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Restorative Care

20 questions
1. A CNA is providing restorative nursing care to a resident recovering from a hip fracture. Under 42 CFR §483.24, what is the PRIMARY goal of restorative care?
a.To complete each ADL for the resident as quickly as possible so the schedule stays on time
b.To keep the resident in the long-term care facility rather than discharging her to home
c.To return the resident to an acute hospital setting for further rehabilitation treatment
d.To help the resident attain or maintain the highest practicable level of independence✓

42 CFR §483.24 (Quality of Life) and §483.25 (Quality of Care) require facilities to assist each resident to 'attain or maintain his or her highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being.' Restorative nursing focuses on preserving and regaining function, preventing decline, and promoting independence in ADLs. Doing tasks FOR the resident (a) fosters dependency and violates restorative principles. Hospital return (c) and preventing departure (b) are unrelated to restorative goals. Title 22 CCR §72315 obligates nursing services to support each resident's functional abilities.

42 CFR §483.24; Title 22 CCR §72315
2. A resident has right-sided hemiplegia following a CVA but can move the left side normally. The care plan calls for the resident to lift and move the right arm using the left hand. This type of exercise is called:
a.Passive range of motion (PROM)
b.Active-assistive range of motion (AAROM)✓
c.Resistive range of motion against the CNA's hand
d.Isometric resistance exercise

Active-assistive ROM (AAROM) occurs when the resident moves a weaker limb with help from the stronger limb (self-assist) or from the CNA. Passive ROM (a) means the CNA moves the joint while the resident does no work — used when the resident cannot move at all. Active ROM means the resident moves independently with no assistance. Resistive (c) adds external force against motion (rehab/PT). Isometric (d) is muscle tightening without joint movement. Per 42 CFR §483.25(c), facilities must prevent decline in ROM unless clinically unavoidable.

42 CFR §483.25(c); Title 22 CCR §72315
3. A CNA is preparing to perform a sit-to-stand transfer with a resident who has mild left leg weakness. Which action BEST promotes safety and resident independence?
a.Perform the transfer without a gait belt, holding the resident under both arms and lifting on the count of three so the transfer goes faster
b.Apply a gait belt, position the resident's feet flat, and have the resident push up from the bed with both hands on count of three✓
c.Lift the resident under the arms while telling her to relax her legs and let you work
d.Have the resident hold onto the CNA's neck and pull herself up on the count of three

Per Title 22 CCR §72315, transfers must protect both resident and staff. The correct technique: apply a gait belt at the waist, position feet flat and shoulder-width apart, have resident lean forward (nose-over-toes), and rise on a counted cue using their own leg strength. Lifting under the arms (c) can cause shoulder dislocation and removes the active component. Grabbing the CNA's neck (d) risks cervical injury to staff. Skipping the gait belt (a) violates safe-handling policies under 42 CFR §483.25(d) (accident prevention).

Title 22 CCR §72315; 42 CFR §483.25(d)
4. A resident uses a standard cane for ambulation due to mild right leg weakness. On which side should the cane be held, and which leg moves first?
a.Cane on the right (weak) side; move the strong leg and the cane forward together
b.Cane on either side; move the strong leg first, then the cane and the weak leg
c.Cane on the right (weak) side; move the cane and the weak leg forward together, then bring the strong leg past
d.Cane on the left (strong) side; move the cane and weak (right) leg forward together, then the strong leg✓

The cane is held on the STRONG side, opposite the weak leg, to widen the base of support and shift weight away from the affected limb. Sequence: cane and weak leg advance together, then the strong leg steps past. Placing the cane on the weak side (a, c) reduces stability and increases fall risk. Sequence does matter (b) — incorrect order can cause loss of balance. 42 CFR §483.25(d) requires the facility to ensure residents receive adequate supervision and assistive devices to prevent accidents.

