 requires sharps to be placed in closable, puncture-resistant, leakproof, labeled biohazard containers immediately at point of use; never recap, bend, or hand-pass. Regular trash (b), toilet (c), and linen hampers (d) all pose injury and infection risk to coworkers, housekeeping, and laundry staff who handle bags downstream. Sharps containers must not exceed 3/4 full and must be replaced promptly by a designated process to prevent overfill injuries.

7. During a facility fire, the CNA uses the RACE acronym. RACE stands for:

RACE is the standard fire-response acronym: Rescue residents in immediate danger, sound the Alarm and call 9-1-1, Contain the fire by closing doors and windows, and Extinguish if small/safe or Evacuate per plan. CNAs work under nurse direction during evacuation; horizontal evacuation (through smoke doors to adjacent compartment) is usually preferred over vertical. PASS (Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep) is the extinguisher acronym.

8. An evidence-based fall-prevention intervention for a high-risk resident is:

Falls prevention bundles include low beds, floor mats, accessible call lights, scheduled toileting (anticipating elimination needs), proper footwear (non-skid soles), bedside lighting, and rounding. Restraints (a) increase injury and death risk and are prohibited as routine prevention (CMS F-689, 42 CFR §483.12). Withholding the call light (b) is abuse; bed-confinement (c) causes deconditioning, pressure injury, and depression.

9. Standard Precautions are applied to:

Standard Precautions, the foundation of infection control per CDC and OSHA Bloodborne Pathogen Standard, apply to ALL residents regardless of known infection status because exposures may occur before infection is known. They cover blood, all body fluids (sweat excepted), non-intact skin, and mucous membranes. Limiting to known cases (a, c) or visible blood (d) misses asymptomatic carriers and post-exposure scenarios; that thinking caused historic HIV/HBV transmission to staff.

10. Proper body mechanics when assisting a resident to stand from bed include:

OSHA ergonomic principles for safe patient handling: feet shoulder-width apart, bend knees and hips, keep back straight and load close, pivot rather than twist, use gait belt for controlled assist, and use mechanical lifts and two-person assist per the resident's mobility plan. Bending at waist with locked knees (b) and twisting (c) cause >50% of CNA back injuries; lifting alone (d) ignores the 35-lb safe-handling limit (NIOSH/ANA Safe Patient Handling).

11. Which is true regarding gloves?

Gloves do NOT replace hand hygiene; perform hand hygiene before donning and immediately after removal because microbes contaminate hands during glove use and removal. Gloves are changed between residents and between dirty and clean tasks on the same resident. Reusing across residents (b) spreads infection. Routine care uses clean (non-sterile) gloves; sterile gloves (d) are reserved for sterile procedures, outside CNA scope.

12. A resident in the dining room suddenly collapses and is unresponsive with no breathing. The CNA should:

AHA Basic Life Support: recognize cardiac arrest, activate emergency response immediately ('Call a code blue / dial 9-1-1'), begin high-quality compressions, and apply AED when available. CNAs trained in BLS within scope start CPR unless a valid DNR/POLST directs otherwise. Delay (a), moving (b), or waiting for family (c) reduce survival; every minute without CPR cuts survival by ~10%. Always verify code status first.

13. A resident at dinner suddenly clutches her throat, cannot speak or cough. The CNA should:

Complete airway obstruction (universal choking sign, inability to speak/cough) requires immediate abdominal thrusts (Heimlich) for adults able to stand; chest thrusts for pregnant or obese individuals. If the resident loses consciousness, lower to floor, begin CPR, and look for object before each breath attempt. Offering water (a) worsens obstruction; isolated back-slaps without alternation are not the standard adult protocol (back-blows are part of infant/sometimes alternating adult sequences); waiting (d) wastes the 4-6 minute hypoxic window.

14. Oxygen safety in a resident's room includes:

Oxygen accelerates combustion. Safety: no smoking or open flame within prescribed distance, no petroleum products (Vaseline) on face/lips—use water-based lubricant, post 'Oxygen in Use' signage, secure tanks upright in stable carrier away from heat sources, keep tubing free of kinks to ensure flow, and avoid synthetic fabrics or wool blankets that build static. Candles (b), Vaseline (c), and improper tank storage (d) are serious fire risks. NFPA 99 and facility policy must be followed at all times.

15. A resident with dementia is found wandering toward an exit. The CNA should:

Elopement is a leading sentinel event for residents with dementia. The CNA approaches calmly from the front to avoid startling, uses simple cueing and redirection (familiar activity, snack, walking together to room), and notifies the nurse. Document the event; the team reviews wander-guard placement, door alarms, and care-plan interventions. Yelling (a) or grabbing (b) escalate distress and may be abuse; allowing elopement (d) endangers the resident.

16. A CNA is unsure how to safely use a new disinfectant spray. The CNA should:

OSHA Hazard Communication Standard (29 CFR §1910.1200) requires Safety Data Sheets (SDS) to be readily accessible to all employees. The SDS lists hazards, required PPE, dilution ratio, surface contact time, first aid, and disposal instructions. CNAs must consult the SDS and supervisor before first use of any product. Guessing (a) and mixing chemicals (b)—bleach plus ammonia produces toxic chloramine gas—are dangerous; unlabeled containers (c) violate Hazcom and risk poisoning of staff or residents.

17. When entering the room of a resident on contact precautions for MRSA, the CNA must:

MRSA spreads by contact. CDC Contact Precautions require gown and gloves donned before room entry and removed before exit, with hand hygiene immediately after removal. Dedicated equipment (BP cuff, stethoscope, thermometer) reduces cross-contamination. PPE applies to any room entry, even brief tasks (c). Gloves alone (a) leave clothing contaminated. N95 (d) is for airborne, not contact precautions.

18. A resident newly diagnosed with influenza requires:

Influenza is spread by respiratory droplets that travel about 3-6 feet. CDC Droplet Precautions: private room (or cohort), surgical mask within 6 feet, eye protection if splash risk; the resident wears a surgical mask if leaving the room. Airborne isolation/N95 (c) is reserved for TB, measles, COVID aerosol-generating procedures. Standard or contact alone (b, d) are insufficient for droplet transmission.

19. A bed-pad saturated with blood and stool must be discarded into:

OSHA 29 CFR §1910.1030 requires items saturated with blood or other potentially infectious material to be placed in red biohazard-labeled bags for regulated medical-waste disposal. Regular trash (a) and recycling (d) are prohibited; the linen hamper (b) is for reusable linen, not disposables and not heavily saturated waste. Proper segregation protects housekeeping, custodial staff, and the community waste stream.

20. Which is NOT a least-restrictive alternative to a physical restraint?

Least-restrictive interventions include low beds, floor mats, alarms, scheduled toileting, recliner positioning, activity engagement, and environmental modifications. Wrist ties (d) are physical restraints, not alternatives, and may only be used when less-restrictive interventions have failed and a documented medical symptom justifies restraint under 42 CFR §483.12(a)(2). 'Just in case' use is prohibited and may constitute false imprisonment and abuse.

21. Alcohol-based hand rub is preferred over soap and water EXCEPT when:

CDC guidance: alcohol-based hand rub (60-95% alcohol) is preferred for most clinical encounters because it is fast and more effective than handwashing for non-spore organisms. However, soap-and-water handwashing is required when hands are visibly soiled, after caring for C. difficile or norovirus (spores survive alcohol), before eating, and after using the restroom. Other situations (b, c, d) are appropriate for alcohol rub.

22. Before any transfer, the CNA should:

Safe transfer preparation: explain procedure, ensure non-skid footwear, lock all wheels, raise HOB so resident can sit upright, position wheelchair at 45° on resident's strongest side, apply gait belt low on torso, count '1-2-3 stand,' lift with legs. Neck-holds (c) risk CNA cervical injury and resident falls; dragging on a sheet (d) causes shearing skin injury. Omitting explanation (a) violates the resident's right to know.

23. A resident is in airborne + contact isolation for COVID-19. Required PPE for routine care includes:

Per updated CDC/CDPH SNF guidance, COVID-19 care requires N95 respirator (or PAPR) for staff entering the room because aerosol generation can occur, plus eye protection, gown, and gloves. Surgical mask (a) is insufficient; gown/gloves alone (b) miss airborne protection; standard precautions (d) are inadequate during active infection. Doff in order without contaminating self; perform hand hygiene multiple times.

24. Bed rails in California SNFs are:

Side rails may function as restraints when they restrict freedom of movement; CMS treats them under restraint rules requiring least-restrictive analysis, informed consent, medical justification, and ongoing monitoring. FDA has documented deaths from entrapment and publishes seven entrapment zones with dimensional limits. Routine bilateral use (a, b) violates federal regulation. Alternatives include low beds, transfer-aid handles, mat near bed.

25. After removing gloves, the CNA should:

CDC and WHO 'Five Moments' require hand hygiene immediately after glove removal because microbes contaminate hands during use and doffing through micro-tears and during the removal process. Reuse (b) cross-contaminates; delaying hygiene (c) spreads pathogens; pocketing (d) contaminates uniform. This single step prevents many healthcare-associated infections, the leading preventable cause of harm in long-term care.

26. PASS, the fire-extinguisher acronym, stands for:

PASS is the universal fire-extinguisher operation acronym: Pull the pin to break the seal, Aim at the base of the flames (not the flames themselves), Squeeze the handle to release the agent, and Sweep side to side until the fire is out. Stand 6-8 feet back. Only attempt extinguishment on a small contained fire after the Rescue, Alarm, and Contain steps of RACE, and only if you have a clear escape path behind you. Evacuate immediately if uncertain or if smoke is heavy. NFPA 10 governs extinguisher use.

27. Linen that is wet with blood should be:

OSHA 29 CFR §1910.1030 requires soiled linen to be bagged at point of use in leak-resistant bags (red biohazard if dripping/saturated), handled minimally with gloves, never sorted at bedside, and never held against the uniform. Carrying loose (a) contaminates body and floor; sink rinsing (b) creates aerosol and contamination; standard cart (d) without leak protection risks exposure of laundry staff.

28. During a code blue, the CNA's role typically includes:

CNAs work within scope: assist with compressions if BLS-trained, retrieve crash cart/AED, time intervals, document compressions, support family in a separate space, and perform support tasks at the direction of the RN/MD code leader. Diagnosis (b), clinical updates by phone (c), and medication documentation (d) are licensed-staff responsibilities. Clear scope adherence keeps the code organized and protects the CNA license.

