Oregon Contractor License Exam — All Questions

A construction business is organized as a corporation. If the corporation is sued and cannot pay a judgment, what is generally at risk?

• a.The personal homes and bank accounts of every shareholder
• b.The personal assets of the highest-paid officer only
• c.The assets owned by the corporation itself, not the shareholders' personal assets✓
• d.Nothing, because corporations cannot be sued

A corporation is a separate legal entity from its owners (shareholders). This separation creates limited liability: creditors and judgments generally reach only the assets the corporation owns, and shareholders risk losing only what they invested — not their personal homes or savings. That protection can be lost only in unusual cases such as fraud or 'piercing the corporate veil.'

In a general partnership, how are the general partners liable for the debts of the business?

• a.Only up to the amount each partner originally invested
• b.Personally and jointly liable for all partnership debts✓
• c.Not liable at all, because the partnership pays its own debts
• d.Liable only for debts they personally signed for

A general partnership does not shield its owners. Each general partner has unlimited personal liability and is jointly liable for the partnership's debts and obligations — a creditor can pursue any partner's personal assets. This unlimited exposure is a key reason many contractors instead form an LLC or corporation, which provide limited liability.

Which statement best describes a limited liability company (LLC) for a contracting business?

• a.It gives owners limited liability while normally allowing profits to pass through to owners' personal tax returns✓
• b.It requires the business to pay corporate income tax and forbids pass-through taxation
• c.It makes every member personally liable for all company debts
• d.It can be owned by only one person and never by a group

An LLC combines the liability protection of a corporation with the tax flexibility of a partnership. Members are generally shielded from personal liability for business debts, and by default the LLC's profits and losses 'pass through' to the members' individual tax returns, avoiding the double taxation of a standard C corporation. An LLC may have one member or many.

A contractor's total direct cost for a job is $18,000. The contractor adds a 15% markup to cover overhead and profit. What is the bid price?

• a.$18,150
• b.$18,270
• c.$20,700✓
• d.$21,150

Markup is a percentage added on top of cost. Multiply the cost by (1 + markup): $18,000 x 1.15 = $20,700. The markup dollars are $18,000 x 0.15 = $2,700, which is added to the $18,000 cost to reach the bid price. Markup covers both company overhead and profit.

A job costs the contractor $8,000. The contractor wants a 20% gross profit MARGIN (profit as a percentage of the selling price). What must the selling price be?

• a.$9,600
• b.$10,000✓
• c.$9,800
• d.$10,400

Margin is measured against the selling price, not the cost, so you cannot simply add 20% to cost. Price = cost / (1 - margin) = $8,000 / (1 - 0.20) = $8,000 / 0.80 = $10,000. Check: profit is $2,000, and $2,000 / $10,000 = 20% margin. Adding 20% to cost ($9,600) would only give a 16.7% margin — a common and costly estimating error.

How many cubic yards of concrete are needed for a slab 27 ft long, 30 ft wide, and 4 inches thick?

• a.3.3 cubic yards
• b.6.7 cubic yards
• c.8.5 cubic yards
• d.10 cubic yards✓

First convert thickness to feet: 4 in / 12 = 0.3333 ft. Volume in cubic feet = 27 x 30 x 0.3333 = 270 cubic feet. Convert to cubic yards by dividing by 27 (there are 27 cubic feet in a cubic yard): 270 / 27 = 10 cubic yards. Getting units consistent — feet for all three dimensions — is the key step.

On a project where the exact quantities of excavation and fill are not yet known, which bidding method best protects both owner and contractor from large quantity surprises?

• a.A unit-price contract, paying a set price per unit for the actual quantity installed✓
• b.A lump-sum contract with no measurement of quantities
• c.A verbal handshake agreement
• d.A cost-plus contract with no cost records kept

Unit pricing sets a fixed price per unit (for example, per cubic yard of excavation), and the contractor is paid for the actual measured quantity. This fairly handles uncertain quantities: the owner pays only for work performed, and the contractor is protected if quantities grow. A lump sum forces the contractor to guess and gamble on the quantity, which is risky when the amount is genuinely unknown.

