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1. A CNA is providing restorative nursing care to a resident recovering from a hip fracture. Under 42 CFR §483.24, what is the PRIMARY goal of restorative care?

42 CFR §483.24 (Quality of Life) and §483.25 (Quality of Care) require facilities to assist each resident to 'attain or maintain his or her highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being.' Restorative nursing focuses on preserving and regaining function, preventing decline, and promoting independence in ADLs. Doing tasks FOR the resident (c) fosters dependency and violates restorative principles. Hospital return (a) and preventing departure (d) are unrelated to restorative goals. Title 22 CCR §72315 obligates nursing services to support each resident's functional abilities.

2. A resident has right-sided hemiplegia following a CVA but can move the left side normally. The care plan calls for the resident to lift and move the right arm using the left hand. This type of exercise is called:

Active-assistive ROM (AAROM) occurs when the resident moves a weaker limb with help from the stronger limb (self-assist) or from the CNA. Passive ROM (a) means the CNA moves the joint while the resident does no work — used when the resident cannot move at all. Active ROM means the resident moves independently with no assistance. Resistive (b) adds external force against motion (rehab/PT). Isometric (d) is muscle tightening without joint movement. Per 42 CFR §483.25(c), facilities must prevent decline in ROM unless clinically unavoidable.

3. A CNA is preparing to perform a sit-to-stand transfer with a resident who has mild left leg weakness. Which action BEST promotes safety and resident independence?

Per Title 22 CCR §72315, transfers must protect both resident and staff. The correct technique: apply a gait belt at the waist, position feet flat and shoulder-width apart, have resident lean forward (nose-over-toes), and rise on a counted cue using their own leg strength. Lifting under the arms (b) can cause shoulder dislocation and removes the active component. Grabbing the CNA's neck (c) risks cervical injury to staff. Skipping the gait belt (d) violates safe-handling policies under 42 CFR §483.25(d) (accident prevention).

4. A resident uses a standard cane for ambulation due to mild right leg weakness. On which side should the cane be held, and which leg moves first?

The cane is held on the STRONG side, opposite the weak leg, to widen the base of support and shift weight away from the affected limb. Sequence: cane and weak leg advance together, then the strong leg steps past. Placing the cane on the weak side (a, c) reduces stability and increases fall risk. Sequence does matter (d) — incorrect order can cause loss of balance. 42 CFR §483.25(d) requires the facility to ensure residents receive adequate supervision and assistive devices to prevent accidents.

5. A resident using a standard walker begins to fall forward during ambulation. The CNA is walking slightly behind with a gait belt applied. What is the CNA's CORRECT response?

When a resident is falling, the CNA must NEVER try to stop the fall by lifting (causes back injury and may injure resident). The correct procedure is controlled lowering: widen your stance, bend knees, ease the resident down your leg using the gait belt, and protect the head. Yanking (a) can cause rotator-cuff or rib injury. Stepping away (b) breaches duty of care. Lifting solo (d) violates safe-patient-handling policy under 42 CFR §483.25(d) and Title 22 CCR §72315. After the fall, call for help, assess, and complete an incident report.

6. A resident with mild dementia repeatedly asks the CNA to button her blouse because 'it's faster when you do it.' The care plan lists 'encourage self-dressing with verbal cues.' What is the BEST response?

42 CFR §483.24(b) requires the facility to support each resident's ability to perform ADLs and to prevent decline. Doing tasks for the resident (a) accelerates functional loss. Walking away (b) is dismissive and may be psychological neglect. Documenting refusal (c) mischaracterizes the situation — the resident is asking for support, not refusing. The correct approach uses graded assistance: verbal cueing, hand-over-hand if needed, breaking the task into small steps. This honors the care plan and the resident's dignity per Title 22 CCR §72315.

7. A resident is on a bladder-retraining program. Which CNA action BEST supports the program?

42 CFR §483.25(e) addresses urinary incontinence and requires facilities to assist residents to maintain or restore continence. Scheduled (prompted) toileting plus positive reinforcement is the evidence-based approach. Immediate briefing (a) defeats the program. Fluid restriction (c) causes dehydration, UTIs, and concentrated urine that worsens incontinence — and is not a CNA decision. Catheterization (d) is a medical order, increases infection risk (CAUTI), and is a last resort under federal regulation. Title 22 CCR §72315 obligates nursing care to support function.