42 CFR §483.25(d); Title 22 CCR §72315
5. A resident using a standard walker begins to fall forward during ambulation. The CNA is walking slightly behind with a gait belt applied. What is the CNA's CORRECT response?
a.Use the gait belt to ease the resident slowly to the floor, protecting the head and bending your knees✓
b.Pull the resident upright by the gait belt with a sharp tug and steady her against the walker until she has her balance
c.Lift the resident back to standing without help, whatever her weight
d.Step back and call for help, letting the resident catch herself on the walker

When a resident is falling, the CNA must NEVER try to stop the fall by lifting (causes back injury and may injure resident). The correct procedure is controlled lowering: widen your stance, bend knees, ease the resident down your leg using the gait belt, and protect the head. Yanking (b) can cause rotator-cuff or rib injury. Stepping away (d) breaches duty of care. Lifting solo (c) violates safe-patient-handling policy under 42 CFR §483.25(d) and Title 22 CCR §72315. After the fall, call for help, assess, and complete an incident report.

42 CFR §483.25(d); Title 22 CCR §72315
6. A resident with mild dementia repeatedly asks the CNA to button her blouse because 'it's faster when you do it.' The care plan lists 'encourage self-dressing with verbal cues.' What is the BEST response?
a.Button the blouse for her so that the morning care schedule stays on time
b.Sit with the resident, hand her the buttons one at a time, and offer step-by-step verbal cues with patience✓
c.Tell the resident that she must do the buttons herself, then leave the room to finish rounds on the other hall
d.Document that the resident refused to dress and move on to the next resident

42 CFR §483.24(b) requires the facility to support each resident's ability to perform ADLs and to prevent decline. Doing tasks for the resident (a) accelerates functional loss. Walking away (c) is dismissive and may be psychological neglect. Documenting refusal (d) mischaracterizes the situation — the resident is asking for support, not refusing. The correct approach uses graded assistance: verbal cueing, hand-over-hand if needed, breaking the task into small steps. This honors the care plan and the resident's dignity per Title 22 CCR §72315.

42 CFR §483.24(b); Title 22 CCR §72315
7. A resident is on a bladder-retraining program. Which CNA action BEST supports the program?
a.Apply an incontinence brief at the start of each shift so accidents are avoided and the linens stay dry
b.Offer toileting on a regular schedule (e.g., every 2 hours) and praise successful continence✓
c.Ask the nurse to insert a Foley catheter so the linens stay dry overnight
d.Limit fluids throughout the day so that less urine is produced

42 CFR §483.25(e) addresses urinary incontinence and requires facilities to assist residents to maintain or restore continence. Scheduled (prompted) toileting plus positive reinforcement is the evidence-based approach. Immediate briefing (a) defeats the program. Fluid restriction (d) causes dehydration, UTIs, and concentrated urine that worsens incontinence — and is not a CNA decision. Catheterization (c) is a medical order, increases infection risk (CAUTI), and is a last resort under federal regulation. Title 22 CCR §72315 obligates nursing care to support function.

42 CFR §483.25(e); Title 22 CCR §72315
8. A resident with rheumatoid arthritis has difficulty gripping a standard fork. Which adaptive intervention BEST promotes independent eating?
a.Switch the resident to a pureed diet without consulting the dietitian
b.Feed the resident the entire meal so that she does not become frustrated
c.Provide built-up handle utensils, a plate guard, and a non-slip mat✓
d.Withhold her meals until she is able to manage a regular fork on her own

Adaptive utensils (built-up handles, rocker knives), plate guards, and non-slip mats allow residents with limited grip or coordination to feed themselves — preserving independence and dignity. Feeding entirely (b) creates dependency. Diet changes (a) are physician/dietitian decisions; CNAs cannot alter diet orders. Withholding food (d) is neglect under 42 CFR §483.12 (abuse/neglect prohibition). 42 CFR §483.25 requires support of nutritional status and functional ability; Title 22 CCR §72315 requires the nursing service to meet daily living needs.