Which set of elements is generally required for a contract to be legally valid and enforceable?

• a.A notary stamp, a witness, and a deposit
• b.A blueprint, a permit, and a bond
• c.Offer, acceptance, consideration, legal capacity, and a lawful purpose✓
• d.A handshake, a logo, and an invoice

A valid contract requires an offer, acceptance of that offer (mutual assent), consideration (something of value exchanged by each side), parties with legal capacity to contract, and a lawful purpose. If any element is missing — for example, no consideration or an illegal objective — the agreement may be void or unenforceable. Notaries, permits, and bonds are sometimes useful but are not the core elements of contract formation.

A construction contract states that the contractor will pay the owner $500 for each day the project finishes late, agreed in advance as a reasonable estimate of the owner's loss. This clause is best described as:

• a.A performance bond
• b.A liquidated damages clause✓
• c.A mechanic's lien
• d.A punitive penalty that courts always strike down

Liquidated damages are a dollar amount the parties agree to IN ADVANCE as compensation for a breach (commonly late completion) when the actual loss would be hard to calculate. To be enforceable the amount must be a reasonable pre-estimate of the harm, not a punishment. A performance bond is a surety guarantee, and a mechanic's lien secures payment for labor and materials — different tools entirely.

The owner asks the contractor to add a bathroom that was not in the original signed contract. What is the correct way to authorize and price this added work?

• a.A written change order signed by both parties before the work proceeds✓
• b.A verbal 'go ahead' with no documentation
• c.An adjustment made quietly on the final invoice
• d.A new lawsuit filed against the owner

A change order is a written amendment that documents a modification to the scope, price, or schedule and is signed by both parties. Handling changes in writing before performing the work protects the contractor's right to be paid for the extra work and prevents disputes about what was authorized. Relying on verbal approvals is a leading cause of payment disputes.

Under the Statute of Frauds, which of the following is generally required to be in writing to be enforceable?

• a.A one-hour verbal agreement to sweep a job site
• b.A casual promise to lend a friend a hammer
• c.An agreement to buy lunch for the crew
• d.A contract for the sale of land or an interest in real property✓

The Statute of Frauds requires certain categories of contracts to be in writing and signed to be enforceable — most notably contracts for the sale of land or interests in real property, and agreements that cannot be performed within one year. This is why construction and real-property agreements are documented in writing. Minor, short, everyday arrangements are not covered.

In a Critical Path Method (CPM) schedule, the 'critical path' is:

• a.The path with the most expensive activities
• b.The longest sequence of dependent activities, which determines the shortest possible project duration✓
• c.The path that uses the newest equipment
• d.Any path that has the most float

The critical path is the longest chain of dependent activities through the network. Because it is the longest path, it sets the minimum time in which the whole project can finish. Activities on the critical path have zero float — delaying any one of them delays the entire project. It is about time and dependency, not cost or equipment.

'Float' (also called slack) for a scheduled activity means:

• a.The amount of time an activity can be delayed without delaying the project's completion date✓
• b.The amount of money left in the activity's budget
• c.The number of extra workers assigned to the activity
• d.The percentage of the activity that is already complete

Float (slack) is the scheduling flexibility of an activity — how long it can slip before it pushes out the project finish date. Activities on the critical path have zero float. Understanding float lets a manager shift non-critical work and reallocate crews without harming the overall completion date. It is a measure of time flexibility, not money or manpower.

During construction the contractor finds the plans and specifications conflict and needs clarification from the architect. The standard document used to formally ask this question is a:

• a.Certificate of occupancy
• b.Lien waiver
• c.Request for Information (RFI)✓
• d.Notice to proceed

A Request for Information (RFI) is the formal, written channel a contractor uses to ask the design team to clarify or resolve gaps, conflicts, or ambiguities in the drawings and specifications. Documenting questions and answers through RFIs creates a paper trail, avoids guesswork, and supports later claims if the answer changes the cost or schedule.

What is the primary purpose of a Gantt (bar) chart on a construction project?

