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Safety & Infection Control

30 questions
1. Effective handwashing with soap and water requires a minimum of:
a.5 seconds of vigorous friction with soap covering the palms and backs of the hands, followed by a rinse under warm running water
b.20 seconds of vigorous friction with soap covering all surfaces, including between fingers, under nails, wrists✓
c.Air-drying the hands after rinsing rather than using a clean paper towel
d.Rinsing under cold running water without soap, then drying with a paper towel

CDC handwashing guidance specifies at least 20 seconds of vigorous friction with soap on all hand surfaces, including between fingers, under nails, and wrists, then rinse and dry with a clean towel, turning off the faucet with the towel. Five seconds (a) is inadequate; rinse alone (d) does not remove organic soil and pathogens; air-drying (c) is slower and not standard in clinical care. Handwashing is the single most important infection-control measure.

CDC Standard Precautions; WHO 'My 5 Moments'
2. Proper order for donning PPE before entering a contact + droplet isolation room is:
a.Hand hygiene, goggles/face shield, gloves, mask, gown
b.Hand hygiene, gown, mask, goggles/face shield, gloves✓
c.Hand hygiene, mask, gloves, gown, goggles/face shield
d.Hand hygiene, gloves, gown, goggles/face shield, mask

CDC PPE donning sequence is hand hygiene → gown → mask/respirator → goggles or face shield → gloves (gloves pulled over gown cuffs). Doffing is in opposite order (gloves → goggles → gown → mask) with hand hygiene between steps and again at the end. Correct sequence prevents self-contamination and protects both worker and other residents under OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogen Standard (29 CFR §1910.1030). Practicing the order until it is automatic is essential before independent isolation care.

OSHA 29 CFR §1910.1030; CDC PPE guidance
3. A resident with active pulmonary tuberculosis requires:
a.Contact precautions: gown and gloves for every room entry, dedicated equipment, door may stay open
b.Standard precautions only: hand hygiene and gloves when body-fluid contact is likely
c.Droplet precautions: surgical mask within six feet, private room, door may stay open
d.Airborne precautions: AIIR (negative-pressure room), N95 or PAPR for staff, door kept closed✓

TB is transmitted by airborne droplet nuclei. CDC requires Airborne Infection Isolation Room (negative pressure with at least 6 air changes/hour, exhausted outdoors or through HEPA), N95 respirator (fit-tested) or PAPR for staff, and door kept closed. Standard (b), contact (a), or droplet precautions (c) are insufficient and risk staff and other-resident infection. The resident wears a surgical mask if transported.

CDC transmission-based precautions
4. When caring for a resident with C. difficile diarrhea, the CNA must:
a.Wear gloves only, use alcohol-based hand rub after care, and wipe surfaces with a quaternary ammonium cleaner
b.Wear gown and gloves, use alcohol-based hand rub, and clean surfaces with any general-purpose detergent
c.Wear gown and gloves, use soap-and-water handwashing (alcohol gel does NOT kill C. diff spores), and clean surfaces with EPA-registered sporicidal (bleach-based) disinfectant✓
d.Wear gloves only, use alcohol-based hand rub between residents, and leave terminal cleaning to housekeeping

C. difficile produces spores resistant to alcohol-based hand sanitizers; soap-and-water handwashing is mandatory after care. Contact Precautions (gown + gloves) apply. Environmental cleaning requires EPA-registered sporicidal agents (typically 1:10 bleach). Gloves without a gown (a, d), or a general-purpose detergent instead of an EPA-registered sporicide (b), allow spore transmission. C. difficile is a leading healthcare-associated infection with significant mortality in elders.