8. A resident with rheumatoid arthritis has difficulty gripping a standard fork. Which adaptive intervention BEST promotes independent eating?

Adaptive utensils (built-up handles, rocker knives), plate guards, and non-slip mats allow residents with limited grip or coordination to feed themselves — preserving independence and dignity. Feeding entirely (a) creates dependency. Diet changes (b) are physician/dietitian decisions; CNAs cannot alter diet orders. Withholding food (d) is neglect under 42 CFR §483.12 (abuse/neglect prohibition). 42 CFR §483.25 requires support of nutritional status and functional ability; Title 22 CCR §72315 requires the nursing service to meet daily living needs.

9. A bedbound resident has not had ROM exercises for several days. The CNA notices the resident's fingers are curling tightly toward the palm and cannot be opened easily. This finding is MOST consistent with:

A contracture is permanent shortening of muscles, tendons, or joint capsules due to immobility, leading to a fixed deformity. It is a preventable complication; once established, it severely limits function and hygiene. 42 CFR §483.25(c) states a resident with limited ROM must receive appropriate treatment and services to increase ROM or prevent further decrease. Aging alone does not cause contractures (b). It is not strength (c) and does not reverse on its own (d). The CNA must report and document immediately so the nurse can adjust the care plan.

10. To prevent foot drop in a bedbound resident, the CNA should:

Foot drop (plantar flexion contracture) develops when the foot remains pointed downward. Prevention: keep ankles in dorsiflexion (90 degrees) using a foot board, high-tops, or prescribed splints, with frequent ROM. Feet hanging off the bed (a) causes plantar flexion. Pillows under the knees (c) cause hip and knee flexion contractures and impair circulation. Tight top sheets (d) push toes into plantar flexion — instead, use a bed cradle or loose sheet. 42 CFR §483.25(b)/(c) require prevention of avoidable decline.

11. A CNA observes a small area of intact skin on a resident's sacrum that is red and does not blanch (turn white) when pressed. This finding is classified as:

NPIAP staging: Stage 1 = intact skin with non-blanchable erythema (redness that does not turn white when pressed). Stage 2 = partial-thickness loss with exposed dermis. Stage 3 = full-thickness loss with visible subcutaneous fat. Stage 4 = full-thickness loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. Unstageable (c) = depth obscured by slough/eschar. DTI (d) = persistent non-blanchable deep red, maroon, or purple discoloration suggesting deeper damage under intact or non-intact skin. CNAs must report any new redness immediately per 42 CFR §483.25(b) and Title 22 CCR §72523 (incident reporting).

12. Standard repositioning frequency for a bedbound resident at risk for pressure injury is:

The federal and CA standard of care is repositioning at least every 2 hours for bedbound residents, with more frequent turning for higher-risk individuals (cachexia, vasopressors, prior pressure injury). Specialty surfaces do not eliminate the need to turn. Less frequent turning (a, b) allows ischemia and tissue death. Waiting for requests (d) fails residents who cannot communicate and constitutes neglect under 42 CFR §483.12. The CNA documents turning times and any skin findings. Title 22 CCR §72315 requires the nursing care plan to be followed.

13. When positioning a bedbound resident, which technique BEST protects the heels from pressure injury?

Heels have minimal subcutaneous tissue and high pressure injury risk. The standard of care is to FLOAT the heels by placing a pillow lengthwise under the lower legs from below the knee to above the ankle, with heels completely off the surface. A pillow under the Achilles (a) still allows heel contact. Tight stockings (c) may impair circulation and require a physician order. Vigorous massage (d) is contraindicated — it can shear fragile capillaries and worsen tissue damage. 42 CFR §483.25(b) requires prevention of pressure ulcers when avoidable.

14. A resident recovering from a left CVA has right-sided hemiplegia and mild dysphagia. Which CNA action is MOST appropriate at mealtime?