• a.To calculate payroll taxes for each employee
• b.To show project activities as bars along a timeline so start dates, durations, and overlaps are easy to see✓
• c.To record the exact chemical composition of the concrete
• d.To replace the need for any building permits

A Gantt chart displays each task as a horizontal bar positioned and sized along a time axis, making it easy to communicate when activities start and finish, how long they take, and where they overlap. It is a scheduling and communication tool. It does not perform payroll, material testing, or permitting functions.

A contracting company has current assets of $240,000 and current liabilities of $120,000. What is its current ratio?

• a.0.5 to 1
• b.1.2 to 1
• c.2.0 to 1✓
• d.12 to 1

Current ratio = current assets / current liabilities = $240,000 / $120,000 = 2.0. A ratio of 2.0 means the company has $2 of short-term assets for every $1 of short-term debt, which generally indicates healthy short-term liquidity. Sureties and lenders watch this ratio closely; a ratio below 1.0 signals the company may struggle to pay near-term obligations.

Working capital is calculated as:

• a.Current assets minus current liabilities✓
• b.Total revenue minus total expenses for the year
• c.The value of all equipment the company owns
• d.The owner's original cash investment

Working capital = current assets - current liabilities. It measures the short-term funds available to run daily operations, buy materials, meet payroll, and absorb delays before receivables come in. Positive working capital is essential in construction because contractors often pay costs long before the owner pays them. It is different from annual net profit and from equipment value.

On a project, the owner withholds 10% from each progress payment until the work is satisfactorily completed. This withheld amount is called:

• a.A liquidated damage
• b.Retainage (retention)✓
• c.A change order
• d.Overhead

Retainage (retention) is a portion of each progress payment the owner holds back — commonly 5% to 10% — and releases after the contractor satisfactorily completes the work and addresses punch-list items. It gives the owner leverage to ensure completion, but it also strains the contractor's cash flow, so contractors must plan for it and pass appropriate retainage terms down to subcontractors.

Why do contractors use job costing (tracking costs to each specific project)?

• a.Because the law forbids one combined company bank account
• b.To avoid ever having to file a tax return
• c.Only to make the paperwork look more professional
• d.To compare actual costs against the estimate for each job and see which jobs are profitable✓

Job costing assigns labor, materials, equipment, and subcontractor costs to each individual project. This lets the contractor compare actual costs to the original estimate in real time, catch overruns early, price future work more accurately, and identify which types of jobs actually make money. Without job costing, a company can be busy and still lose money without knowing which project caused the loss.

Under OSHA construction standards, at what height above a lower level does fall protection generally become required for workers on a construction site?

• a.2 feet
• b.4 feet
• c.6 feet✓
• d.20 feet

OSHA's construction fall-protection rule (29 CFR 1926.501) generally requires protection — such as guardrails, safety nets, or personal fall-arrest systems — when a worker is exposed to a fall of 6 feet or more to a lower level. (Note the general-industry trigger is 4 feet, but on construction sites the 6-foot rule applies.) Falls are consistently a leading cause of construction fatalities, which is why this threshold is heavily tested and enforced.

According to the hierarchy of controls, which method of protecting workers from a hazard is MOST effective and should be considered first?

• a.Eliminating the hazard entirely✓
• b.Providing personal protective equipment (PPE)
• c.Posting a warning sign
• d.Writing the hazard into a safety manual

The hierarchy of controls ranks protections from most to least effective: elimination, substitution, engineering controls, administrative controls, and finally PPE. Removing the hazard entirely is best because it does not depend on worker behavior or equipment holding up. PPE is the last line of defense — it only reduces exposure and relies on correct, consistent use, so it is the least reliable control on its own.

OSHA requires that a trench or excavation be protected by sloping, shoring, or a protective (trench) box once it reaches what depth?

• a.3 feet
• b.5 feet✓
• c.10 feet
• d.15 feet

Under OSHA's excavation standard (29 CFR 1926.652), a protective system — sloping/benching, shoring, or a trench box (shield) — is generally required for trenches 5 feet deep or greater (unless the excavation is entirely in stable rock). A registered professional engineer must design protection for trenches deeper than 20 feet. Cave-ins are frequently fatal, so a competent person must inspect excavations daily.