42 CFR §483.25; Title 22 CCR §72315
9. A bedbound resident has not had ROM exercises for several days. The CNA notices the resident's fingers are curling tightly toward the palm and cannot be opened easily. This finding is MOST consistent with:
a.A sign of returning muscle strength in the hand and wrist
b.A normal aging change that requires no intervention at all
c.A contracture caused by lack of movement and disuse✓
d.An expected effect of bedrest that reverses on its own

A contracture is permanent shortening of muscles, tendons, or joint capsules due to immobility, leading to a fixed deformity. It is a preventable complication; once established, it severely limits function and hygiene. 42 CFR §483.25(c) states a resident with limited ROM must receive appropriate treatment and services to increase ROM or prevent further decrease. Aging alone does not cause contractures (b). It is not strength (a) and does not reverse on its own (d). The CNA must report and document immediately so the nurse can adjust the care plan.

42 CFR §483.25(c); Title 22 CCR §72315
10. To prevent foot drop in a bedbound resident, the CNA should:
a.Leave the feet hanging over the end of the mattress so the toes are not pressed by the sheet
b.Place a pillow tightly under the knees at all times to support the legs
c.Use a foot board, high-top sneakers, or splints to keep the feet at a 90-degree angle✓
d.Tuck the top sheet tightly across the toes to keep the feet warm

Foot drop (plantar flexion contracture) develops when the foot remains pointed downward. Prevention: keep ankles in dorsiflexion (90 degrees) using a foot board, high-tops, or prescribed splints, with frequent ROM. Feet hanging off the bed (a) causes plantar flexion. Pillows under the knees (b) cause hip and knee flexion contractures and impair circulation. Tight top sheets (d) push toes into plantar flexion — instead, use a bed cradle or loose sheet. 42 CFR §483.25(b)/(c) require prevention of avoidable decline.

42 CFR §483.25(b); Title 22 CCR §72315

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11. A CNA observes a small area of intact skin on a resident's sacrum that is red and does not blanch (turn white) when pressed. This finding is classified as:
a.Stage 1 pressure injury✓
b.Deep tissue injury (DTI)
c.Stage 3 pressure injury
d.Unstageable pressure injury

NPIAP staging: Stage 1 = intact skin with non-blanchable erythema (redness that does not turn white when pressed). Stage 2 = partial-thickness loss with exposed dermis. Stage 3 = full-thickness loss with visible subcutaneous fat. Stage 4 = full-thickness loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. Unstageable (d) = depth obscured by slough/eschar. DTI (b) = persistent non-blanchable deep red, maroon, or purple discoloration suggesting deeper damage under intact or non-intact skin. CNAs must report any new redness immediately per 42 CFR §483.25(b) and Title 22 CCR §72523 (incident reporting).

42 CFR §483.25(b); Title 22 CCR §72523
12. Standard repositioning frequency for a bedbound resident at risk for pressure injury is:
a.Every 8 hours, at each shift change, unless the resident asks sooner
b.Only when the resident asks to be turned or looks uncomfortable in bed
c.At least every 2 hours, or more often if indicated by the care plan✓
d.Every 4 hours during waking hours, and once overnight if the resident wakes

The federal and CA standard of care is repositioning at least every 2 hours for bedbound residents, with more frequent turning for higher-risk individuals (cachexia, vasopressors, prior pressure injury). Specialty surfaces do not eliminate the need to turn. Less frequent turning (a, d) allows ischemia and tissue death. Waiting for requests (b) fails residents who cannot communicate and constitutes neglect under 42 CFR §483.12. The CNA documents turning times and any skin findings. Title 22 CCR §72315 requires the nursing care plan to be followed.