29. During a facility norovirus outbreak, infection control measures include:

Norovirus is highly contagious via fecal-oral and aerosolized vomit. CDC/CDPH outbreak response: soap-and-water handwashing (alcohol rub less effective on non-enveloped norovirus), contact precautions, cohort ill residents, dedicate staff if possible, clean with EPA-list G norovirus disinfectant (bleach), exclude symptomatic staff until 48-72 hours symptom-free, restrict admissions/visitors as advised by Public Health. Wrong answers (a, b, c) would worsen the outbreak.

30. An isolation precaution sign on a resident's door is missing PPE icons. The CNA should:

Isolation signage must clearly indicate type and required PPE. Missing or incorrect signage is a system failure requiring immediate correction—verify with the nurse, restock signage and PPE, and document. Entering without proper PPE (a, c) exposes the CNA and other residents; asking the resident (d) is unreliable and breaches privacy norms. CDPH licensure standards require accurate visible signage at the entry.

1. The accepted adult normal range for blood pressure is approximately:

Normal adult resting BP is roughly systolic 90-120 and diastolic 60-80 mmHg, per AHA fundamentals. Below 90/60 may indicate hypotension and risk of falls or hypoperfusion; readings of 130/80 or above are stage 1 hypertension per the 2017 AHA/ACC guidelines, and a reading at or above 180/120 with symptoms is hypertensive crisis requiring urgent evaluation. CNAs measure accurately and report findings outside the resident's set parameters to the nurse promptly so timely intervention can occur.

2. Correct technique for manual blood pressure measurement includes:

AHA technique: 5-minute quiet rest, back supported, feet flat (not crossed), arm bare and supported at heart level, appropriate cuff size (bladder length 80% of arm circumference, width 40%), and no talking during measurement. Cuff placed over clothing (c), unsupported arm hanging at the side (b), and routine standing measurement (d) all introduce systematic error. Wrong technique can over- or under-estimate BP by 10-20 mmHg, leading to misdiagnosis, missed hypertension, or unnecessary treatment.

3. The most commonly used pulse site for routine adult vital signs is the:

The radial pulse is the standard for routine adult vital signs—accessible, comfortable, and reliable. Carotid (a) is used in emergencies for adults and may cause a vagal response when both sides are compressed; femoral (b) is used in code situations or vascular checks; pedal/dorsalis pedis (c) checks lower-extremity circulation. Count for 30 seconds and multiply by two if the rhythm is regular; count a full 60 seconds if the rhythm is irregular or when an apical-radial deficit check is needed.

4. Normal adult respiratory rate is:

Normal adult respirations are 12-20 breaths per minute at rest. Bradypnea (<12) may indicate opioid effect or neurologic compromise; tachypnea (>20) may indicate fever, pain, hypoxia, or respiratory distress. CNAs count without telling the resident (to avoid altered breathing pattern), watch one full minute (or 30 seconds if regular), and note depth and effort. Report abnormal findings to the nurse.

5. When counting respirations, the CNA should:

Awareness of being observed alters the natural respiratory pattern, causing the resident to breathe faster, slower, or deeper. Best practice: keep fingers on the radial pulse after counting pulse and continue to count respirations covertly, observing chest rise and noting depth, rhythm, and effort. Announcements (b), instructions to alter pattern (c), and breath-holding (d) all produce inaccurate readings. Accurate respiratory rate is a sensitive early indicator of deterioration in sepsis, pneumonia, and cardiac compromise.

6. Normal adult oral temperature range is approximately:

Normal oral temperature is approximately 97.0-99.0°F (36.1-37.2°C); axillary readings run about 1°F lower, while rectal readings run about 1°F higher. Fever per CDC and CMS guidance is a reading at or above 100.4°F (38.0°C), an important infection sign in elders, who may not show classic febrile presentations and may instead present with confusion or weakness. CNAs report any fever, hypothermia (below 95°F), and any acute temperature change immediately to the nurse for evaluation and possible workup.

7. Oral temperature is contraindicated for residents who:

Oral temperature is unsafe or inaccurate in unconscious, confused, seizure-prone, oxygen-mask, mouth-breathing, or post-oral-surgery residents. Alternative routes (axillary, temporal, tympanic) should be used. Recent hot/cold intake (b, c) merely requires waiting 15-30 minutes; brief activity (a) similarly resolves with rest. Choosing the wrong route can cause injury or significantly inaccurate readings.

8. For a cognitively intact resident, the most commonly used pain scale is:

For verbal cognitively intact adults, the 0-10 numeric scale or Wong-Baker FACES (useful for limited literacy or language barriers) is standard. PAINAD (a) is for advanced dementia; FLACC (c) is validated for infants/young children; Glasgow (d) measures consciousness, not pain. Pain assessment is the 'fifth vital sign'; CNAs report pain levels and reassess after analgesic intervention by the nurse.

9. When measuring intake and output (I&O), the CNA:

I&O monitoring uses graduated containers and milliliter measurement to track fluid balance—important in CHF, renal disease, dehydration, post-op care, and tube feedings. Includes oral fluids (water, juice, ice chips counted as half-volume), IVs, tube feeds, and outputs (urine, emesis, drainage, liquid stool). Estimates (b), partial recording (c), or combined totals (d) lose the data needed for nursing assessment and medical decisions.

10. The position with the head of the bed elevated 45-60 degrees is called:

Fowler's position (45-60° HOB elevation) supports breathing, eating, and aspiration prevention by reducing reflux and using gravity to keep the airway protected. Semi-Fowler's (30-45°) is common for tube feeding and during and after meals; high Fowler's (60-90°) maximizes lung expansion for residents with dyspnea. Supine (a) is flat on the back; prone (b) is flat on the stomach; Sims' (d) is semi-prone left lateral with knees flexed and is used for enemas. Position changes every two hours protect skin from pressure injury.

11. Pressure injury prevention for an immobile resident includes:

Per NPUAP/EPUAP guidelines, prevention requires turning at least every 2 hours, off-loading heels (pillow under calf, not under heel itself), keeping skin clean and dry, using pressure-redistribution mattresses, and maintaining nutrition/hydration. Prolonged single position (a) causes ischemia; massaging reddened areas (b) damages capillaries; doughnut cushions (c) concentrate pressure on a ring and worsen tissue damage.

12. When making an occupied bed, the CNA should:

Occupied bed making protects safety and dignity: raise bed to working height (ergonomics), keep one rail up to prevent falls, drape the resident with a bath blanket (privacy/warmth), turn the resident to the far side, roll/fan-fold soiled linen, place and tuck clean linen, then roll resident over the linen ridge to the clean side. Lowering both rails (b), forceful pulling (c), and climbing on bed (d) are unsafe.

13. When transferring a resident with right-sided weakness from bed to wheelchair, the CNA should position the wheelchair:

Position the wheelchair on the resident's strong side at about 45° to allow weight bearing through the stronger leg during the pivot. Lock wheels, raise footrests, and apply a gait belt for control. Wheelchair on the weak side (a) forces weight on the affected leg and risks fall; behind the bed (c) or across the room (d) is not reachable and increases shear/falls. Always use the strong limbs to lead and weight-bear.

14. Passive range-of-motion (PROM) exercises are performed when:

PROM is performed by the CNA when the resident cannot move the joint independently—common after CVA, contracture risk, or sedation. Move slowly through normal range, never force past pain, support above and below the joint to prevent injury. Active ROM (a) is done by the resident; resistive (b) is therapy-led; therapist presence (d) is not required for daily PROM, which is a CNA care-plan task once trained.

15. During a complete bed bath, the CNA washes the eyes:

Eye care during bathing: use water only (no soap), wipe from inner canthus (near nose) outward to avoid contaminating the nasolacrimal duct, and use a separate clean corner of the cloth for each eye to prevent cross-contamination. Outer to inner (c) risks pushing debris into the duct; same cloth (b) cross-contaminates; soap (a) irritates eyes. Eyes are always done first when the cloth is cleanest.

16. Perineal care for a female resident is performed:

Female perineal care uses front-to-back strokes (clitoris/urethra → vagina → anus), changing to a clean section/cloth for each stroke, to prevent fecal organisms (E. coli) from entering the urethra and causing UTI. Back-to-front (b) directly promotes UTI; circular motions (c) and reused cloths (d) similarly spread contamination. UTI is a leading source of hospitalization in elders—proper technique is preventive care.

17. Oral care for an unconscious resident requires:

Unconscious oral care: position side-lying or with head turned to allow drainage, use oral swabs lightly moistened (chlorhexidine per protocol), keep mouth open with a padded device, have suction ready, never pour liquids that could be aspirated. Supine brushing (c) and pouring fluids (a) cause aspiration pneumonia; skipping care (d) leads to dry mucosa, ulcers, and ventilator-associated pneumonia. Oral hygiene every 2-4 hours is standard.

18. Correct technique for cleaning dentures includes:

Dentures are fragile and expensive to replace. Line the sink with a towel or partially fill with water to cushion a possible drop; use a denture brush and denture cleaner (not abrasive toothpaste, which scratches the acrylic), rinse in cool or lukewarm water (hot water warps the plate), and store in a labeled container filled with water or cleaning solution when out of the mouth, because drying also causes warping. Hot water (a), dry brushing (b), and dry storage (d) damage dentures and risk loss.

19. Diabetic foot care for a resident with peripheral neuropathy includes:

Diabetic neuropathy hides injury; ulcers and amputation risk are high. Daily inspection (mirror or assist), lukewarm water (hot water burns), thorough drying between toes (prevents fungal infection), moisturize tops/soles but NOT between toes, properly fitted shoes and socks, no barefoot walking. CNAs in California do NOT cut diabetic or anticoagulated toenails—this is delegated to nurse/podiatrist. Hot soaks (a), curved cutting (b), and barefoot walking (c) cause injury.

20. When dressing a resident with right-sided hemiplegia, the CNA should:

Rule: 'Weak in, strong out.' Dress the affected side first—the limb has limited range and pulling sleeves over it is easier when the garment is loose; undress the affected side last for the same reason. Dressing strong side first (b) leaves no room for the weak side. Forcing independence (c) ignores capability; restricting to gowns (d) violates dignity. Always assist with the affected limb supported.

21. A resident with dysphagia and thickened-liquid orders should be fed with:

Aspiration precautions: upright at 90° (high Fowler's), chin tuck reduces aspiration risk, small bites and slow pace, follow ordered thickness (nectar/honey/pudding), avoid mixing textures, alternate solids/liquids if ordered, keep upright at least 30 minutes after meals. Lying flat with chin up (a) opens the airway; straws (c) can cause uncontrolled bolus; eating while walking (d) is unsafe. Aspiration pneumonia is a leading cause of death in dysphagia.