Who is responsible for providing a safe workplace and requiring the use of appropriate personal protective equipment on a job site?

• a.Only the individual workers themselves
• b.Only the equipment manufacturer
• c.Only OSHA inspectors
• d.The employer✓

Under the OSH Act's General Duty Clause and OSHA standards, the employer has the primary legal duty to furnish a workplace free from recognized hazards, to assess the job for hazards, and to provide and require appropriate PPE (often at no cost to the employee). Workers must follow safety rules and use provided equipment, but the core obligation to create a safe workplace rests with the employer.

An employee is injured while framing a house during work hours. Which system is designed to cover the employee's medical bills and lost wages regardless of who was at fault?

• a.The employee's personal auto insurance
• b.Workers' compensation insurance✓
• c.A performance bond
• d.The building permit fee

Workers' compensation is a no-fault system: an employee injured on the job receives medical care and partial wage replacement without having to prove the employer was negligent, and in exchange the employer is generally protected from most injury lawsuits. Carrying required workers' compensation coverage is a fundamental legal obligation for contractors with employees. A bond and a permit serve entirely different purposes.

Under the federal Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA), a covered nonexempt employee must generally be paid overtime for hours worked beyond:

• a.8 hours in a single day, in every state
• b.35 hours in a week
• c.40 hours in a workweek, at one-and-one-half times the regular rate✓
• d.60 hours in a week, at the regular rate

The FLSA sets the federal overtime rule: covered nonexempt employees must receive at least 1.5 times their regular rate for hours worked over 40 in a workweek. The federal standard is weekly, not daily (some states add their own daily-overtime rules, but the nationwide FLSA baseline is the 40-hour workweek). Misclassifying workers to dodge overtime is a common and costly violation.

Which factor most strongly suggests a worker should be classified as an EMPLOYEE rather than an independent contractor?

• a.The business controls how, when, and where the work is done and provides the tools✓
• b.The worker runs an independent business serving many clients and sets their own methods
• c.The worker supplies their own tools and can profit or lose based on their own decisions
• d.The worker is free to accept or reject jobs from many different companies

The central test for classification is the degree of control and independence. When the business directs how, when, and where the work is performed and supplies the tools, the worker looks like an employee. Independent contractors typically control their own methods, invest in their own tools, serve multiple clients, and bear the risk of profit or loss. Misclassifying employees as contractors to avoid taxes, overtime, and workers' comp is a serious and heavily penalized violation.

What is the purpose of Form I-9 that a contractor completes for each new hire?

• a.To calculate the employee's overtime rate
• b.To register the employee with the local building department
• c.To order the employee's personal protective equipment
• d.To verify the employee's identity and legal authorization to work in the United States✓

The federal Form I-9 is used to verify each new employee's identity and their authorization to work in the United States, as required by immigration law. Employers must complete and retain an I-9 for every employee and review acceptable documents. It is separate from tax forms (like the W-4) and from any safety, permitting, or payroll-rate functions.

What is the primary purpose of a building permit and the inspections that go with it?

• a.To generate extra tax revenue with no benefit to the public
• b.To confirm that the proposed work meets the applicable building codes for safety and to allow official inspection of the work✓
• c.To guarantee the contractor will make a profit on the job
• d.To replace the need for a written contract with the owner

A building permit is the jurisdiction's authorization to perform construction that meets the adopted building codes, and the required inspections verify that the work actually complies at key stages. The core purpose is protecting public health and safety — sound structures, safe electrical and plumbing systems, and proper egress. Permits are not a revenue trick, a profit guarantee, or a substitute for the owner-contractor contract.

Before a newly constructed building may be legally occupied, the building department typically must issue a:

• a.Certificate of occupancy✓
• b.Lien waiver
• c.Bid bond
• d.Change order

A certificate of occupancy (CO) is the document the building official issues after final inspections confirm the building complies with the code and is safe to occupy for its intended use. Occupying a building without a required CO can lead to fines and forced vacancy. A lien waiver relates to payment, a bid bond to the bidding process, and a change order to scope changes — none of them authorize occupancy.