42 CFR §483.25(b); Title 22 CCR §72315
13. When positioning a bedbound resident, which technique BEST protects the heels from pressure injury?
a.Apply tight elastic stockings up to mid-thigh to support the circulation in the legs
b.Massage the heels vigorously with lotion at the start of every shift
c.Float the heels off the mattress by placing a pillow lengthwise under the calves✓
d.Place a thin pillow directly under the Achilles tendon and the heels

Heels have minimal subcutaneous tissue and high pressure injury risk. The standard of care is to FLOAT the heels by placing a pillow lengthwise under the lower legs from below the knee to above the ankle, with heels completely off the surface. A pillow under the Achilles (d) still allows heel contact. Tight stockings (a) may impair circulation and require a physician order. Vigorous massage (b) is contraindicated — it can shear fragile capillaries and worsen tissue damage. 42 CFR §483.25(b) requires prevention of pressure ulcers when avoidable.

42 CFR §483.25(b)
14. A resident recovering from a left CVA has right-sided hemiplegia and mild dysphagia. Which CNA action is MOST appropriate at mealtime?
a.Mix all the foods on the tray together so swallowing is easier, and offer thin liquids between every bite of food
b.Position upright at 90 degrees, place food on the unaffected (left) side, allow time, and observe for choking✓
c.Feed the resident quickly while she lies flat so the tray is finished on time
d.Place the food on the affected (right) side of the mouth and allow extra time

Dysphagia care requires upright positioning (90 degrees), small bites, food placed on the UNAFFECTED side (the resident has sensation and motor control there), chin-tuck if ordered, and observation for coughing, pocketing, or wet voice. Feeding lying flat (c) causes aspiration. Mixing foods (a) is unappetizing and does not improve swallow safety. Placing food on the affected side (d) causes pocketing and aspiration. 42 CFR §483.25 and Title 22 CCR §72315 require staff to follow the care plan and prevent avoidable harm such as aspiration pneumonia.

42 CFR §483.25(b); Title 22 CCR §72315
15. A resident with expressive aphasia after a stroke struggles to find words. The BEST CNA approach is to:
a.Speak loudly and slowly, as though the resident were hearing-impaired, and repeat each word until she is able to answer
b.Allow extra time, use simple yes/no questions, picture boards, and avoid finishing sentences for the resident✓
c.Avoid talking to the resident during care so she does not become frustrated
d.Insist that the resident write out every request in complete sentences

Expressive (Broca's) aphasia means the resident understands but has difficulty producing speech. Best practice: allow processing time, use simple closed-ended questions, offer picture/letter boards, and let the resident finish their own thoughts. Speaking loudly (a) confuses the issue with hearing loss. Avoiding speech (c) violates the resident's right to communication and dignity under 42 CFR §483.10. Forcing writing (d) ignores that writing is often also impaired. Title 22 CCR §72527 protects communication rights.

42 CFR §483.10; 42 CFR §483.25
16. A resident with Parkinson's disease has shuffling gait, a forward stoop, and freezing episodes. Which intervention BEST reduces fall risk?
a.Walk briskly beside the resident to encourage her to keep up the pace along the hallway to the dining room
b.Use visual cues such as floor tape or counting cadence ('1-2, 1-2') and allow extra time during freezing✓
c.Allow ambulation only right after the morning dose, with no rest breaks
d.Carry or wheel the resident from room to room to avoid all ambulation

Parkinson's gait freezing responds to visual or auditory cues — tape lines on the floor, counting aloud, or a marching cadence helps re-initiate movement. Rushing (a) increases falls. Carrying (d) eliminates therapeutic movement and is unsafe. Restricting ambulation between doses (c) is not the CNA's call and ignores fluctuating 'on-off' periods. The CNA should also clear paths, use a gait belt, and report any new freezing or worsening tremor to the nurse per 42 CFR §483.25(d) and Title 22 CCR §72315.