22. When collecting a clean-catch urine specimen from a female resident, the CNA should:

Clean-catch midstream technique: cleanse the meatus front-to-back to reduce skin/fecal contaminants, void initial stream into the toilet to flush the distal urethra, catch a 30-60 mL midstream sample in a sterile container, finish in the toilet, cap, label, and send promptly or refrigerate. No cleaning (a), first-stream collection (b), or non-sterile cup (d) produce contaminated specimens that lead to misdiagnosis and unnecessary antibiotic treatment.

23. Correct placement of a standard bedpan involves:

Bedpan technique: explain, provide privacy, raise HOB slightly (Fowler's-like), roll resident to side, position pan against buttocks, roll back onto it. Use a fracture pan (shallow front edge) for hip-fracture or limited-mobility residents to minimize lifting. Forceful sliding (a) shears skin; prolonged sitting (b) causes pressure injury; standard pan with hip injury (c) requires harmful repositioning. Clean immediately after use and provide hand hygiene.

24. After an incontinent episode, the CNA should:

Prompt incontinence-associated dermatitis (IAD) prevention: cleanse with pH-balanced perineal cleanser (not harsh soap that strips skin), pat dry (no friction), apply barrier cream/zinc ointment as ordered, change linens, reposition. Leaving in soiled brief (b) causes IAD, pressure injury, and is neglect. Harsh soap (c) damages skin barrier; baby powder (d) cakes in skin folds, harbors bacteria, and is inhalation hazard. Document time, amount, and characteristics.

25. Bladder retraining for a resident with urinary incontinence typically includes:

Continence programs use scheduled/prompted voiding (every 2-3 hours), adequate fluids (1500-2000 mL/day unless contraindicated), pelvic floor exercises (Kegels) if cognitively able, monitoring and positive reinforcement. Fluid restriction (a) concentrates urine and causes UTI and dehydration; routine catheterization (c) is prohibited unless medically necessary (CMS F-690) due to CAUTI risk; relying on briefs alone (d) abandons continence goals and violates 42 CFR §483.25(e).

26. When assisting an alert resident to eat, the CNA should:

Mealtime is care: sit at eye level (signals respect and unhurried presence), offer choices, small bites paced to the resident's swallowing rhythm, alternate textures, verbal cues ('here is your soup'), observe for coughing or pocketing. Standing over (a) is disrespectful and rushes; mixed food (b) is unappetizing and culturally inappropriate; distracted feeding (d) is unsafe and disrespectful. Document intake percentage and any difficulties.

27. Sims' position is:

Sims' position: left lateral semi-prone with the right (upper) knee and hip flexed forward, left arm behind the body, head turned. Used for enemas, rectal medications, perineal procedures, and to redistribute pressure. Supine (a), prone (b), and high-Fowler's sitting (c) serve other purposes. Reposition every 2 hours and check pressure points; do not maintain Sims' for prolonged periods due to shoulder and hip pressure.

28. When using a mechanical (Hoyer) lift to transfer a resident, the CNA should:

Mechanical lifts require two trained staff: assess weight limit, choose correct sling size, attach all loops to corresponding hooks, raise just enough to clear the surface, guide rather than push (resident swings), lock all wheels, communicate each step to resident. Operating alone (b) violates safe-patient-handling standards; ignoring weight limit (c) can drop the resident; speed (d) increases swing and injury. Sling type matches need (full-body, toileting, ambulating).

29. When ambulating a resident with a gait belt, the CNA should:

Safe ambulation: walk slightly behind and to the side, grasp the gait belt underhand at the back (better leverage and control), match the resident's pace, watch for fatigue. If a fall begins, ease the resident to the floor while protecting the head—holding them upright risks both the resident and CNA injuring spines. Walking ahead pulling (a) tugs off-balance; hand-holding alone (c) gives no control; pushing (d) is unsafe and undignified.

30. Normal adult resting heart rate range is:

Normal adult resting heart rate is 60-100 beats per minute. Bradycardia (below 60) may be normal in athletes or may signal heart block, beta-blocker effect, or vagal stimulation; tachycardia (above 100) may indicate fever, pain, anxiety, dehydration, hemorrhage, hyperthyroidism, or a primary cardiac issue. CNAs report rates outside the resident's individualized parameters and any abnormal rhythm (irregular, weak, thready) to the nurse promptly. Count for a full 60 seconds when the rhythm is irregular for accuracy.

31. A normal pulse oximetry (SpO2) reading on room air for most adults is:

Normal SpO2 on room air is 95-100% for most adults; 90-94% may indicate mild hypoxia and warrants closer monitoring; below 90% is significant hypoxia requiring immediate evaluation and possible supplemental oxygen. Some chronic COPD residents have a baseline of 88-92% and may have a physician-set lower target to avoid suppressing hypoxic drive. Report values outside the resident's individualized parameters to the nurse. Probe placement, motion, nail polish, cold extremities, and poor perfusion can falsely lower the reading.

32. Lateral (side-lying) position with pillows supporting head, back, top arm, and between knees is used to:

Lateral position with appropriate pillow support relieves sacral/heel pressure (alternative to supine in the q2h turning schedule), maintains spinal alignment, and prevents hip adduction (pillow between knees) and shoulder compression (top arm pillow). Bad positioning without supports increases trochanter pressure and shoulder strain. Distractors (b, c, d) describe harms that proper technique prevents. Always check skin at pressure points each turn.

33. The apical pulse is measured at:

Apical pulse is auscultated with a stethoscope at the 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line (left, over the apex of the heart). Counted for a full 60 seconds. Used for infants, irregular rhythms, before digoxin administration, and when peripheral pulses are weak. Wrist (a) is radial; popliteal (c) is behind the knee; temple (d) is temporal. CNAs check apical for accuracy when the radial is irregular or weak.

34. When weighing a resident on a standing scale, the CNA should:

Accurate weights require consistency: same time of day, same scale, similar clothing, after voiding, with the scale calibrated. Significant changes (≥3 lb in 24 h, ≥5 lb in 7 days, or any unexplained loss) suggest fluid shifts (CHF, dehydration) or nutritional concerns and must be reported. Hospice residents are still weighed per care plan unless comfort indicates otherwise. Distractors (a, b, d) introduce error or omit important monitoring.

35. The supine position is:

Supine: lying flat on the back. Risks include sacral and heel pressure injury, aspiration if HOB low, and back pain. Mitigations: small pillow under head, small support under knees (do NOT fully bend knees long-term—causes contractures), heel float to off-load heels, reposition every 2 hours. Prone (a) is face-down; high-Fowler's (b) is upright; Sims'/lateral (c) is side-lying. Position choice depends on medical condition and care plan.

36. When collecting a stool specimen, the CNA should:

Stool collection: use a clean dry bedpan or toilet specimen 'hat' to keep stool free of urine and toilet water (both can invalidate testing). Transfer a portion (about 1 tablespoon for routine; more for ova/parasites) using a tongue blade into the labeled container, cap, and send promptly per order. Wear gloves. Contamination (b, d) invalidates testing; bare hands (c) violate Standard Precautions. Document time, characteristics (color, consistency, blood).

37. Sputum specimen collection is best performed:

Sputum is best collected early morning before eating/drinking/brushing because overnight secretions are most concentrated. Rinse mouth with water (not antibacterial mouthwash, which can alter culture), have the resident take 3-4 deep breaths and then cough from deep in the lungs (saliva is not sputum). Send promptly. Other timings (a, c, d) reduce yield or introduce contamination. Document amount, color, consistency, and odor.

38. Tympanic temperature is taken by:

Tympanic technique: apply a clean disposable probe cover, gently pull the pinna up and back for adults (down and back for children under 3) to straighten the ear canal, insert the probe snugly aimed at the tympanic membrane, activate, and wait for the audible/visual signal. Forceful insertion (a) risks ear injury; no cover (b) is unhygienic; cheek (d) measures skin, not core. Cerumen and incorrect aim affect accuracy.

39. Active range-of-motion (AROM) exercises differ from passive ROM in that:

AROM: resident performs the movements independently, maintaining strength, flexibility, and joint health. PROM: CNA moves the joint when the resident cannot. AAROM (active-assistive) is a middle option. The benefits include prevention of contractures, maintenance of circulation, and preservation of function. Distractors (a, b, c) misdescribe the concept; AROM is everyday activity-based or scheduled, not requiring physicians or lifts.

40. Which observation during meal time should the CNA report to the nurse immediately?

Coughing, choking, wet/gurgly ('wet') voice after swallowing, pocketing food, drooling, and unexplained weight loss are red flags for dysphagia and aspiration risk—the resident needs swallow evaluation (SLP) and likely diet modification. Several days of refused meals signal a clinical change requiring nurse assessment. Normal eating behaviors (b, c, d) are not concerning. Aspiration pneumonia is a leading cause of death in elders with dysphagia; timely reporting saves lives.

1. A CNA is providing restorative nursing care to a resident recovering from a hip fracture. Under 42 CFR §483.24, what is the PRIMARY goal of restorative care?

42 CFR §483.24 (Quality of Life) and §483.25 (Quality of Care) require facilities to assist each resident to 'attain or maintain his or her highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being.' Restorative nursing focuses on preserving and regaining function, preventing decline, and promoting independence in ADLs. Doing tasks FOR the resident (c) fosters dependency and violates restorative principles. Hospital return (a) and preventing departure (d) are unrelated to restorative goals. Title 22 CCR §72315 obligates nursing services to support each resident's functional abilities.

2. A resident has right-sided hemiplegia following a CVA but can move the left side normally. The care plan calls for the resident to lift and move the right arm using the left hand. This type of exercise is called:

Active-assistive ROM (AAROM) occurs when the resident moves a weaker limb with help from the stronger limb (self-assist) or from the CNA. Passive ROM (a) means the CNA moves the joint while the resident does no work — used when the resident cannot move at all. Active ROM means the resident moves independently with no assistance. Resistive (b) adds external force against motion (rehab/PT). Isometric (d) is muscle tightening without joint movement. Per 42 CFR §483.25(c), facilities must prevent decline in ROM unless clinically unavoidable.

3. A CNA is preparing to perform a sit-to-stand transfer with a resident who has mild left leg weakness. Which action BEST promotes safety and resident independence?

Per Title 22 CCR §72315, transfers must protect both resident and staff. The correct technique: apply a gait belt at the waist, position feet flat and shoulder-width apart, have resident lean forward (nose-over-toes), and rise on a counted cue using their own leg strength. Lifting under the arms (b) can cause shoulder dislocation and removes the active component. Grabbing the CNA's neck (c) risks cervical injury to staff. Skipping the gait belt (d) violates safe-handling policies under 42 CFR §483.25(d) (accident prevention).