A contractor must set a new house a minimum distance from the property line. Which type of rule most directly governs this required setback?

• a.The electrical code
• b.OSHA fall-protection standards
• c.Local zoning ordinances✓
• d.The workers' compensation statute

Setbacks — the minimum required distances between a structure and the property lines — are established by local zoning ordinances, which regulate how land may be used and where buildings may be placed. Building codes govern how a structure is built (its safety and construction), while zoning governs where and what may be built. Distinguishing zoning (land use) from building codes (construction standards) is a fundamental concept for contractors.

A standard C corporation is often described as facing 'double taxation.' What does that mean?

• a.The corporation must pay its state and federal taxes twice each year
• b.The corporation pays income tax on its profits, and shareholders again pay tax on dividends they receive✓
• c.Every shareholder must file two separate personal tax returns
• d.The business is taxed once when formed and once when dissolved

Double taxation refers to profits being taxed at two levels: first the C corporation pays corporate income tax on its earnings, then shareholders pay personal income tax on any dividends distributed to them. Owners often avoid this by electing S corporation status or forming an LLC, both of which allow profits to 'pass through' and be taxed only once on the owners' personal returns.

In many contracting businesses, a 'qualifying individual' or 'qualifier' is required. What is that person's role?

• a.A person with the required experience and passing exam score who stands behind the company's license and technical competence✓
• b.The company's largest outside investor
• c.The bank officer who approves the company's loans
• d.A government employee who inspects each finished job

A qualifying individual (qualifier) is the person who demonstrates the experience and passes the licensing exam, providing the technical competence that supports the company's contractor license. The qualifier is generally an owner, officer, or a responsible managing employee who is actively involved in the business, ensuring a knowledgeable person stands behind the licensed work.

'Piercing the corporate veil' refers to a situation where:

• a.A corporation issues new shares of stock to raise money
• b.The company changes its registered business name
• c.A shareholder voluntarily sells their ownership interest
• d.A court holds owners personally liable because they failed to keep the business separate from themselves✓

Limited liability normally shields owners' personal assets, but a court can 'pierce the corporate veil' and reach those personal assets when owners abuse the entity — for example, by commingling personal and business funds, failing to follow corporate formalities, undercapitalizing the business, or using it to commit fraud. Keeping business and personal finances strictly separate is the best protection against this.

A sole proprietor operates their contracting business under a name different from their own legal name (for example, 'Summit Remodeling'). What filing is typically required?

• a.A federal patent application
• b.A performance bond with the bank
• c.A fictitious business name (DBA, 'doing business as') registration✓
• d.Articles of incorporation with the securities regulator

When a business operates under a trade name that is not the owner's legal name, most jurisdictions require registering a fictitious business name, also called a DBA ('doing business as') or assumed name. This publicly links the trade name to the responsible owner so customers and creditors know who stands behind the business. It is not the same as incorporating, which creates a separate legal entity.

What is the main advantage of a sole proprietorship compared with a corporation?

• a.It is simple and inexpensive to start, with the fewest formalities✓
• b.It provides the owner with full personal liability protection
• c.It allows the business to sell shares of stock to the public
• d.It automatically avoids all federal income tax

A sole proprietorship's chief advantage is simplicity: it is fast, cheap, and has minimal formalities to form and operate, and its income is reported on the owner's personal tax return. The trade-off is that it offers no liability protection — the owner is personally responsible for all business debts. Selling stock and limited liability are features of a corporation, not a sole proprietorship.

A wall is 40 feet long and 8 feet high. How many 4 ft x 8 ft sheets of drywall are needed to cover one side, before adding any waste factor?

• a.8 sheets
• b.10 sheets✓
• c.12 sheets
• d.16 sheets

First find the wall area: 40 ft x 8 ft = 320 square feet. Each drywall sheet covers 4 ft x 8 ft = 32 square feet. Divide: 320 / 32 = 10 sheets. In practice an estimator adds a waste factor for cuts and breakage, but the base quantity is 10 sheets. Getting area and sheet coverage in the same units is the key step.