CDC C. difficile guidance
5. A CNA is accidentally stuck by a discarded needle while making a bed. The first action is:
a.Squeeze the site to make it bleed for several minutes, apply alcohol, and report it at the end of the shift
b.Wash the area immediately with soap and water, report to the supervisor without delay, and follow the facility's post-exposure protocol including baseline labs and prophylaxis as indicated✓
c.Finish making the bed, then report the exposure to the supervisor at the end of the shift, wash the site with soap and water at that time, and ask the nurse to order baseline laboratory tests the next morning
d.Apply an adhesive bandage and watch the site for redness over the next few days before reporting it

OSHA Bloodborne Pathogen Standard requires immediate post-exposure response: wash area with soap and water (or flush mucous membranes with water/saline), report to supervisor immediately, complete an incident report, and access post-exposure evaluation (source-patient testing, baseline labs, possible HIV/HBV prophylaxis per CDC guidance—within hours). Delay (c, d) reduces prophylaxis effectiveness; aggressive squeezing (a) is not recommended and may worsen tissue damage.

OSHA 29 CFR §1910.1030; needlestick policy
6. The correct disposal of a used disposable razor with visible blood is:
a.Wrap the razor tightly in several layers of tissue and drop it into the regular trash bag in the resident's room
b.Place the razor in the soiled-linen hamper for laundry staff to remove and discard
c.Rinse the razor at the sink and return it to the resident's bedside drawer
d.Immediately drop it into a rigid puncture-resistant red sharps container, never recap or pass hand to hand✓

OSHA 29 CFR §1910.1030 requires sharps to be placed in closable, puncture-resistant, leakproof, labeled biohazard containers immediately at point of use; never recap, bend, or hand-pass. Regular trash (a) and linen hampers (b) pose injury and infection risk to coworkers, housekeeping, and laundry staff who handle bags downstream; rinsing a bloodied razor and returning it to the bedside drawer (c) leaves a contaminated sharp in the resident's room. Sharps containers must not exceed 3/4 full and must be replaced promptly by a designated process to prevent overfill injuries.

OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens; sharps safety
7. During a facility fire, the CNA uses the RACE acronym. RACE stands for:
a.Read the fire alarm panel, Avoid the smoke, Carry residents down to the stairwell, Empty the wing floor by floor
b.React to the smoke, Activate the alarm, Cool the fire, Eliminate the hazard
c.Run from the area, Alert the charge nurse, Cover the fire, Escape outside
d.Rescue (those in immediate danger), Alarm (pull and call 9-1-1), Contain (close doors), Extinguish or Evacuate✓

RACE is the standard fire-response acronym: Rescue residents in immediate danger, sound the Alarm and call 9-1-1, Contain the fire by closing doors and windows, and Extinguish if small/safe or Evacuate per plan. CNAs work under nurse direction during evacuation; horizontal evacuation (through smoke doors to adjacent compartment) is usually preferred over vertical. PASS (Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep) is the extinguisher acronym.

NFPA Life Safety Code; CDPH fire safety
8. An evidence-based fall-prevention intervention for a high-risk resident is:
a.Tie the call light to the bed frame out of the resident's reach so that repeated night-time calls do not pull staff away from other residents
b.Low bed, non-slip floor mat on the rising side, call light within reach, scheduled toileting, properly fitted footwear, adequate lighting✓
c.Keep the resident in bed at all times and use a wheelchair only for meals
d.Apply a bedside vest restraint every night shift as a routine fall precaution

Falls prevention bundles include low beds, floor mats, accessible call lights, scheduled toileting (anticipating elimination needs), proper footwear (non-skid soles), bedside lighting, and rounding. Restraints (d) increase injury and death risk and are prohibited as routine prevention (CMS F-689, 42 CFR §483.12). Withholding the call light (a) is abuse; bed-confinement (c) causes deconditioning, pressure injury, and depression.