4. A resident uses a standard cane for ambulation due to mild right leg weakness. On which side should the cane be held, and which leg moves first?

The cane is held on the STRONG side, opposite the weak leg, to widen the base of support and shift weight away from the affected limb. Sequence: cane and weak leg advance together, then the strong leg steps past. Placing the cane on the weak side (a, c) reduces stability and increases fall risk. Sequence does matter (d) — incorrect order can cause loss of balance. 42 CFR §483.25(d) requires the facility to ensure residents receive adequate supervision and assistive devices to prevent accidents.

5. A resident using a standard walker begins to fall forward during ambulation. The CNA is walking slightly behind with a gait belt applied. What is the CNA's CORRECT response?

When a resident is falling, the CNA must NEVER try to stop the fall by lifting (causes back injury and may injure resident). The correct procedure is controlled lowering: widen your stance, bend knees, ease the resident down your leg using the gait belt, and protect the head. Yanking (a) can cause rotator-cuff or rib injury. Stepping away (b) breaches duty of care. Lifting solo (d) violates safe-patient-handling policy under 42 CFR §483.25(d) and Title 22 CCR §72315. After the fall, call for help, assess, and complete an incident report.

6. A resident with mild dementia repeatedly asks the CNA to button her blouse because 'it's faster when you do it.' The care plan lists 'encourage self-dressing with verbal cues.' What is the BEST response?

42 CFR §483.24(b) requires the facility to support each resident's ability to perform ADLs and to prevent decline. Doing tasks for the resident (a) accelerates functional loss. Walking away (b) is dismissive and may be psychological neglect. Documenting refusal (c) mischaracterizes the situation — the resident is asking for support, not refusing. The correct approach uses graded assistance: verbal cueing, hand-over-hand if needed, breaking the task into small steps. This honors the care plan and the resident's dignity per Title 22 CCR §72315.

7. A resident is on a bladder-retraining program. Which CNA action BEST supports the program?

42 CFR §483.25(e) addresses urinary incontinence and requires facilities to assist residents to maintain or restore continence. Scheduled (prompted) toileting plus positive reinforcement is the evidence-based approach. Immediate briefing (a) defeats the program. Fluid restriction (c) causes dehydration, UTIs, and concentrated urine that worsens incontinence — and is not a CNA decision. Catheterization (d) is a medical order, increases infection risk (CAUTI), and is a last resort under federal regulation. Title 22 CCR §72315 obligates nursing care to support function.

8. A resident with rheumatoid arthritis has difficulty gripping a standard fork. Which adaptive intervention BEST promotes independent eating?

Adaptive utensils (built-up handles, rocker knives), plate guards, and non-slip mats allow residents with limited grip or coordination to feed themselves — preserving independence and dignity. Feeding entirely (a) creates dependency. Diet changes (b) are physician/dietitian decisions; CNAs cannot alter diet orders. Withholding food (d) is neglect under 42 CFR §483.12 (abuse/neglect prohibition). 42 CFR §483.25 requires support of nutritional status and functional ability; Title 22 CCR §72315 requires the nursing service to meet daily living needs.

9. A bedbound resident has not had ROM exercises for several days. The CNA notices the resident's fingers are curling tightly toward the palm and cannot be opened easily. This finding is MOST consistent with:

A contracture is permanent shortening of muscles, tendons, or joint capsules due to immobility, leading to a fixed deformity. It is a preventable complication; once established, it severely limits function and hygiene. 42 CFR §483.25(c) states a resident with limited ROM must receive appropriate treatment and services to increase ROM or prevent further decrease. Aging alone does not cause contractures (b). It is not strength (c) and does not reverse on its own (d). The CNA must report and document immediately so the nurse can adjust the care plan.

10. To prevent foot drop in a bedbound resident, the CNA should:

Foot drop (plantar flexion contracture) develops when the foot remains pointed downward. Prevention: keep ankles in dorsiflexion (90 degrees) using a foot board, high-tops, or prescribed splints, with frequent ROM. Feet hanging off the bed (a) causes plantar flexion. Pillows under the knees (c) cause hip and knee flexion contractures and impair circulation. Tight top sheets (d) push toes into plantar flexion — instead, use a bed cradle or loose sheet. 42 CFR §483.25(b)/(c) require prevention of avoidable decline.

11. A CNA observes a small area of intact skin on a resident's sacrum that is red and does not blanch (turn white) when pressed. This finding is classified as:

NPIAP staging: Stage 1 = intact skin with non-blanchable erythema (redness that does not turn white when pressed). Stage 2 = partial-thickness loss with exposed dermis. Stage 3 = full-thickness loss with visible subcutaneous fat. Stage 4 = full-thickness loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. Unstageable (c) = depth obscured by slough/eschar. DTI (d) = persistent non-blanchable deep red, maroon, or purple discoloration suggesting deeper damage under intact or non-intact skin. CNAs must report any new redness immediately per 42 CFR §483.25(b) and Title 22 CCR §72523 (incident reporting).

12. Standard repositioning frequency for a bedbound resident at risk for pressure injury is:

The federal and CA standard of care is repositioning at least every 2 hours for bedbound residents, with more frequent turning for higher-risk individuals (cachexia, vasopressors, prior pressure injury). Specialty surfaces do not eliminate the need to turn. Less frequent turning (a, b) allows ischemia and tissue death. Waiting for requests (d) fails residents who cannot communicate and constitutes neglect under 42 CFR §483.12. The CNA documents turning times and any skin findings. Title 22 CCR §72315 requires the nursing care plan to be followed.

13. When positioning a bedbound resident, which technique BEST protects the heels from pressure injury?

Heels have minimal subcutaneous tissue and high pressure injury risk. The standard of care is to FLOAT the heels by placing a pillow lengthwise under the lower legs from below the knee to above the ankle, with heels completely off the surface. A pillow under the Achilles (a) still allows heel contact. Tight stockings (c) may impair circulation and require a physician order. Vigorous massage (d) is contraindicated — it can shear fragile capillaries and worsen tissue damage. 42 CFR §483.25(b) requires prevention of pressure ulcers when avoidable.

14. A resident recovering from a left CVA has right-sided hemiplegia and mild dysphagia. Which CNA action is MOST appropriate at mealtime?

Dysphagia care requires upright positioning (90 degrees), small bites, food placed on the UNAFFECTED side (the resident has sensation and motor control there), chin-tuck if ordered, and observation for coughing, pocketing, or wet voice. Feeding lying flat (a) causes aspiration. Mixing foods (b) is unappetizing and does not improve swallow safety. Placing food on the affected side (c) causes pocketing and aspiration. 42 CFR §483.25 and Title 22 CCR §72315 require staff to follow the care plan and prevent avoidable harm such as aspiration pneumonia.

15. A resident with expressive aphasia after a stroke struggles to find words. The BEST CNA approach is to:

Expressive (Broca's) aphasia means the resident understands but has difficulty producing speech. Best practice: allow processing time, use simple closed-ended questions, offer picture/letter boards, and let the resident finish their own thoughts. Speaking loudly (b) confuses the issue with hearing loss. Avoiding speech (c) violates the resident's right to communication and dignity under 42 CFR §483.10. Forcing writing (d) ignores that writing is often also impaired. Title 22 CCR §72527 protects communication rights.

16. A resident with Parkinson's disease has shuffling gait, a forward stoop, and freezing episodes. Which intervention BEST reduces fall risk?

Parkinson's gait freezing responds to visual or auditory cues — tape lines on the floor, counting aloud, or a marching cadence helps re-initiate movement. Rushing (a) increases falls. Carrying (c) eliminates therapeutic movement and is unsafe. Restricting ambulation between doses (d) is not the CNA's call and ignores fluctuating 'on-off' periods. The CNA should also clear paths, use a gait belt, and report any new freezing or worsening tremor to the nurse per 42 CFR §483.25(d) and Title 22 CCR §72315.

17. A resident with moderate Alzheimer's dementia insists she must 'go pick up the children from school' although her children are grown. Which response BEST uses validation therapy?

Validation therapy (Naomi Feil) honors the emotional reality behind the words rather than correcting facts. The CNA acknowledges the underlying feeling (love for her children) and offers reminiscence and gentle redirection. Direct contradiction (a) increases agitation. Reality orientation (b) is appropriate only in early dementia or delirium; in moderate-to-severe dementia it causes distress. Ignoring (d) is dismissive and may be psychological neglect under 42 CFR §483.12. 42 CFR §483.40 requires behavioral health services that meet each resident's needs.

18. A resident with dementia becomes agitated, paces the hallway, and cries every afternoon around 4 p.m. This pattern is BEST described as:

Sundowning is increased confusion, agitation, restlessness, or anxiety occurring in the late afternoon or evening in residents with dementia. Contributing factors: fatigue, lighting changes, hunger, unmet toileting needs. CNA interventions: maintain routine, increase daytime light, reduce noise, offer a snack, and engage in calming activities. Delirium (a) is an acute, fluctuating confusion usually from infection or medication and requires nurse evaluation. A 'stage 4 plateau' (c) is not a clinical term. Normal fatigue (d) does not explain consistent agitation. 42 CFR §483.40 requires individualized behavioral interventions.

19. Which activity is MOST appropriate to offer a resident with moderate dementia who enjoyed gardening throughout her life?

Therapeutic activities for residents with dementia should match retained abilities, draw on lifelong interests, and offer sensory engagement and success. Hands-on planting honors her identity and provides tactile, olfactory, and visual stimulation. A long lecture (b) exceeds attention span and causes frustration. Isolated movie watching (c) increases agitation and provides no engagement. A 1000-piece puzzle (d) is far beyond cognitive capacity and causes failure. 42 CFR §483.24 requires activities that maintain psychosocial well-being; 42 CFR §483.10 protects the right to make choices about activities.

20. A new resident eats every meal alone in her room and tells the CNA, 'No one here knows me.' The MOST appropriate restorative-psychosocial response is to:

Loneliness and isolation accelerate cognitive and functional decline. 42 CFR §483.24(c) requires the facility to support psychosocial well-being and meaningful activities. The CNA's role: report the statement to the nurse for care-plan revision, learn about the resident's culture, language, faith, and hobbies, and offer graduated socialization. Documenting without action (a) is neglectful. Forcing attendance (b) violates the right to choose under 42 CFR §483.10. Transfer (d) is not a CNA decision and does not address the underlying need. Title 22 CCR §72381 covers activity programs.