In estimating, what is a 'quantity takeoff'?

• a.The profit removed from a bid to win the job
• b.A discount a supplier takes off the material price
• c.Measuring and counting the materials and units of work required from the plans and specifications✓
• d.The final step of loading materials onto the truck

A quantity takeoff is the process of reviewing the drawings and specifications and measuring or counting every item of material and unit of work needed — cubic yards of concrete, squares of roofing, linear feet of pipe, and so on. It is the foundation of an accurate estimate: once quantities are known, the estimator applies unit costs for labor and materials to build the total price.

Why do estimators include a 'waste factor' when calculating material quantities?

• a.To account for material lost to cuts, breakage, and normal on-site waste✓
• b.To secretly increase the company's profit margin
• c.Because building codes require ordering exactly double the materials
• d.To cover the cost of the owner's change orders

A waste factor is an added percentage that covers material that is cut off, broken, damaged, or otherwise unusable during installation — for example, off-cuts of lumber, tile, or drywall. Ordering only the exact net quantity would leave a job short. The waste percentage varies by material and complexity, but including a reasonable allowance prevents shortages and costly reorders. It is not hidden profit.

A subcontractor gives the general contractor a firm price only after the bid is submitted, but the GC relied on that quoted number in the bid. This risk is best reduced by:

• a.Never using subcontractors on any project
• b.Guessing subcontractor prices and hoping they hold
• c.Ignoring subcontractor costs entirely in the estimate
• d.Obtaining firm, written subcontractor quotes before finalizing the bid✓

Because a large share of a general contractor's price often comes from subcontractors and suppliers, the GC should secure firm written quotes before submitting the bid. Relying on verbal or last-minute numbers exposes the GC to being bound to an owner at a price that no longer matches what subs will actually charge. Locking in written quotes protects the GC's margin against bid-day surprises.

A contractor pays a carpenter a base wage of $30 per hour, but the true cost per hour with taxes, insurance, and benefits is $42. The $42 figure is called the:

• a.Retail labor rate
• b.Burdened (fully loaded) labor rate✓
• c.Prevailing wage
• d.Overtime premium

The burdened, or fully loaded, labor rate includes the base wage plus all the added costs of employing the worker — payroll taxes, workers' compensation and liability insurance, and benefits. Estimating with only the base wage badly understates cost. Using the burdened rate ensures the estimate captures what the labor actually costs the company, which is essential to bidding profitably.

One roofing 'square' equals how many square feet of roof area?

• a.10 square feet
• b.50 square feet
• c.100 square feet✓
• d.1,000 square feet

In roofing, one 'square' is a standard unit equal to 100 square feet of roof surface. If a roof measures 2,400 square feet, it is 24 squares. Roofing materials and labor are commonly priced per square, so converting the measured area into squares (area divided by 100) is a routine and frequently tested estimating step.

A contractor's annual overhead is $120,000 and they expect to do $1,000,000 in direct job costs this year. What overhead markup percentage must be added to each job's costs just to recover overhead?

• a.12%✓
• b.8.3%
• c.20%
• d.1.2%

To recover overhead, spread it across the year's direct costs: $120,000 / $1,000,000 = 0.12, or 12%. So the contractor must add at least 12% to each job's direct cost just to break even on overhead — profit must be added on top of that. Setting markup below the overhead recovery rate is a classic way a busy company still loses money.

What is 'consideration' in contract law?

• a.The politeness the parties show one another during negotiations
• b.Something of value that each party gives or promises in exchange for the other's promise✓
• c.The amount of time the parties take to think before signing
• d.A notary's review of the signatures

Consideration is the bargained-for exchange of value that makes a promise legally binding — for example, the contractor promises to build, and the owner promises to pay money. Each side must give something of value. Without consideration, a promise is generally just a gift and is not an enforceable contract. It is a core element required for a valid contract.

A subcontractor supplied labor and materials but has not been paid. What legal tool lets them make a claim against the improved property to secure payment?