CMS F-tag 689; CDC fall prevention
9. Standard Precautions are applied to:
a.Only residents on isolation precautions, using the PPE listed on the door sign
b.Only residents known to have HIV, hepatitis B, or hepatitis C on the chart
c.All residents, all the time, treating blood, all body fluids (except sweat), non-intact skin, and mucous membranes as potentially infectious✓
d.Only when the resident is visibly bleeding or has an open, draining wound

Standard Precautions, the foundation of infection control per CDC and OSHA Bloodborne Pathogen Standard, apply to ALL residents regardless of known infection status because exposures may occur before infection is known. They cover blood, all body fluids (sweat excepted), non-intact skin, and mucous membranes. Limiting to known cases (a, b) or visible blood (d) misses asymptomatic carriers and post-exposure scenarios; that thinking caused historic HIV/HBV transmission to staff.

CDC standard precautions; OSHA
10. Proper body mechanics when assisting a resident to stand from bed include:
a.Bend at the waist with the knees straight, keep the feet close together, and pull the resident up and forward by both arms
b.Wide stance, bend knees and hips (not back), keep load close, lift with legs, use gait belt and ask for help when needed✓
c.Lift the resident alone regardless of her weight, keeping the feet together
d.Twist at the spine to bring the resident around toward the wheelchair

OSHA ergonomic principles for safe patient handling: feet shoulder-width apart, bend knees and hips, keep back straight and load close, pivot rather than twist, use gait belt for controlled assist, and use mechanical lifts and two-person assist per the resident's mobility plan. Bending at waist with locked knees (a) and twisting (d) cause >50% of CNA back injuries; lifting alone (c) ignores the 35-lb safe-handling limit (NIOSH/ANA Safe Patient Handling).

Body mechanics; OSHA ergonomics

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11. Which is true regarding gloves?
a.Sterile gloves are required for routine personal care such as bathing and perineal care
b.Gloves take the place of hand hygiene as long as they are changed between each resident and there is no visible soil on the outside of the glove
c.The same pair of gloves may be used for several residents to conserve supplies
d.Gloves are removed and discarded after each task or resident; hand hygiene is performed immediately before donning and after removal✓

Gloves do NOT replace hand hygiene; perform hand hygiene before donning and immediately after removal because microbes contaminate hands during glove use and removal. Gloves are changed between residents and between dirty and clean tasks on the same resident. Reusing across residents (c) spreads infection. Routine care uses clean (non-sterile) gloves; sterile gloves (a) are reserved for sterile procedures, outside CNA scope.

CDC; HAI prevention
12. A resident in the dining room suddenly collapses and is unresponsive with no breathing. The CNA should:
a.Wait for the family to arrive before starting any resuscitation effort
b.Move the resident to a bed first so compressions are done on a firm surface
c.Begin chest compressions only after the nurse arrives at the bedside, confirms that there is no pulse, and checks the chart for a valid POLST or DNR order, and then calls the code
d.Call for help/activate the code (per facility procedure), check responsiveness and breathing, and begin CPR if no DNR and trained, while another staff brings the AED✓

AHA Basic Life Support: recognize cardiac arrest, activate emergency response immediately ('Call a code blue / dial 9-1-1'), begin high-quality compressions, and apply AED when available. CNAs trained in BLS within scope start CPR unless a valid DNR/POLST directs otherwise. Delay (c), moving (b), or waiting for family (a) reduce survival; every minute without CPR cuts survival by ~10%. Always verify code status first.

American Heart Association BLS; CNA scope
13. A resident at dinner suddenly clutches her throat, cannot speak or cough. The CNA should:
a.Wait to see whether the resident clears the obstruction on her own, staying nearby and encouraging her to keep coughing until the food comes up on its own
b.Offer sips of water to help wash the food down and loosen the obstruction
c.Perform abdominal thrusts (Heimlich) until the object is expelled or the resident becomes unresponsive; if unresponsive, begin CPR and call for help✓
d.Slap the resident hard between the shoulder blades while she stays standing

Complete airway obstruction (universal choking sign, inability to speak/cough) requires immediate abdominal thrusts (Heimlich) for adults able to stand; chest thrusts for pregnant or obese individuals. If the resident loses consciousness, lower to floor, begin CPR, and look for object before each breath attempt. Offering water (b) worsens obstruction; isolated back-slaps without alternation are not the standard adult protocol (back-blows are part of infant/sometimes alternating adult sequences); waiting (a) wastes the 4-6 minute hypoxic window.