1. Which cognitive change is considered a NORMAL part of aging rather than a sign of dementia?

Normal age-related cognitive change includes slower processing speed, occasional 'tip-of-the-tongue' word retrieval, and minor short-term forgetfulness — without loss of judgment, ADL independence, or recognition of loved ones. Failure to recognize family (a), getting lost on familiar routes (c), and decline in self-care (d) are red flags for dementia and must be reported. The CNA should never assume cognitive symptoms are 'just aging.' Per 42 CFR §483.40 the facility must assess and address behavioral and cognitive changes; Title 22 CCR §72315 requires ongoing nursing assessment of resident status.

2. A previously cheerful resident now sleeps most of the day, eats only a few bites at meals, has lost five pounds in two weeks, and tells the CNA, 'What's the point of getting out of bed?' The CNA should:

Depression in older adults is common, often missed, and dangerous — it raises suicide risk and accelerates physical decline. Warning signs: anhedonia, sleep/appetite change, weight loss, hopeless statements. The CNA must report observations and verbatim resident statements to the nurse without delay so the resident can be assessed by the IDT and physician for depression and suicide risk. Waiting (a) risks deterioration or suicide. 'Cheer up' messages (b) shame the resident and worsen depression. Unilateral room changes (c) exceed CNA scope. 42 CFR §483.40 mandates behavioral health services.

3. Which behavior in an elderly LTC resident should the CNA report as a POTENTIAL warning sign of suicide risk?

Suicide warning signs in older adults include giving away possessions, saying goodbye, hopeless statements, sudden calmness after depression, hoarding medications, and refusing care or medications. Older adults — especially older white men — have the highest suicide completion rate in the U.S. Any warning sign MUST be reported immediately to the nurse who will arrange physician assessment and safety measures. Routine requests (b, c) and exercising the right to choose activities (d) per 42 CFR §483.10 are not warning signs. 42 CFR §483.40 requires behavioral health support.

4. A resident with dementia repeatedly wanders out of her room and into other residents' rooms. The MOST appropriate first response is to:

Wandering is common in dementia and is best managed with redirection, supervised walking, scheduled activity, environmental cues (clear signage, safe walking paths), and care-plan review. Restraints (a, d) without medical necessity and informed consent constitute false imprisonment and abuse under 42 CFR §483.12 and 42 CFR §483.10(e) (right to be free from restraints). Locking residents in (c) is also unlawful restraint. The CNA reports patterns so the IDT can identify triggers (boredom, pain, toileting needs) and adjust the plan.

5. A resident becomes verbally aggressive and raises a fist toward the CNA during a bath. The BEST de-escalation response is to:

De-escalation: stop the trigger task, give the resident space, lower voice and posture, validate feelings, and remove yourself if unsafe to summon help. Physical restraint without a physician order and informed consent (a) violates 42 CFR §483.12 (right to be free from abuse and unnecessary restraint). Arguing (b) escalates. Striking the resident (d) is battery (PC §242) and abuse — grounds for immediate termination, criminal prosecution, and CDPH license revocation. Title 22 CCR §72319 requires policies on resident behavior management without abuse.

6. Under federal regulations, physical restraints in a nursing facility may be used only when:

42 CFR §483.10(e) and §483.12(a)(2) prohibit physical or chemical restraints imposed for discipline or staff convenience. Restraints are permitted only to treat a documented medical symptom, with a physician's written order specifying type, location, and duration, after less restrictive interventions have failed, and with informed consent. Convenience (a), wandering frequency (c), and family preference (d) are not legal justifications. Unauthorized restraint is false imprisonment and abuse, reportable to CDPH and law enforcement, and can result in license revocation.

7. A widowed resident with no nearby family says, 'No one ever comes to see me.' Which CNA action BEST addresses her psychosocial well-being?

Loneliness is a serious health risk in LTC, linked to depression, dementia progression, and increased mortality. 42 CFR §483.24(c) requires support of psychosocial well-being. The CNA provides presence and reports to social services who can arrange volunteer visitor programs, intergenerational visits, video calls with family, faith community visits, and pet therapy. Minimizing (b) and changing the subject (c) dismiss the resident's emotional reality. Documenting without action (d) is passive neglect. The CNA's compassionate listening is itself a meaningful intervention.

8. A resident's adult daughter visits and becomes loudly critical of the CNA's care in front of the resident. The CNA's BEST response is to:

Difficult family dynamics are common and rarely about the CNA personally. The CNA should remain professional, use active listening, acknowledge feelings, and invite a private conversation that includes the nurse or social worker. Arguing (a) escalates and risks complaints. Ordering family out (b) exceeds CNA authority and may violate visitation rights under 42 CFR §483.10(f)(4). Withdrawing care (d) is abandonment. The charge nurse documents the interaction and coordinates with social services per Title 22 CCR §72527 (resident rights).

9. A 78-year-old resident has begun drinking large amounts of mouthwash. Empty bottles are found in his bedside drawer. The CNA should:

Substance use disorder in older adults is under-recognized and dangerous (falls, GI bleed, drug interactions). Ingesting alcohol-containing mouthwash is a red flag. The CNA must report observations to the nurse so the physician can assess and the IDT can revise the plan (alcohol-free mouthwash, screening, possibly addiction medicine consult). Ignoring (a) abandons clinical duty. Confronting (c) is shaming and outside CNA scope. Hiding without reporting (d) defeats care planning and may itself be a form of self-neglect facilitation. Under W&I §15610.07 self-neglect is a form of reportable elder abuse.

10. Under California Welfare & Institutions Code §15610.07, which of the following is NOT a recognized form of elder abuse?

W&I §15610.07 defines elder/dependent adult abuse to include physical abuse (§15610.63), sexual abuse, neglect (§15610.57), financial abuse (§15610.30), abandonment, abduction, isolation, and the deprivation of goods or services necessary to avoid physical harm or mental suffering. Self-neglect is included. A resident's voluntary refusal of an offered dessert (d) is the exercise of the right to refuse — not abuse. CNAs are mandated reporters under W&I §15630 and must report suspected abuse, including by other staff, family, or visitors.

11. A CNA notices unexplained bruises in the shape of fingerprints on a resident's upper arm. The resident whispers, 'The night CNA grabbed me hard.' The CNA's FIRST action is to:

Under W&I §15630, a CNA in a long-term care facility is a mandated reporter of suspected elder/dependent adult abuse. The reporting flow: report immediately to the charge nurse and administrator AND personally ensure a report is made by phone to the local LTC Ombudsman or law enforcement (immediately for physical abuse) and a written report (SOC 341) within 2 working days. Confronting the suspected abuser (a) risks evidence destruction and retaliation. Waiting (c) or gossiping (d) violates mandated reporter duty and may expose the CNA to criminal penalty under §15630(h).

12. Under W&I §15630, a mandated reporter who suspects physical abuse of a long-term care resident must make a TELEPHONE report:

W&I §15630(b)(1)(A) requires immediate telephone (or via confidential internet report) notification, or as soon as practicably possible, to the local ombudsman, law enforcement, or APS depending on setting (in an LTC facility, ombudsman/law enforcement for physical abuse and serious bodily injury). A written report (form SOC 341) must follow within 2 working days. The resident's consent is NOT required. Delaying for family (c) or resident permission (d) violates the statute. Failure to report is a misdemeanor with fines up to $5,000 and possible jail time under W&I §15630(h).

13. A resident asks the CNA to read aloud from the Bible at bedtime. The CNA practices a different faith. The MOST appropriate response is to:

42 CFR §483.10(f)(11) protects each resident's right to religious and spiritual practice. The CNA may read the passage or, if uncomfortable, arrange another staff member, volunteer, or chaplain. Refusing without alternatives (a, d) is denial of spiritual care. Proselytizing (b) violates the resident's rights and may be psychosocial abuse. Spiritual care reduces anxiety and improves coping in LTC. The CNA respects each resident's faith, dietary practices, and rituals without judgment, consistent with 42 CFR §483.40 (behavioral and psychosocial care).

14. A Vietnamese-speaking resident becomes anxious because the staff do not speak her language. The MOST culturally responsive CNA action is to:

Title VI (42 USC §2000d) prohibits discrimination based on national origin in any program receiving federal funds, including Medicare/Medicaid facilities. Facilities must provide meaningful language access (qualified interpreters, translated materials). 42 CFR §483.10(b)(3) requires care plan information in a language the resident understands. Speaking louder (a) is ineffective and demeaning. Relying solely on family (c) breaches privacy and may be unreliable. Skipping communication (d) is neglect and violates dignity. Culturally responsive care includes greetings in the resident's language, foods, and customs.

15. An LGBTQ+ elder resident shares with the CNA that she was discriminated against in a prior facility and is afraid to be 'out' here. The BEST CNA action is to:

California's LGBTQ Long-Term Care Facility Resident's Bill of Rights (HSC §1439.50 et seq.) prohibits discrimination, mistreatment, or denial of services based on actual or perceived sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, or HIV status in LTC. The CNA affirms identity, uses chosen name and pronouns, protects privacy, and reports concerns. Silencing the resident (a) is itself harm. Casual disclosure (b) violates privacy. Refusing care (d) is discrimination and abandonment. Facilities must ensure equal access; violations may trigger CDPH enforcement and civil liability.

16. A transgender female resident asks to be addressed as 'Ms.' and 'she/her.' Her chart shows her legal first name as 'Robert.' The CNA should:

Under HSC §1439.50 (Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, Transgender Long-Term Care Facility Resident's Bill of Rights), willful and repeated failure to use a resident's preferred name or pronouns can constitute prohibited mistreatment. Facilities must address residents by chosen name and pronoun and provide bathing, clothing, and rooming accommodations consistent with gender identity. The CNA documents preferences and reports any staff or roommate harassment. Using the legal name only (a, d) or polling others (c) violates dignity, identity, and CA law. Compliance is also a 42 CFR §483.10 dignity obligation.

17. An elderly resident with new-onset confusion, fever, and incontinence over 24 hours is MOST likely experiencing:

Delirium is an acute, fluctuating disturbance in attention and cognition, often caused by infection (UTI, pneumonia), medication, dehydration, or pain. In elders, a UTI commonly presents with new confusion plus fever and incontinence. Delirium is a medical emergency — the CNA must report immediately. Dementia progresses slowly over months/years, not 24 hours (b). Sundowning (c) recurs late afternoon and does not include fever. It is never a 'choice' (d). 42 CFR §483.40 requires prompt response to behavioral and cognitive change.

