CSLB General Building (B) Trade Practice Test
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How many NASAA Series 65 practice questions are here?+
A full bank of original NASAA Series 65 practice questions across the official content areas, weighted like the real exam, with explanations. Free, no signup.
What is the NASAA Series 65 exam like?+
About 130 questions, 180 minutes, and you need 72% to pass. Practice by topic here, then take the full timed mock exam to gauge readiness.
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PrepPass practice is in English, 中文 and Español. The official exam is in English — switch the question language to English any time to rehearse the exact terminology you'll see on test day.
Sample practice questions
A few real questions from this free bank, with full explanations. Use the practice tool above for the whole set.
- 1. Economics & Analysis
During the contraction phase of the business cycle, which of the following typically occurs?
- a.Gross domestic product rises for at least two consecutive quarters
- b.Unemployment rises while business inventories tend to increase
- c.Consumer spending accelerates and corporate profits expand
- d.The central bank aggressively raises short-term interest rates
Answer: b
Explanation: A contraction is marked by falling output, rising unemployment, and weakening demand, which often leaves unsold goods and swelling inventories. Two consecutive quarters of rising GDP describe an expansion, not a contraction. Central banks generally cut rates during downturns to stimulate activity.
- 2. Economics & Analysis
The Consumer Price Index (CPI) is primarily used to measure which of the following?
- a.The total output of the economy
- b.The unemployment level
- c.Corporate earnings growth
- d.Changes in the price level of a basket of consumer goods and services
Answer: d
Explanation: The CPI tracks the average change over time in prices paid by consumers for a representative basket of goods and services, serving as a common inflation gauge. Total output is measured by GDP. Unemployment and corporate earnings are separate economic statistics.
- 3. Investment Vehicles
Which statement about exchange-traded funds (ETFs) is accurate?
- a.ETFs are redeemed only once per day at net asset value
- b.ETFs trade throughout the day on an exchange at market prices
- c.ETFs are prohibited from tracking an index
- d.ETFs cannot be bought on margin or sold short
Answer: b
Explanation: ETFs trade intraday on exchanges at market-determined prices, unlike open-end mutual funds that transact at end-of-day NAV. Many ETFs are designed to track an index. Because they trade like stocks, ETFs can generally be bought on margin and sold short.
- 4. Investment Vehicles
Commercial paper is best described as which of the following?
- a.A long-term corporate bond secured by real estate
- b.A government-guaranteed savings instrument
- c.Short-term, unsecured corporate debt used for near-term financing
- d.A perpetual security with no maturity date
Answer: c
Explanation: Commercial paper is short-term unsecured corporate debt, typically maturing in 270 days or less, used to fund short-term needs like payroll and inventory. It is a money-market instrument issued at a discount. It is not government guaranteed and carries the issuer's credit risk.
- 5. Recommendations & Strategies
Diversification within a portfolio is primarily intended to reduce which type of risk?
- a.Unsystematic (company-specific) risk
- b.Systematic (market) risk
- c.Interest rate risk on all bonds
- d.Purchasing power risk
Answer: a
Explanation: Diversification spreads investments across many securities and sectors to reduce unsystematic risk, which is specific to individual companies or industries. Systematic or market risk affects the entire market and cannot be diversified away. This distinction is fundamental to portfolio construction.
- 6. Recommendations & Strategies
The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) expresses the expected return of a security as a function of which of the following?
- a.Only the security's dividend yield
- b.The company's book value alone
- c.The risk-free rate plus beta times the market risk premium
- d.The security's standard deviation only
Answer: c
Explanation: CAPM states that a security's expected return equals the risk-free rate plus its beta multiplied by the market risk premium (the market return minus the risk-free rate). It links expected return to systematic risk as measured by beta. Total risk measured by standard deviation is not the CAPM input.
- 7. Recommendations & Strategies
A required minimum distribution (RMD) generally applies to which type of account?
- a.A Roth IRA during the original owner's lifetime
- b.A traditional IRA once the owner reaches the applicable age
- c.A taxable brokerage account
- d.A 529 education savings plan
Answer: b
Explanation: Traditional IRAs and similar pre-tax retirement accounts require minimum distributions beginning at the age set by law, ensuring the deferred amounts are eventually taxed. Roth IRAs are not subject to RMDs during the original owner's lifetime. Taxable brokerage and 529 accounts have no RMD requirement.
- 8. Laws & Regulations
Which of the following best distinguishes the fiduciary standard from a suitability standard?
- a.Suitability requires eliminating all conflicts of interest
- b.A fiduciary must act in the client's best interest and disclose or avoid conflicts, not merely recommend an acceptable product
- c.The fiduciary standard applies only to broker-dealers
- d.Suitability requires putting the client's interest first at all times
Answer: b
Explanation: A fiduciary must place the client's interests first, manage or disclose conflicts of interest, and provide advice in the client's best interest. A suitability standard only requires that a recommendation be appropriate given the client's profile, without the same loyalty and conflict-management duties. This distinction is heavily tested for investment advisers.
Source: Investment Advisers Act of 1940
- 9. Laws & Regulations
An adviser wishing to enter into an agency cross transaction (acting as broker for both sides) must generally do which of the following?
- a.Obtain prior written client consent and disclose the conflict
- b.Never disclose the arrangement to clients
- c.Guarantee the client a profit
- d.Charge a performance fee
Answer: a
Explanation: An adviser engaging in an agency cross transaction, acting as broker for both the advisory client and the other party, must obtain the client's prior written consent, disclose the conflict of interest, and comply with related requirements. This protects clients from undisclosed conflicts. Such transactions may not be recommended to both sides of the trade.
Source: Investment Advisers Act of 1940
- 10. Laws & Regulations
A federal covered adviser doing business in a state is generally subject to which state requirement?
- a.Full state registration and examination by the Administrator
- b.No state involvement of any kind
- c.State approval of its advisory contracts before use
- d.A notice filing and payment of applicable fees, plus state antifraud jurisdiction
Answer: d
Explanation: A federal covered adviser, registered with the SEC, is not subject to duplicative state registration, but a state may require a notice filing and fees and still enforce its antifraud provisions. This preserves federal-state coordination under the National Securities Markets Improvement Act framework. States cannot impose full registration on federal covered advisers.
Source: Uniform Securities Act