42 CFR §483.25(d); Title 22 CCR §72315
17. A resident with moderate Alzheimer's dementia insists she must 'go pick up the children from school' although her children are grown. Which response BEST uses validation therapy?
a.Tell her firmly that her children are grown adults and that she is confused, then show her their photographs
b.Acknowledge her feelings: 'You really care about your children. Tell me about them,' then gently redirect✓
c.Show her a calendar and quiz her on the year, the month, and the day
d.Ignore the statement and continue with her bath without responding

Validation therapy (Naomi Feil) honors the emotional reality behind the words rather than correcting facts. The CNA acknowledges the underlying feeling (love for her children) and offers reminiscence and gentle redirection. Direct contradiction (a) increases agitation. Reality orientation (c) is appropriate only in early dementia or delirium; in moderate-to-severe dementia it causes distress. Ignoring (d) is dismissive and may be psychological neglect under 42 CFR §483.12. 42 CFR §483.40 requires behavioral health services that meet each resident's needs.

42 CFR §483.40; Title 22 CCR §72315
18. A resident with dementia becomes agitated, paces the hallway, and cries every afternoon around 4 p.m. This pattern is BEST described as:
a.Sundowning✓
b.Stage 4 Alzheimer's plateau
c.Normal mid-day fatigue
d.Acute delirium

Sundowning is increased confusion, agitation, restlessness, or anxiety occurring in the late afternoon or evening in residents with dementia. Contributing factors: fatigue, lighting changes, hunger, unmet toileting needs. CNA interventions: maintain routine, increase daytime light, reduce noise, offer a snack, and engage in calming activities. Delirium (d) is an acute, fluctuating confusion usually from infection or medication and requires nurse evaluation. A 'stage 4 plateau' (b) is not a clinical term. Normal fatigue (c) does not explain consistent agitation. 42 CFR §483.40 requires individualized behavioral interventions.

42 CFR §483.40; Title 22 CCR §72315
19. Which activity is MOST appropriate to offer a resident with moderate dementia who enjoyed gardening throughout her life?
a.Completing a 1000-piece jigsaw puzzle independently in the day room
b.A sensory activity such as planting seeds in a small pot with the CNA's hands-on assistance✓
c.Watching a fast-paced action movie alone in her room after lunch
d.Attending a three-hour lecture on horticulture with a group of other residents in the day room

Therapeutic activities for residents with dementia should match retained abilities, draw on lifelong interests, and offer sensory engagement and success. Hands-on planting honors her identity and provides tactile, olfactory, and visual stimulation. A long lecture (d) exceeds attention span and causes frustration. Isolated movie watching (c) increases agitation and provides no engagement. A 1000-piece puzzle (a) is far beyond cognitive capacity and causes failure. 42 CFR §483.24 requires activities that maintain psychosocial well-being; 42 CFR §483.10 protects the right to make choices about activities.

42 CFR §483.10; 42 CFR §483.24
20. A new resident eats every meal alone in her room and tells the CNA, 'No one here knows me.' The MOST appropriate restorative-psychosocial response is to:
a.Document that she has refused to socialize, note it in the shift report, and take no further action until the next care conference in six weeks
b.Suggest to the family that she be moved to a different facility nearby
c.Insist that she attend every group activity on the calendar each day
d.Report her statement to the nurse, learn about her interests and culture, and gradually introduce her to compatible residents and activities✓

Loneliness and isolation accelerate cognitive and functional decline. 42 CFR §483.24(c) requires the facility to support psychosocial well-being and meaningful activities. The CNA's role: report the statement to the nurse for care-plan revision, learn about the resident's culture, language, faith, and hobbies, and offer graduated socialization. Documenting without action (a) is neglectful. Forcing attendance (c) violates the right to choose under 42 CFR §483.10. Transfer (b) is not a CNA decision and does not address the underlying need. Title 22 CCR §72381 covers activity programs.

42 CFR §483.24(c); Title 22 CCR §72381

Last reviewed: · editorial process

PrepPass team · Verified against California CDPH + D&S Diversified · How we review

What's on the California Certified Nursing Assistant exam (D&S Diversified / Headmaster)?

The California Certified Nursing Assistant exam (D&S Diversified / Headmaster) is administered by the California Department of Public Health (CDPH); training under HSC §1276.5. The topic weights below are a PrepPass estimate, not figures published by the California Department of Public Health (CDPH); training under HSC §1276.5.