18. A resident's nephew, who manages her finances, has been withdrawing large amounts from her account and selling her jewelry without her consent. This is BEST described as:

W&I §15610.30 defines financial abuse as taking, secreting, appropriating, obtaining, or retaining real or personal property of an elder or dependent adult for a wrongful use, with intent to defraud, or by undue influence. Even a person with power of attorney commits abuse if the use is unauthorized or against the resident's interests. CNAs are mandated reporters (W&I §15630) and must report suspected financial abuse to APS or the LTC ombudsman. It is not a 'private matter' (a). POA does not authorize theft (b). The resident need not file written objection (d).

19. A CNA, who is also a parent volunteer at an after-school program, observes a child with multiple unexplained burns. Under California law, the CNA is:

Under PC §11165.7, health practitioners (including CNAs) are mandated reporters of suspected child abuse or neglect, in addition to their elder abuse duties under W&I §15630. PC §11166 requires an immediate telephone report to a child protective agency (police, sheriff, or CPS) as soon as practicably possible, followed by a written report within 36 hours. Waiting for family (c) or only telling the principal (d) does not satisfy the statute. The duty applies whenever the mandated reporter, in their professional capacity OR within the scope of employment, learns of or observes suspected abuse.

20. The Long-Term Care Ombudsman program's primary role is to:

Established under the federal Older Americans Act (42 USC §3058g) and codified in California's HSC §9700 et seq., the LTC Ombudsman investigates complaints from or on behalf of LTC residents, advocates for resident rights and quality of care, and is authorized to receive abuse reports under W&I §15630. Ombudsmen do not provide medical care (b), license CNAs (c — that is CDPH), or manage facility operations (d). The CNA must know how to contact the local Ombudsman and post their contact information conspicuously.

1. The KEY difference between hospice care and palliative care is that:

Medicare hospice (42 CFR §418) requires physician certification of terminal prognosis of 6 months or less if the disease runs its normal course, and the patient elects to forgo curative treatment in favor of comfort. Palliative care addresses symptoms (pain, nausea, dyspnea) at any stage of serious illness and can be combined with curative therapy. Both include spiritual care. The CNA on a hospice case follows the plan of care from the hospice interdisciplinary team and focuses on comfort, dignity, and family support.

2. A dying resident shows irregular breathing alternating with periods of apnea (no breathing) lasting up to 30 seconds, followed by rapid breaths. This pattern is called:

Cheyne-Stokes is a cyclic pattern of crescendo-decrescendo respirations alternating with apnea, common in the active dying phase. It is NOT an emergency in the dying patient and CPR is not appropriate if the resident has a DNR. Kussmaul (a) is deep rapid breathing in metabolic acidosis. Eupnea (b) is normal breathing. Apneustic (d) involves prolonged inspiration and is a brainstem sign — also not CPR-indicated in dying. The CNA reports changes to the nurse, positions for comfort, provides mouth care, and supports the family per 42 CFR §483.25(k) (end-of-life care).

3. Which observation is a sign of the active dying phase?

Active dying signs include mottling (livedo reticularis from poor perfusion) starting in feet and progressing upward, cool/cyanotic extremities, decreased urine output, decreased LOC, Cheyne-Stokes respirations, 'death rattle' (oral secretions), and sometimes terminal restlessness. These are expected and the CNA's role is comfort care: repositioning gently, mouth care for dryness, clean linens, calm environment, and family presence. Improving signs (b, c, d) are not features of active dying. 42 CFR §483.25(k) addresses end-of-life care.

4. A non-verbal dying resident grimaces, moans, and pulls away when turned. The CNA should:

Pain in non-verbal residents is assessed by behavior: grimacing, moaning, guarding, restlessness, tachycardia, withdrawal. Validated tools include PAINAD (Pain Assessment in Advanced Dementia). The CNA must report observations promptly so the nurse can administer PRN comfort medications under 42 CFR §483.45 (pharmacy services). Assuming no pain (a) is harmful and a quality-of-care failure under 42 CFR §483.25. Stopping necessary care (b) like repositioning leads to pressure injuries. Telling the resident to relax (c) is dismissive of suffering.

5. A POLST form indicates 'Do Not Attempt Resuscitation / DNR' and 'Comfort-Focused Treatment.' During the CNA's morning rounds the resident is found pulseless and apneic. The CNA should:

POLST (CA Probate §4780 et seq.) is a physician/NP/PA-signed medical order that travels with the resident and is honored in all settings. DNR means no CPR. The CNA verifies the order, notifies the nurse, provides dignity (close eyes, smooth linens), and assists with post-mortem care after the nurse pronounces or contacts the physician. Initiating CPR against a valid DNR (a, c) violates resident rights under 42 CFR §483.10 and may constitute battery. Waiting passively without notifying the nurse (d) breaches duty. Facilities must follow valid advance directives.

6. A 'living will' (Advance Health Care Directive) differs from a POLST in that the living will:

Under CA Probate §4670 et seq., an Advance Health Care Directive (often called a living will) lets a competent adult state future care wishes and appoint a Durable Power of Attorney for Health Care (DPOA-HC). It applies when the resident loses decisional capacity. A POLST (Probate §4780) is a SIGNED MEDICAL ORDER reflecting current wishes for present care and is immediately actionable by any provider. The CNA must know if a resident has either, where to find them, and to follow them per 42 CFR §483.10(c)(6) (right to formulate advance directives).

7. Bereavement support is part of which type of care?

Medicare hospice regulations (42 CFR §418.64) require hospice programs to provide bereavement services to the family/caregivers for at least 13 months following the patient's death. Bereavement services include counseling, support groups, and check-in calls. The CNA contributes by treating families with compassion before, during, and after death, sharing memories, and referring to the hospice social worker or chaplain. Acute hospitals, cosmetic clinics, and PT (a, c, d) do not typically provide structured long-term bereavement programs.

8. A devout Catholic resident is actively dying. The family asks that a priest perform the Anointing of the Sick (Last Rites). The CNA should:

42 CFR §483.10(f)(11) protects the right to religious practice. The Anointing of the Sick (formerly Extreme Unction) is a sacrament administered by a Catholic priest, ideally while the resident is still conscious. The CNA's role: notify the nurse, contact the chaplain or family's priest urgently, ensure privacy and a calm environment, and prepare a small table with a white cloth, candle, and crucifix per Catholic tradition. The CNA does not perform the rite (d). Denying the rite (a) or delaying (b) violates rights and causes spiritual distress.

9. A Buddhist resident's family requests that the body remain undisturbed for 8 hours after death so the consciousness can transition peacefully. The MOST appropriate CNA/facility response is to:

Many Buddhist traditions teach that the consciousness departs over hours and the body should not be disturbed during that time. The CNA respects the practice, notifies the nurse and administrator, coordinates with the family and mortuary, and accommodates where feasible (private room, do-not-disturb sign, delayed post-mortem care). Refusing outright (a, c) or rushing the body (b) violates religious/cultural rights under 42 CFR §483.10 and may cause profound family distress. The facility balances accommodation with reasonable public health requirements under 42 CFR §483.70.

10. Which cultural-religious end-of-life practice is correctly matched?

Orthodox Jewish practice: the chevra kadisha (sacred burial society) performs tahara (ritual washing and shrouding); embalming is generally avoided; burial occurs as soon as possible, ideally within 24 hours. Muslim practice (b) is the opposite of cremation — ghusl (ritual washing) is performed and burial (not cremation) occurs as soon as possible, ideally within 24 hours. Catholic anointing (c) is performed by a priest, not family. Hindu practice (d) is typically cremation, not burial at sea. The CNA asks the family about specific practices rather than assuming.

11. Standard post-mortem care positioning is to:

Standard post-mortem care: supine, good body alignment, head slightly elevated on a pillow (to prevent facial discoloration from blood pooling), eyelids gently closed, dentures replaced before rigor mortis (begins ~2-4 hours after death), clean linens, and dignity maintained. Identify body per facility policy (usually two ID tags: wrist/ankle and outside of shroud or bag). Honor cultural practices first. Side-lying (a), prone (c), and fetal (d) are not standard and may impair dignity and identification. 42 CFR §483.10 protects dignity in all care, including post-mortem.

12. When handling the deceased resident's personal valuables after death, the CNA should:

Title 22 CCR §72527 and 42 CFR §483.10(g) protect residents' property rights. Standard procedure: two staff members witness and inventory all personal items at death (or at admission), document on the personal property/valuables form, secure items, and release ONLY to the legally authorized representative (executor, next of kin per will or law) with a signed receipt. Taking items home (a), discarding (b), or redistributing (d) constitute theft, financial abuse under W&I §15610.30, and grounds for termination, criminal prosecution, and license revocation.

13. According to Kübler-Ross, which of the following are the five stages of grief?

Elisabeth Kübler-Ross's five stages of grief are: Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance (DABDA). They are not linear — people may revisit stages, skip some, or experience them simultaneously. The CNA recognizes these as normal responses, listens nonjudgmentally, and reports prolonged or dangerous responses (suicidal statements, complete withdrawal) to the nurse. Each stage is honored as a coping mechanism, not pathology. 42 CFR §483.40 requires psychosocial support to meet each resident's behavioral health needs, including grief.

14. A grieving spouse sits silently beside the dying resident, occasionally crying. The MOST therapeutic CNA action is to:

Therapeutic presence — quiet companionship, simple offers (tissues, water, a chair), and respectful silence — is more comforting than words. Touch (a hand on the shoulder) helps IF welcomed; ask first if uncertain about cultural norms. Avoid clichés ('they're in a better place', 'it's for the best') which dismiss grief. Forcing the spouse out (b) violates the right to be present. Medical lectures (c) increase distress. Avoidance (d) is emotional abandonment. 42 CFR §483.10 protects dignity for both residents and families.

15. A resident asks a CNA, 'Will you hold my hand for a few minutes? I'm scared.' Therapeutic touch in this context is:

Holding a hand at the resident's invitation is a humane, therapeutic gesture and within CNA scope when professional, non-sexual, and consensual. The CNA should always confirm consent ('Would you like me to hold your hand?'), respect cultural norms about touch (some cultures restrict opposite-sex touch outside care tasks), and document significant interactions. Touch that is sexualized, prolonged inappropriately, or unwanted is misconduct and may constitute abuse. Family presence (c) and physician orders (d) are not required for ordinary comforting touch under 42 CFR §483.10 (dignity).