AHA choking guidance
14. Oxygen safety in a resident's room includes:
a.No smoking, no open flames, no petroleum-based products on the face, post 'Oxygen in Use' sign, keep tubing free of kinks✓
b.Allow scented candles at the bedside for relaxation as long as staff supervise them
c.Store spare oxygen tanks lying flat on the floor near the room's heat vent
d.Apply petroleum jelly to the lips and nostrils several times a shift to relieve the dryness caused by continuous nasal cannula flow

Oxygen accelerates combustion. Safety: no smoking or open flame within prescribed distance, no petroleum products (Vaseline) on face/lips—use water-based lubricant, post 'Oxygen in Use' signage, secure tanks upright in stable carrier away from heat sources, keep tubing free of kinks to ensure flow, and avoid synthetic fabrics or wool blankets that build static. Candles (b), Vaseline (d), and improper tank storage (c) are serious fire risks. NFPA 99 and facility policy must be followed at all times.

NFPA 99; CDPH oxygen safety
15. A resident with dementia is found wandering toward an exit. The CNA should:
a.Let her walk out and watch from the doorway so she does not become agitated
b.Call out loudly across the hallway for her to stop before she reaches the door
c.Approach calmly from the front, use a calm voice, redirect with a familiar activity or snack, notify the nurse, and document; verify door alarms/wander-guard functioning✓
d.Take hold of both her arms and walk her firmly back to her own room

Elopement is a leading sentinel event for residents with dementia. The CNA approaches calmly from the front to avoid startling, uses simple cueing and redirection (familiar activity, snack, walking together to room), and notifies the nurse. Document the event; the team reviews wander-guard placement, door alarms, and care-plan interventions. Yelling (b) or grabbing (d) escalate distress and may be abuse; allowing elopement (a) endangers the resident.

CMS F-tag 689; elopement prevention
16. A CNA is unsure how to safely use a new disinfectant spray. The CNA should:
a.Dilute and apply it the same way as a similar product already in use on the unit, since disinfectants in the same class work alike
b.Mix it with a second cleaner so that the disinfectant works faster on the surface
c.Read the product label and the Safety Data Sheet (SDS) located in the housekeeping/utility area, and ask the supervisor✓
d.Pour it into an unlabeled spray bottle and keep it on the housekeeping cart

OSHA Hazard Communication Standard (29 CFR §1910.1200) requires Safety Data Sheets (SDS) to be readily accessible to all employees. The SDS lists hazards, required PPE, dilution ratio, surface contact time, first aid, and disposal instructions. CNAs must consult the SDS and supervisor before first use of any product. Guessing (a) and mixing chemicals (b)—bleach plus ammonia produces toxic chloramine gas—are dangerous; unlabeled containers (d) violate Hazcom and risk poisoning of staff or residents.

OSHA Hazard Communication
17. When entering the room of a resident on contact precautions for MRSA, the CNA must:
a.Don gown and gloves before entry; remove and perform hand hygiene before exiting; use dedicated equipment when possible✓
b.Skip the gown and gloves when only dropping off a meal tray, as long as the tray is set down just inside the doorway and nothing else is touched
c.Wear gloves alone, since MRSA is not carried on clothing or uniforms
d.Wear a fit-tested N95 respirator and gloves, but no gown is required

MRSA spreads by contact. CDC Contact Precautions require gown and gloves donned before room entry and removed before exit, with hand hygiene immediately after removal. Dedicated equipment (BP cuff, stethoscope, thermometer) reduces cross-contamination. PPE applies to any room entry, even brief tasks (b). Gloves alone (c) leave clothing contaminated. N95 (d) is for airborne, not contact precautions.