Dysphagia care requires upright positioning (90 degrees), small bites, food placed on the UNAFFECTED side (the resident has sensation and motor control there), chin-tuck if ordered, and observation for coughing, pocketing, or wet voice. Feeding lying flat (a) causes aspiration. Mixing foods (b) is unappetizing and does not improve swallow safety. Placing food on the affected side (c) causes pocketing and aspiration. 42 CFR §483.25 and Title 22 CCR §72315 require staff to follow the care plan and prevent avoidable harm such as aspiration pneumonia.

15. A resident with expressive aphasia after a stroke struggles to find words. The BEST CNA approach is to:

Expressive (Broca's) aphasia means the resident understands but has difficulty producing speech. Best practice: allow processing time, use simple closed-ended questions, offer picture/letter boards, and let the resident finish their own thoughts. Speaking loudly (b) confuses the issue with hearing loss. Avoiding speech (c) violates the resident's right to communication and dignity under 42 CFR §483.10. Forcing writing (d) ignores that writing is often also impaired. Title 22 CCR §72527 protects communication rights.

16. A resident with Parkinson's disease has shuffling gait, a forward stoop, and freezing episodes. Which intervention BEST reduces fall risk?

Parkinson's gait freezing responds to visual or auditory cues — tape lines on the floor, counting aloud, or a marching cadence helps re-initiate movement. Rushing (a) increases falls. Carrying (c) eliminates therapeutic movement and is unsafe. Restricting ambulation between doses (d) is not the CNA's call and ignores fluctuating 'on-off' periods. The CNA should also clear paths, use a gait belt, and report any new freezing or worsening tremor to the nurse per 42 CFR §483.25(d) and Title 22 CCR §72315.

17. A resident with moderate Alzheimer's dementia insists she must 'go pick up the children from school' although her children are grown. Which response BEST uses validation therapy?

Validation therapy (Naomi Feil) honors the emotional reality behind the words rather than correcting facts. The CNA acknowledges the underlying feeling (love for her children) and offers reminiscence and gentle redirection. Direct contradiction (a) increases agitation. Reality orientation (b) is appropriate only in early dementia or delirium; in moderate-to-severe dementia it causes distress. Ignoring (d) is dismissive and may be psychological neglect under 42 CFR §483.12. 42 CFR §483.40 requires behavioral health services that meet each resident's needs.

18. A resident with dementia becomes agitated, paces the hallway, and cries every afternoon around 4 p.m. This pattern is BEST described as:

Sundowning is increased confusion, agitation, restlessness, or anxiety occurring in the late afternoon or evening in residents with dementia. Contributing factors: fatigue, lighting changes, hunger, unmet toileting needs. CNA interventions: maintain routine, increase daytime light, reduce noise, offer a snack, and engage in calming activities. Delirium (a) is an acute, fluctuating confusion usually from infection or medication and requires nurse evaluation. A 'stage 4 plateau' (c) is not a clinical term. Normal fatigue (d) does not explain consistent agitation. 42 CFR §483.40 requires individualized behavioral interventions.

19. Which activity is MOST appropriate to offer a resident with moderate dementia who enjoyed gardening throughout her life?

Therapeutic activities for residents with dementia should match retained abilities, draw on lifelong interests, and offer sensory engagement and success. Hands-on planting honors her identity and provides tactile, olfactory, and visual stimulation. A long lecture (b) exceeds attention span and causes frustration. Isolated movie watching (c) increases agitation and provides no engagement. A 1000-piece puzzle (d) is far beyond cognitive capacity and causes failure. 42 CFR §483.24 requires activities that maintain psychosocial well-being; 42 CFR §483.10 protects the right to make choices about activities.

20. A new resident eats every meal alone in her room and tells the CNA, 'No one here knows me.' The MOST appropriate restorative-psychosocial response is to:

Loneliness and isolation accelerate cognitive and functional decline. 42 CFR §483.24(c) requires the facility to support psychosocial well-being and meaningful activities. The CNA's role: report the statement to the nurse for care-plan revision, learn about the resident's culture, language, faith, and hobbies, and offer graduated socialization. Documenting without action (a) is neglectful. Forcing attendance (b) violates the right to choose under 42 CFR §483.10. Transfer (d) is not a CNA decision and does not address the underlying need. Title 22 CCR §72381 covers activity programs.