• a.A certificate of occupancy
• b.A performance bond
• c.A liquidated damages clause
• d.A mechanic's lien✓

A mechanic's lien (also called a construction or materialman's lien) is a legal claim that contractors, subcontractors, and suppliers can place against a property they improved when they have not been paid for labor or materials. It encumbers the title, giving the unpaid party security and leverage to collect. Specific filing deadlines and notice requirements vary by state, but the tool exists nationwide.

As a contractor receives progress payments, they sign documents giving up future lien rights for the work already paid. These documents are called:

• a.Lien waivers (lien releases)✓
• b.Change orders
• c.Submittals
• d.Notices to proceed

A lien waiver (or lien release) is a document in which a contractor, subcontractor, or supplier gives up the right to file a mechanic's lien for work or materials already paid for. Owners and lenders commonly require signed lien waivers before releasing each payment to confirm that the paid parties will not later lien the property. Conditional waivers take effect only once payment actually clears.

In a construction contract, what is a 'scope of work'?

• a.The total dollar amount the owner will pay
• b.The deadline by which the project must finish
• c.A clear description of exactly what work the contractor will and will not perform✓
• d.The list of workers assigned to the crew

The scope of work defines precisely what the contractor is responsible for building or providing — and, by implication, what is excluded. A clear, detailed scope is one of the best defenses against disputes, because it prevents disagreements over whether a task was included in the price. Vague scopes lead to arguments over 'extras' and change orders. Price and schedule are separate contract terms.

An indemnification (hold harmless) clause in a construction contract primarily does what?

• a.Sets the total contract price
• b.Shifts responsibility for certain losses or claims from one party to another✓
• c.Establishes the daily penalty for finishing late
• d.Guarantees the owner a certain profit

An indemnification, or hold-harmless, clause allocates risk by having one party agree to cover specified losses, damages, or third-party claims that the other party might otherwise bear. For example, a subcontractor may indemnify the general contractor against claims arising from the sub's work. Because these clauses can transfer significant liability, contractors should read them carefully and match them with appropriate insurance.

Which alternative dispute resolution method uses a neutral third party whose decision is typically binding on the parties, avoiding a court trial?

• a.Negotiation
• b.Litigation in civil court
• c.Mediation
• d.Arbitration✓

Arbitration submits a dispute to a neutral arbitrator (or panel) who hears both sides and renders a decision that is usually binding and enforceable, much like a private trial. It differs from mediation, in which a neutral only helps the parties negotiate their own voluntary settlement and cannot impose a decision. Many construction contracts require arbitration because it is generally faster and less costly than litigation.

A 'material breach' of a construction contract is best described as:

• a.A failure so significant that it defeats the purpose of the contract and may excuse the other party's performance✓
• b.Any tiny, technical deviation that causes no real harm
• c.A dispute over the color of the paint samples
• d.A delay of a single hour on a multi-year project

A material breach is a serious failure to perform that goes to the heart of the contract — for example, abandoning the job or failing to pay — and it can excuse the non-breaching party from further performance and give rise to remedies such as damages or termination. A minor (immaterial) breach, by contrast, causes little harm and generally entitles the injured party only to damages, not to walk away from the deal.

In scheduling, what does it mean to 'crash' an activity?

• a.To cancel the activity entirely
• b.To let the activity slip until it becomes critical
• c.To add resources (labor, equipment, or overtime) to shorten its duration, usually at added cost✓
• d.To move the activity to the end of the project

Crashing means compressing an activity's duration by adding resources — extra crews, equipment, or overtime — accepting higher cost to finish faster. To shorten a project, a manager crashes activities on the critical path, since only those control the finish date. Crashing is one of two common acceleration methods; the other, fast-tracking, overlaps activities that would normally run in sequence.

What are 'submittals' on a construction project?

• a.The final invoices sent to the owner
• b.Shop drawings, product data, and samples the contractor submits so the design team can confirm they match the design intent✓
• c.The permits filed with the building department
• d.The written safety rules posted on site

Submittals — shop drawings, product data sheets, and physical samples — are provided by the contractor and subcontractors so the architect or engineer can verify that the materials and equipment to be installed conform to the design intent and specifications before they are ordered or fabricated. Reviewing submittals early catches mismatches on paper rather than after costly materials arrive or are installed.