CDC contact precautions; MRSA
18. A resident newly diagnosed with influenza requires:
a.Droplet precautions: private room or cohort, surgical mask within 6 feet, eye protection if splash risk, resident wears mask during transport✓
b.Contact precautions: gown and gloves for entry, dedicated equipment, no mask needed
c.Airborne precautions: negative-pressure isolation room, fit-tested N95 or PAPR for staff, door kept closed, resident masked during any transport
d.Standard precautions only: hand hygiene and gloves if contact with secretions is likely

Influenza is spread by respiratory droplets that travel about 3-6 feet. CDC Droplet Precautions: private room (or cohort), surgical mask within 6 feet, eye protection if splash risk; the resident wears a surgical mask if leaving the room. Airborne isolation/N95 (c) is reserved for TB, measles, COVID aerosol-generating procedures. Standard or contact alone (b, d) are insufficient for droplet transmission.

CDC droplet precautions
19. A bed-pad saturated with blood and stool must be discarded into:
a.A regular trash bag, double-bagged and tied at the bedside
b.The soiled-linen hamper, for laundry staff to sort and wash
c.The recycling bin, after the pad has been folded inward
d.A red biohazard bag labeled with the biohazard symbol✓

OSHA 29 CFR §1910.1030 requires items saturated with blood or other potentially infectious material to be placed in red biohazard-labeled bags for regulated medical-waste disposal. Regular trash (a) and recycling (c) are prohibited; the linen hamper (b) is for reusable linen, not disposables and not heavily saturated waste. Proper segregation protects housekeeping, custodial staff, and the community waste stream.

OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens; biohazard
20. Which is NOT a least-restrictive alternative to a physical restraint?
a.Bed and chair alarms combined with rounding by staff every hour
b.A low bed with a non-slip floor mat placed on the rising side
c.A wedge cushion that maintains hip alignment in the wheelchair
d.Tying the resident's wrists to the bedrails 'just in case'✓

Least-restrictive interventions include low beds, floor mats, alarms, scheduled toileting, recliner positioning, activity engagement, and environmental modifications. Wrist ties (d) are physical restraints, not alternatives, and may only be used when less-restrictive interventions have failed and a documented medical symptom justifies restraint under 42 CFR §483.12(a)(2). 'Just in case' use is prohibited and may constitute false imprisonment and abuse.

CMS F-tag 604; restraint alternatives
21. Alcohol-based hand rub is preferred over soap and water EXCEPT when:
a.Hands are visibly soiled, after caring for a C. difficile or norovirus patient, before eating, after toileting✓
b.After removing gloves following care for a resident who is not on isolation precautions and whose skin was intact
c.Before donning clean gloves for a routine care task
d.Between residents during routine care on the same hallway

CDC guidance: alcohol-based hand rub (60-95% alcohol) is preferred for most clinical encounters because it is fast and more effective than handwashing for non-spore organisms. However, soap-and-water handwashing is required when hands are visibly soiled, after caring for C. difficile or norovirus (spores survive alcohol), before eating, and after using the restroom. Other situations (b, c, d) are appropriate for alcohol rub.

CDC hand hygiene
22. Before any transfer, the CNA should:
a.Have the resident put both arms around the CNA's neck, lock the bed wheels, and pull herself upright on the count of three while the CNA lifts from under her arms without using a gait belt
b.Lock the bed wheels and wheelchair wheels, raise the head of bed as tolerated, place chair on the resident's strong side, apply gait belt, explain each step, and ensure proper footwear✓
c.Slide a draw sheet under the resident and drag her across to the wheelchair in one motion
d.Skip the explanation and the gait belt to save time, keeping one hand under each armpit

Safe transfer preparation: explain procedure, ensure non-skid footwear, lock all wheels, raise HOB so resident can sit upright, position wheelchair at 45° on resident's strongest side, apply gait belt low on torso, count '1-2-3 stand,' lift with legs. Neck-holds (a) risk CNA cervical injury and resident falls; dragging on a sheet (c) causes shearing skin injury. Omitting explanation (d) violates the resident's right to know.