16. A Mexican-American family wants to bring a candle, a small altar with the Virgen de Guadalupe, and family photos into the dying resident's room. The CNA should:

Honoring cultural and religious rituals at end-of-life is protected under 42 CFR §483.10(f)(11). Many Mexican-American/Latinx families create a small altar (altar/ofrenda) with the Virgen de Guadalupe, photos, and candles. Most facilities prohibit open flames for fire safety, so the CNA offers a flameless LED candle — accommodating the tradition while preserving safety. Outright refusal (a, d) violates rights. Ignoring fire safety (b) endangers all residents and may violate Title 22 fire codes. Coordinate through the nurse and chaplain to integrate the ritual with the plan of care.

1. Which of the following is OUTSIDE a California CNA's scope of practice?

Under HSC §1337-1338 and Title 22 CCR §71835, a California CNA performs basic nursing services under the supervision of a licensed nurse: ADLs, vital signs, intake/output, ambulation, observation, and reporting. CNAs DO NOT administer injectable or oral medications (a Certified Medication Aide/CMA is a separate credential), do not perform sterile procedures, do not insert/remove catheters except as specifically delegated, do not perform initial admission nursing assessments, and do not give telephone/verbal orders. Working outside scope is grounds for CDPH discipline, civil liability, and possibly criminal practice without a license.

2. A nurse asks a CNA to start an IV on a new admission because the unit is short-staffed. The CNA should:

IV insertion is the practice of nursing (BPC §2725) and is outside California CNA scope under Title 22 CCR §71835. A CNA must refuse any task beyond scope, even if directed by a nurse — performing it could harm the resident and is grounds for CDPH certification revocation under HSC §1337.9 and possibly criminal charges for unlicensed practice. The CNA should refuse politely, document, and notify the charge nurse or supervisor. 'Helping' (a) by acting outside scope is unsafe. Delegating to another CNA (d) just shifts the violation.

3. Why is the documentation principle 'not documented = not done' important?

Under 42 CFR §483.70(i) and Title 22 CCR §72543, facilities must maintain complete, accurate, accessible records on each resident. The medical record is a legal document. If care is not documented (or is documented late, falsely, or vaguely), it cannot be defended in court, audits, or surveys — and the facility/CNA may face citations, civil liability, and disciplinary action. CNAs must chart promptly, factually, in the resident's own words when quoted, and never document a task before performing it. Late entries are made as 'late entry' with current date/time.

4. Under HIPAA's 'minimum necessary' standard (45 CFR §164.502(b)), a CNA should access protected health information (PHI):

HIPAA's minimum necessary standard (45 CFR §164.502(b)) requires covered entities to limit uses, disclosures, and requests for PHI to the minimum necessary to accomplish the intended purpose. A CNA accesses only the records of assigned residents and only the information needed to provide care. Browsing charts for non-assigned residents (b), looking up coworkers (c), or sharing with unauthorized friends/family (d) is a HIPAA violation, grounds for termination, and may carry civil penalties up to $50,000 per violation (max ~$1.5M/yr) and criminal penalties up to $250,000 and 10 years for malicious disclosure under 42 USC §1320d-6.

5. Under HIPAA 45 CFR §164.512, a CNA may disclose PHI WITHOUT the resident's written authorization in which situation?

45 CFR §164.512 permits disclosure of PHI without individual authorization for specified public-interest purposes, including reports required by law (such as elder abuse reports under W&I §15630 and child abuse reports under PC §11166), public health activities, judicial proceedings, and law enforcement subject to limits. Social media posts (a) — even 'de-identified' — typically still constitute PHI disclosure and are HIPAA violations. Neighbor gossip (b) and journalist disclosures (d) are violations. Mandated reporting is both permitted under HIPAA and required under California law; the reporter's identity is also confidential.

6. A resident asks the CNA for a copy of her own medical record. The correct CNA response is:

Under HIPAA 45 CFR §164.524, individuals have the right to inspect and obtain a copy of their PHI maintained in a designated record set; covered entities generally must respond within 30 days (with one 30-day extension). The CNA must not deny the right (a) or hand out records on their own (c) — release is handled by medical records following identity verification, applicable fees (cost-based, reasonable; not arbitrary cash demands as in d), and any state-specific requirements. CNAs facilitate by acknowledging the request, telling the nurse, and explaining the process to the resident.

7. A CNA posts a TikTok video taken in the nursing facility hallway. Two residents appear in the background, identifiable by face. This is:

Any image or video that allows identification of a patient in a healthcare setting is PHI under HIPAA (45 CFR §160.103); posting without explicit written authorization violates 45 CFR §164.502. Civil penalties (42 USC §1320d-5) tier from $100 to over $50,000 per violation up to ~$1.9M per year per identical violation. Criminal penalties (42 USC §1320d-6) can reach $250,000 and 10 years imprisonment for wrongful disclosure with malicious intent. The CNA must delete, self-report, and cooperate with the privacy officer. Background appearance, post-hoc blurring, or manager approval do not cure the violation.

8. Informed consent for a non-emergency treatment generally requires:

Informed consent under CA law (Probate §4670 et seq.; common-law Cobbs v. Grant) requires the provider to disclose the nature of the proposed treatment, material risks, benefits, and alternatives; the patient (or surrogate if patient lacks capacity) must have decisional capacity, understand the information, and agree voluntarily without coercion. The CNA does not obtain consent for medical treatments but ensures the resident's expressed wishes are respected and reported. A signature alone (b), unilateral family override (c), or assumed consent for 'routine' care (d) do not satisfy the legal standard.

9. A competent resident with capacity refuses her prescribed evening medications. The CNA should:

42 CFR §483.10(c)(6) protects a resident's right to refuse treatment. A competent resident may refuse care; staff must honor the refusal, ensure the resident understands consequences (educated via the nurse/physician), document the refusal verbatim, and notify the nurse. Covert medication (a) is battery, fraud, and abuse — and often illegal absent specific physician orders and an established surrogate process. Force (c) is battery (PC §242). Threatening discharge (d) is coercion and may violate transfer/discharge protections under 42 CFR §483.15. CNAs do not administer medications regardless.

10. California Welfare & Institutions Code §15630 requires a mandated reporter who suspects PHYSICAL abuse of an LTC resident causing serious bodily injury to make a telephone report to law enforcement:

Under W&I §15630(b)(1)(A), in a long-term care facility, when physical abuse results in serious bodily injury, the mandated reporter must telephone local law enforcement IMMEDIATELY (and the ombudsman) and submit a written report within 2 hours. For physical abuse without serious bodily injury, the phone report is immediate/ASAP and written report within 24 hours. Other forms of abuse generally require report within 2 working days. HSC §1418.91 also requires the facility to report alleged abuse to CDPH within 24 hours. Supervisor approval is not required (d) and may not delay reporting.

11. A CNA reports in good faith a suspected case of elder abuse, but it turns out to be unfounded. Under W&I §15634, the CNA:

W&I §15634 grants mandated and non-mandated reporters who report suspected elder/dependent adult abuse in good faith immunity from civil or criminal liability arising from the report, even if the report turns out to be unfounded. This protection encourages reporting without fear of retaliation. The reporter's identity is also confidential and may only be disclosed in limited circumstances. Conversely, FAILURE to report is a misdemeanor with up to 6 months jail and a $1,000 fine (or higher with great bodily injury/death) under W&I §15630(h).

12. The California Department of Public Health (CDPH) Licensing & Certification Division has the authority to:

CDPH Licensing & Certification, under HSC §1417 et seq., licenses skilled nursing facilities, intermediate care facilities, and similar providers, and certifies nurse assistants under HSC §1337. CDPH conducts annual surveys, investigates complaints under HSC §1420, issues citations (Class AA-A-B), and may suspend or revoke licenses. CDPH does not provide direct medical care (b), set Medicare rates (c — that is CMS), or run the Ombudsman (d — that is the CA Dept of Aging under the Older Americans Act). Anyone can file a CDPH complaint by phone, mail, or online and remain anonymous.

13. A CNA reports unsafe staffing ratios and unsanitary conditions to CDPH. The facility administrator threatens to fire the CNA. This retaliation is:

Labor Code §1102.5 prohibits employer retaliation against employees who disclose information to government or law enforcement agencies, or to a person with authority to investigate, where the employee reasonably believes the information discloses a violation of law. HSC §1432 specifically protects LTC workers who report quality-of-care concerns. Remedies include reinstatement, back pay, civil penalties (up to $10,000 per violation), and attorney's fees. Whether the complaint is ultimately sustained does not change protection; the test is the reporter's reasonable belief and good faith.

14. Assault and battery are defined in California as:

Penal Code §240 defines assault as an unlawful attempt, coupled with a present ability, to commit a violent injury on another. PC §242 defines battery as any willful and unlawful use of force or violence upon the person of another. Slapping, grabbing, or forcibly medicating a resident without consent can constitute battery. Threatening to hit (without contact) can be assault. No weapon is required (d). A CNA who commits assault or battery on a resident faces criminal prosecution, CDPH certification revocation under HSC §1337.9, immediate termination, and exclusion from federal healthcare programs.

15. A CNA, frustrated with a wandering resident, locks the resident in a room without a physician order or care-plan justification. This action is:

Confining a resident against their will without medical justification, physician order, and informed consent is false imprisonment (civil and criminal tort) and unlawful restraint under federal nursing home regulations. Duration (a), door windows (b), or family approval (c) do not legalize unlawful confinement. The resident has the right to be free from restraints not required for medical symptoms. CDPH may issue immediate jeopardy citations; the CNA faces termination, certification revocation under HSC §1337.9, and possible criminal prosecution. Always use approved behavior plans and least restrictive interventions.

16. Negligence in nursing care requires proof of FOUR elements. Which is the correct list?

The common-law elements of negligence (California Civil Jury Instructions, CACI 400) are: (1) Duty — the CNA owes a duty of care to the resident; (2) Breach — the CNA failed to meet the standard of care expected of a reasonably prudent CNA; (3) Causation — the breach caused the harm; and (4) Damages — actual injury or loss. Failing to turn a resident leading to a pressure injury, dropping a resident during a one-person transfer, or not reporting a change in condition can all create negligence claims. Intent (b) is not required for negligence — recklessness is enough.

17. The fundamental difference between civil and criminal liability is that:

Civil cases are brought by private parties (the resident or family) seeking monetary damages or injunctions; the standard of proof is 'preponderance of the evidence' (more likely than not). Criminal cases are brought by the government (People of the State of California) seeking punishment such as fines, probation, or jail; the standard of proof is 'beyond a reasonable doubt.' The same act (e.g., striking a resident) can result in BOTH a civil suit (battery damages) and criminal prosecution (PC §242 battery). CDPH administrative action is a third, separate track.