Questions
Not published by CDPH
Time limit
Not published by CDPH
Passing score
Not published by CDPH

Every figure above, with the document it came from and the date we read it →

Topic blueprint

  • 20%
    Basic Nursing Skills
  • 17%
    Legal & Ethical
  • 15%
    Safety & Infection Control
  • 10%
    Patient Rights
  • 10%
    Communication & Culture
  • 10%
    Restorative Care
  • 10%
    Mental Health
  • 8%
    Emotional Support
PrepPass team · Verified against California Department of Public Health (CDPH); training under HSC §1276.5 · How we review

How hard is the exam?

Moderate. There is no single California CNA written exam: CDPH approves several testing vendors and publishes none of the mechanics itself. D&SDT-Headmaster's knowledge exam is 75 questions in 60 minutes; Credentia's written examination is 70 questions, 60 of them scored, and Credentia publishes no cut score at all. Whichever vendor you sit, there is a separate skills/clinical portion, and the written portion tests resident rights, safety/infection control, and basic nursing skills.

Recommended study hours
30-60 hours of written review (separate from the required 160-hour HSC §1276.5 training)
Pass rate
We read CDPH (California Department of Public Health)'s own published material in September 2026 and there is no pass rate in it. There is also no national CNA pass rate, because there is no national CNA exam: each state contracts its own vendor. Some states do publish — Minnesota posts nurse-aide results for every approved training program — so check your own state registry rather than any prep site.Source: CDPH — Certified Nurse Assistant (California Department of Public Health) · Minnesota Department of Health — Nurse Aide Registry test data by training program (an example of a state that does publish)
Where to focus first
Basic Nursing Skills (20% of exam) and Safety & Infection Control (15%) — focus practice rounds on these topic chips.

Fees and salaries are approximate and change over time. The pass rate above is quoted from the source linked beside it, for the period that source covers — where we have not checked a source, we say so and give no number.

Frequently asked questions

How many California CNA practice questions are here?+

200 original practice questions across all 8 topics of the California CNA written exam, with answers, explanations, and statute citations on 200 of the 200 questions (42 CFR §483, HSC §1276.5, Title 22 CCR §72527, W&I §15630, HIPAA, OSHA, CDPH guidance).

Is this CNA practice test free?+

Yes — completely free with no signup required. You can take unlimited practice rounds without creating an account.

Are these the real California CNA exam questions?+

No. All 200 questions are original prose authored from public-domain sources (federal CFR, California HSC and W&I codes, Title 22 CCR, CDPH guidelines, ANA standards). We never copy from the real D&S Diversified exam.

What's the passing score for the California CNA exam?+

CDPH publishes none, and the approved testing vendors do not agree: one sets a numeric cut score on its knowledge portion and the other publishes no numeric cut score for its written or oral examination at all. Each vendor's own wording, with the handbook it came from, is on our CNA exam-facts page. You must ALSO pass a 5-skill demonstration scored by a state-approved evaluator.

Is the California CNA exam available in Spanish, Chinese, or Vietnamese?+

The official CNA knowledge exam is offered in English and Spanish by D&S Diversified. PrepPass provides all 200 practice questions in English, 中文, Español, and Tiếng Việt so Filipino, Vietnamese, Chinese, and Latina caregivers can study in their strongest language first.

Why is California's CNA training 160 hours (vs federal 75)?+

HSC §1276.5 sets California's training requirement higher than the federal 75-hour minimum: 60 hours classroom + 100 hours supervised clinical = 160 hours total. The wage boost under SB 525 (healthcare workers reach $23/hr in June 2026) is driving more entrants — making this exam one of the most in-demand in California.

Is there a study guide for the California CNA (Certified Nursing Assistant)?+

Yes. PrepPass sells CNA — Complete Study Guide (2026), a PDF + EPUB download, $19.99 one-time; the practice on this page stays free without it. See the study guide →

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