Body mechanics; safe patient handling
23. A resident is in airborne + contact isolation for COVID-19. Required PPE for routine care includes:
a.Standard precautions only: hand hygiene and gloves when body-fluid contact is likely
b.N95 respirator (fit-tested) or PAPR, eye protection (goggles or face shield), gown, and gloves✓
c.Gown and gloves only, with hand hygiene before entry and after removing the gown
d.Surgical mask and gloves only, with eye protection added only when an aerosol-generating procedure is scheduled

Per updated CDC/CDPH SNF guidance, COVID-19 care requires N95 respirator (or PAPR) for staff entering the room because aerosol generation can occur, plus eye protection, gown, and gloves. Surgical mask (d) is insufficient; gown/gloves alone (c) miss airborne protection; standard precautions (a) are inadequate during active infection. Doff in order without contaminating self; perform hand hygiene multiple times.

CDC; COVID-19 SNF guidance
24. Bed rails in California SNFs are:
a.Decorative fixtures that are never considered a restraint, whatever position they are left in
b.Considered restraints if they restrict the resident's freedom of movement; alternatives must be tried first, with informed consent and documented assessment of entrapment risk per FDA dimensions✓
c.Required on both sides of the bed for every resident over 70, without a separate assessment
d.A required safety device on every bed, so neither consent nor an entrapment-risk assessment is needed

Side rails may function as restraints when they restrict freedom of movement; CMS treats them under restraint rules requiring least-restrictive analysis, informed consent, medical justification, and ongoing monitoring. FDA has documented deaths from entrapment and publishes seven entrapment zones with dimensional limits. Routine bilateral use (c, d) violates federal regulation. Alternatives include low beds, transfer-aid handles, mat near bed.

CMS bed rail policy; FDA bed-rail entrapment alert
25. After removing gloves, the CNA should:
a.Reuse the same pair of gloves when caring for the next resident
b.Wait to perform hand hygiene until after the next task is finished
c.Perform hand hygiene immediately before touching anything else✓
d.Place the used gloves in a uniform pocket to discard them later

CDC and WHO 'Five Moments' require hand hygiene immediately after glove removal because microbes contaminate hands during use and doffing through micro-tears and during the removal process. Reuse (a) cross-contaminates; delaying hygiene (b) spreads pathogens; pocketing (d) contaminates uniform. This single step prevents many healthcare-associated infections, the leading preventable cause of harm in long-term care.

CDC standard precautions
26. PASS, the fire-extinguisher acronym, stands for:
a.Pull (the alarm), Apply (the nozzle), Spray (the flames), Sweep (the floor)
b.Pull (the pin), Aim (at the base of the fire), Squeeze (the handle), Sweep (side to side)✓
c.Point (the extinguisher at the flames), Aim (the nozzle high), Squeeze (the trigger), Stop (when the smoke clears)
d.Push (the lever), Activate (the alarm), Spray (the smoke), Stop (and evacuate)

PASS is the universal fire-extinguisher operation acronym: Pull the pin to break the seal, Aim at the base of the flames (not the flames themselves), Squeeze the handle to release the agent, and Sweep side to side until the fire is out. Stand 6-8 feet back. Only attempt extinguishment on a small contained fire after the Rescue, Alarm, and Contain steps of RACE, and only if you have a clear escape path behind you. Evacuate immediately if uncertain or if smoke is heavy. NFPA 10 governs extinguisher use.