18. A CNA suspects a coworker is diverting (stealing) controlled substances from the medication cart. The CNA should:

Drug diversion endangers residents (under-medication, contamination, errors). The CNA must report suspicion to the charge nurse, administrator, or DON immediately. The facility is required to investigate, report losses of controlled substances to the DEA under 21 CFR §1301.76(b), notify the nurse's licensing board (BRN for an RN/LVN), and report to CDPH under HSC §1418.91. Confronting the coworker (a) compromises investigation. Waiting (c) risks resident harm. Inaction (d) violates the duty owed to ALL residents. Failure to report may also be misconduct under HSC §1337.9.

19. California CNA certification renewal requires:

Under HSC §1337.3 and Title 22 CCR §71831, California CNA certification is renewed every 24 months. Renewal requires at least 48 hours of approved continuing education during the two-year period (with a minimum of 12 hours each year), most of which is provided as in-service by the SNF. The CNA must also have performed nursing-related services for pay within the previous 24 months. Failure to renew on time results in lapse; an expired CNA cannot work as a CNA. Falsifying CE records is grounds for certification denial or revocation.

20. Which criminal background finding would generally disqualify an applicant from California CNA certification?

Under HSC §1337.9 and §1338.5, CDPH performs a criminal background check (live scan fingerprints with DOJ and FBI) on every CNA applicant. Convictions for offenses such as elder/dependent adult abuse, sexual assault, child abuse, serious/violent felonies (PC §667.5(c), §1192.7(c)), or substantiated findings of abuse, neglect, or misappropriation of resident property generally bar certification. Some non-serious convictions allow a criminal record waiver if the applicant demonstrates rehabilitation. Speeding tickets, jaywalking, and unrelated minor misdemeanors are generally not disqualifying.

21. A resident with hearing loss requests a sign-language interpreter for a care conference. Under the ADA, the facility must:

Title III of the ADA (42 USC §12181 et seq.) requires places of public accommodation, including healthcare facilities, to provide auxiliary aids and services (qualified interpreters, captioning, written materials) to ensure effective communication with persons with disabilities at no cost to the individual. Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act extends similar requirements to entities receiving federal funds (Medicare/Medicaid). Charging (a), refusing (b), or waiting for a lawsuit (d) are unlawful. The CNA reports the request to the nurse/social worker to arrange the service promptly.

22. A CDPH complaint about a long-term care facility may be filed by:

Under HSC §1420, ANY person may file a complaint with CDPH about conditions or care in a licensed facility. The complainant's identity is confidential by law and may remain anonymous. CDPH must investigate complaints (with statutory timelines for entry — generally on-site within 10 working days for non-immediate-jeopardy; within 24 hours for IJ). Retaliation against an employee, resident, or family member for filing a complaint is prohibited (HSC §1432, Labor Code §1102.5). Complaints may be submitted by phone, mail, or the CDPH website.

23. California's HSC §1276.5 (the '3.5 / 2.4 rule') requires skilled nursing facilities to provide a minimum of how many direct-care nursing hours per resident day?

HSC §1276.65 (the staffing rule that succeeded §1276.5's earlier 3.2 standard, effective 2018) requires SNFs to provide a minimum of 3.5 direct-care nursing hours per resident day (NHPRD), with at least 2.4 hours of those provided by CNAs and the remainder by licensed nurses (RN/LVN). Title 22 CCR §71203 contains related staffing standards. The 160-hour CNA training requirement is HSC §1337(c)(2)/Title 22 CCR §71835 (CDPH approved, exceeds the 75-hour federal minimum under 42 CFR §483.152). Facilities cite for failing to meet staffing minimums.

24. A resident says, 'I don't want to take a shower today, maybe tomorrow.' The CNA should:

Under Title 22 CCR §72527 and 42 CFR §483.10(c)(6), residents have the right to refuse treatment, including bathing, and to participate in scheduling. The CNA should respect the refusal, offer alternatives (partial bath, different time, different staff, shower vs. bath), explore the reason (pain, cold, fear, modesty, cultural), document the refusal verbatim, and notify the nurse. Forcing a bath (a) is battery. Skipping all hygiene (b) is neglect. Threats and coercion (d) violate dignity and the right to choose. The IDT may revise the bathing plan.

25. Under Penal Code §11166, a mandated reporter who fails to report KNOWN OR REASONABLY SUSPECTED child abuse or neglect commits:

PC §11166(c) makes failure to report by a mandated reporter (PC §11165.7 lists CNAs and other health practitioners) a misdemeanor punishable by up to 6 months in county jail, a fine up to $1,000, or both. If the abuse or neglect resulted in death or great bodily injury, the penalty rises to up to 1 year in county jail and/or up to $5,000 fine. Mandated reporters must telephone a child protective agency immediately or as soon as practicably possible, followed by a written report within 36 hours. Good-faith reporters have civil and criminal immunity under PC §11172.

26. A Filipino resident speaks Tagalog as her primary language. Which is the BEST way the facility ensures meaningful communication?

Title VI of the Civil Rights Act (42 USC §2000d) and 42 CFR §483.10(b)(3) require facilities receiving federal funds to provide meaningful language access. Best practice: use a QUALIFIED medical interpreter (in-person preferred, telephone or video acceptable), translate vital documents, and document interpreter ID and language for each encounter. Using minor children (b) is widely discouraged and may breach confidentiality. Machine translation (c) is unreliable for medical content. English-only (a) violates federal civil rights law and may trigger Office for Civil Rights enforcement.

27. Which act, if committed by a CNA against a resident and substantiated by CDPH, would result in placement on the CA Nurse Aide Registry as a finding of abuse/neglect/misappropriation, barring future SNF employment?

Under HSC §1337.9 and 42 CFR §488.301/§483.156, CDPH maintains the Nurse Aide Registry. Substantiated findings of resident abuse, neglect, or misappropriation of resident property (theft) are entered on the registry permanently; the CNA cannot work in any Medicare/Medicaid certified nursing facility nationwide thereafter. Findings include physical/sexual/verbal abuse, financial exploitation, and willful neglect. The CNA receives notice and a right to a due-process hearing. Reporting abuse (b), complaining about staffing (c), and requesting ADA accommodations (d) are protected acts, not registry violations.

28. A CNA discusses a resident's HIV status with another CNA in the elevator where visitors can hear. This is:

45 CFR §164.530 requires covered entities to implement administrative, physical, and technical safeguards to protect PHI from incidental disclosures. Discussing diagnoses (especially sensitive ones like HIV under 42 USC §300ff-25 and CA HSC §120975 confidentiality) in public spaces — elevators, hallways, breakrooms within earshot of others, or social media — is a violation. Status as a coworker (a) does not satisfy 'need to know' for unassigned residents. Resident absence (b) and elevator 'privacy' (d) are not defenses. The CNA self-reports and the privacy officer assesses breach notification under 45 CFR §164.404.

29. A resident wishes to file a grievance about cold meals. The facility must:

42 CFR §483.10(j) requires SNFs to provide a clear grievance policy, designate a grievance official, allow residents (and representatives) to voice grievances without discrimination or reprisal, investigate promptly, and provide a written decision. CA HSC §1599.2 reinforces resident bill of rights. The CNA forwards grievances, supports the resident, and never retaliates or discourages reporting (a, c). The resident may also contact the LTC Ombudsman, CDPH, or APS. Retaliation is grounds for citations and personnel action.

30. A CNA with a documented back injury asks the employer for a reasonable accommodation (use of a mechanical lift for all transfers). The employer must:

ADA Title I (42 USC §12112) and California's FEHA (Gov Code §12940(m)-(n)) require employers to engage in a timely, good-faith interactive process with employees who have known disabilities to identify reasonable accommodations (modified equipment, schedule changes, job restructuring) that allow the employee to perform essential job functions without undue hardship. Refusal (a), pay cut (b), or requiring the CNA to work through pain (c) violate disability rights laws and may also violate Cal/OSHA safe-patient-handling requirements (Labor Code §6403.5). The CNA may file with DFEH/CRD or EEOC.

31. A resident with a valid DNR/POLST collapses in the dining room. Bystanders call out for someone to start CPR. The CNA should:

A valid POLST/DNR (CA Probate §4780 et seq.) is a physician order that must be honored. Initiating CPR against a valid DNR is unwanted treatment, may constitute battery, and violates resident rights under 42 CFR §483.10(c)(6). The CNA's correct steps: do not begin CPR, summon the nurse immediately, provide privacy and dignity (clear bystanders, drape if needed), and follow facility post-arrest protocol (nurse pronouncement or physician notification, family notification, post-mortem care). Bystander pressure (d) does not override a valid medical order.

32. A facility may transfer or discharge a resident only for SPECIFIC reasons listed in federal regulations. Which is NOT a permissible reason under 42 CFR §483.15?

42 CFR §483.15(c) lists the only permissible reasons for involuntary transfer/discharge: (1) clinical needs cannot be met; (2) health no longer requires SNF services; (3) safety of others endangered; (4) health of others endangered; (5) non-payment after reasonable notice; and (6) facility closure. Filing complaints (b) is a PROTECTED activity (HSC §1432, 42 CFR §483.10(j)(4)); retaliatory discharge is unlawful and grounds for citation, civil penalties, and reinstatement. The resident has the right to 30-day written notice and to appeal to the state hearing office.

33. A resident's son brings beer to his father's birthday party in the resident's room. The resident has no medical contraindication and the care plan does not restrict alcohol. The MOST appropriate CNA response is to:

Title 22 CCR §72527 and the California Resident Bill of Rights (HSC §1599.74-§1599.84) preserve residents' rights to make personal choices, including legal alcohol use, unless contraindicated. The CNA's role: notify the nurse, verify there is no medical/medication contraindication and that facility policy allows, then permit the celebration with dignity. Unilateral confiscation (a) or blanket refusal (b) violate autonomy. Consuming alcohol with residents (d) is gross professional misconduct, grounds for termination and certification revocation under HSC §1337.9, and may constitute abuse if it impairs care.

34. California's 160-hour CNA training requirement under HSC §1337(c)(2) and Title 22 CCR §71835 consists of:

HSC §1337(c)(2) and Title 22 CCR §71835 require California CNAs to complete a CDPH-approved Nurse Assistant Training Program totaling at least 160 hours: a minimum of 60 hours of classroom theory plus 100 hours of supervised clinical training in a long-term care facility. This exceeds the federal minimum of 75 hours under 42 CFR §483.152. Candidates must then pass the state competency examination (written/oral plus skills test administered by D&S Diversified Services), undergo a DOJ/FBI live scan, and submit the application before placement on the CA Nurse Aide Registry. Renewal is every 2 years (HSC §1337.3).