NFPA fire extinguisher; PASS
27. Linen that is wet with blood should be:
a.Rinsed in the utility-room sink to remove the blood, then bagged in a regular linen bag and sent to the laundry
b.Carried in the arms to the laundry room and sorted at the chute
c.Placed in the regular linen cart after being sorted at the bedside
d.Bagged at point of use in a leak-resistant red biohazard bag, handled with gloves, not held against the body✓

OSHA 29 CFR §1910.1030 requires soiled linen to be bagged at point of use in leak-resistant bags (red biohazard if dripping/saturated), handled minimally with gloves, never sorted at bedside, and never held against the uniform. Carrying loose (b) contaminates body and floor; sink rinsing (a) creates aerosol and contamination; standard cart (c) without leak protection risks exposure of laundry staff.

CDC; OSHA
28. During a code blue, the CNA's role typically includes:
a.Calling the resident's family from the nurses' station to give clinical updates on what the team is doing and how the resuscitation is going, so that the family can decide whether to come in right away
b.Calling for help, beginning chest compressions if trained and within scope, bringing the crash cart/AED, and assisting the team as directed; not administering medications or interpreting rhythms✓
c.Documenting the medication orders the code leader calls out and timing each dose given
d.Identifying the likely cause of the arrest so the team can choose the right treatment

CNAs work within scope: assist with compressions if BLS-trained, retrieve crash cart/AED, time intervals, document compressions, support family in a separate space, and perform support tasks at the direction of the RN/MD code leader. Diagnosis (d), clinical updates by phone (a), and medication documentation (c) are licensed-staff responsibilities. Clear scope adherence keeps the code organized and protects the CNA license.

ANA scope; CNA emergency role
29. During a facility norovirus outbreak, infection control measures include:
a.Continue communal dining as usual, since norovirus spreads only through contaminated food
b.Soap-and-water handwashing (alcohol gel less effective), contact precautions, cohorting ill residents and staff, environmental cleaning with EPA-registered norovirus disinfectant, exclude ill staff for 48-72 hours after symptoms✓
c.Increase alcohol-based hand rub use, keep ill residents in their rooms, and clean surfaces with a quaternary ammonium disinfectant
d.Discontinue gowns and gloves to conserve supplies, relying on hand hygiene and cohorting ill residents on one hallway

Norovirus is highly contagious via fecal-oral and aerosolized vomit. CDC/CDPH outbreak response: soap-and-water handwashing (alcohol rub less effective on non-enveloped norovirus), contact precautions, cohort ill residents, dedicate staff if possible, clean with EPA-list G norovirus disinfectant (bleach), exclude symptomatic staff until 48-72 hours symptom-free, restrict admissions/visitors as advised by Public Health. Wrong answers (a, c, d) would worsen the outbreak.

CDC; CDPH norovirus guidance
30. An isolation precaution sign on a resident's door is missing PPE icons. The CNA should:
a.Stop, do not enter, and verify with the nurse the type of precautions and required PPE; obtain proper signage and PPE supplies before entering✓
b.Ask the resident which precautions she is on and what PPE the other staff have been wearing, then use that same PPE for the remainder of the shift
c.Enter without PPE, since the sign does not specify what protection is required
d.Wear gloves only until the nurse has time to replace the missing signage

Isolation signage must clearly indicate type and required PPE. Missing or incorrect signage is a system failure requiring immediate correction—verify with the nurse, restock signage and PPE, and document. Entering without proper PPE (c, d) exposes the CNA and other residents; asking the resident (b) is unreliable and breaches privacy norms. CDPH licensure standards require accurate visible signage at the entry.

CDC; transmission-based precautions sign

Last reviewed: · editorial process

PrepPass team · Verified against California CDPH + D&S Diversified · How we review

What's on the California Certified Nursing Assistant exam (D&S Diversified / Headmaster)?

The California Certified Nursing Assistant exam (D&S Diversified / Headmaster) is administered by the California Department of Public Health (CDPH); training under HSC §1276.5. The topic weights below are a PrepPass estimate, not figures published by the California Department of Public Health (CDPH); training under HSC §1276.5.

Questions
Not published by CDPH
Time limit
Not published by CDPH
Passing score
Not published by CDPH

Every figure above, with the document it came from and the date we read it →

Topic blueprint

  • 20%
    Basic Nursing Skills
  • 17%
    Legal & Ethical
  • 15%
    Safety & Infection Control
  • 10%
    Patient Rights
  • 10%
    Communication & Culture
  • 10%
    Restorative Care
  • 10%
    Mental Health
  • 8%
    Emotional Support
PrepPass team · Verified against California Department of Public Health (CDPH); training under HSC §1276.5 · How we review

How hard is the exam?

Moderate. There is no single California CNA written exam: CDPH approves several testing vendors and publishes none of the mechanics itself. D&SDT-Headmaster's knowledge exam is 75 questions in 60 minutes; Credentia's written examination is 70 questions, 60 of them scored, and Credentia publishes no cut score at all. Whichever vendor you sit, there is a separate skills/clinical portion, and the written portion tests resident rights, safety/infection control, and basic nursing skills.

Recommended study hours
30-60 hours of written review (separate from the required 160-hour HSC §1276.5 training)
Pass rate
We read CDPH (California Department of Public Health)'s own published material in September 2026 and there is no pass rate in it. There is also no national CNA pass rate, because there is no national CNA exam: each state contracts its own vendor. Some states do publish — Minnesota posts nurse-aide results for every approved training program — so check your own state registry rather than any prep site.Source: CDPH — Certified Nurse Assistant (California Department of Public Health) · Minnesota Department of Health — Nurse Aide Registry test data by training program (an example of a state that does publish)
Where to focus first
Basic Nursing Skills (20% of exam) and Safety & Infection Control (15%) — focus practice rounds on these topic chips.

Fees and salaries are approximate and change over time. The pass rate above is quoted from the source linked beside it, for the period that source covers — where we have not checked a source, we say so and give no number.

Frequently asked questions

How many California CNA practice questions are here?+

200 original practice questions across all 8 topics of the California CNA written exam, with answers, explanations, and statute citations on 200 of the 200 questions (42 CFR §483, HSC §1276.5, Title 22 CCR §72527, W&I §15630, HIPAA, OSHA, CDPH guidance).

Is this CNA practice test free?+

Yes — completely free with no signup required. You can take unlimited practice rounds without creating an account.

Are these the real California CNA exam questions?+

No. All 200 questions are original prose authored from public-domain sources (federal CFR, California HSC and W&I codes, Title 22 CCR, CDPH guidelines, ANA standards). We never copy from the real D&S Diversified exam.

What's the passing score for the California CNA exam?+

CDPH publishes none, and the approved testing vendors do not agree: one sets a numeric cut score on its knowledge portion and the other publishes no numeric cut score for its written or oral examination at all. Each vendor's own wording, with the handbook it came from, is on our CNA exam-facts page. You must ALSO pass a 5-skill demonstration scored by a state-approved evaluator.

Is the California CNA exam available in Spanish, Chinese, or Vietnamese?+

The official CNA knowledge exam is offered in English and Spanish by D&S Diversified. PrepPass provides all 200 practice questions in English, 中文, Español, and Tiếng Việt so Filipino, Vietnamese, Chinese, and Latina caregivers can study in their strongest language first.

Why is California's CNA training 160 hours (vs federal 75)?+

HSC §1276.5 sets California's training requirement higher than the federal 75-hour minimum: 60 hours classroom + 100 hours supervised clinical = 160 hours total. The wage boost under SB 525 (healthcare workers reach $23/hr in June 2026) is driving more entrants — making this exam one of the most in-demand in California.

Is there a study guide for the California CNA (Certified Nursing Assistant)?+

Yes. PrepPass sells CNA — Complete Study Guide (2026), a PDF + EPUB download, $19.99 one-time; the practice on this page stays free without it. See the study guide →

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