A 'notice to proceed' issued by the owner tells the contractor:

• a.The official date to begin work, which often starts the contract time clock✓
• b.That the final inspection has passed
• c.That the building may now be occupied
• d.That all payments have been released

A notice to proceed (NTP) is the owner's formal authorization directing the contractor to start the work, and it frequently establishes the date from which the contract time (and any completion deadline or liquidated-damages period) is measured. It marks the transition from award to active construction. It is distinct from a certificate of occupancy, which comes at the end and authorizes use of the finished building.

The 'punch list' near the end of a project is:

• a.A list of workers still owed wages
• b.The schedule of upcoming inspections
• c.A record of all change orders
• d.A list of small remaining items to correct or complete before final acceptance✓

A punch list is the itemized list of minor deficiencies and unfinished details — touch-up paint, a missing cover plate, an adjustment to a door — that must be corrected before the work is finally accepted and final payment (including retainage) is released. It is generated at substantial completion, when the project is usable but not yet 100% finished, and it defines the last work owed.

'Substantial completion' on a construction project generally means:

• a.The contract has been signed and work is about to begin
• b.The work is sufficiently complete that the owner can use the project for its intended purpose✓
• c.Exactly 50% of the budget has been spent
• d.The contractor has been fully paid including retainage

Substantial completion is the milestone at which the project is complete enough for the owner to occupy or use it for its intended purpose, even though minor punch-list items remain. It is significant because it often starts warranty periods, shifts responsibility for insurance and utilities, and may trigger release of most retainage. Final completion, which comes later, means every remaining item is finished.

Why should a site superintendent keep a written daily report on a construction project?

• a.Because the daily report replaces the need for a project schedule
• b.Because it is used to calculate each worker's income tax
• c.To document weather, crews present, work performed, deliveries, and delays as a factual record that supports later claims✓
• d.Because building codes forbid any work without one

A daily report is a contemporaneous factual record of what happened on site each day — weather, manpower and equipment present, work accomplished, deliveries, visitors, and any problems or delays. This documentation is invaluable later for resolving disputes, supporting or defending delay and change-order claims, and reconstructing events, because memories fade but a consistent daily log is strong evidence.

The basic accounting equation is:

• a.Assets = Liabilities + Owner's Equity✓
• b.Assets = Revenue - Expenses
• c.Profit = Assets + Liabilities
• d.Owner's Equity = Revenue x Expenses

The fundamental accounting equation, which underlies every balance sheet, is Assets = Liabilities + Owner's Equity. In other words, everything the company owns is financed either by what it owes to others (liabilities) or by the owners' stake (equity). Rearranged, Owner's Equity = Assets - Liabilities. The balance sheet must always 'balance' according to this equation.

Under the accrual method of accounting, revenue is recorded when:

• a.The cash is deposited in the bank
• b.The owner signs the original contract
• c.The building permit is issued
• d.It is earned by performing the work, regardless of when payment is received✓

The accrual method records revenue when it is earned and expenses when they are incurred, regardless of when cash actually moves. This gives a truer picture of a construction company's financial performance than the cash method, which records income and expenses only when money changes hands. Because contractors often perform work long before being paid, accrual (and percentage-of-completion) accounting better reflects real profitability.

A long construction project recognizes revenue gradually as the job progresses rather than all at the end. This accounting approach is called:

• a.Cash-basis accounting
• b.The percentage-of-completion method✓
• c.First-in, first-out (FIFO)
• d.Double-entry bookkeeping

The percentage-of-completion method recognizes revenue and profit in proportion to the work completed over the life of a long-term project — for example, if a job is 40% complete, roughly 40% of the expected revenue is recognized. This matches income to the effort expended each period and avoids distorting results by booking all revenue only when the job finishes, giving a more accurate ongoing picture of performance.

'Overbilling' on a construction project means the contractor has:

• a.Charged the owner more than the total contract price
• b.Paid subcontractors more than they were owed
• c.Billed for more work than has actually been completed to date✓
• d.Forgotten to send an invoice for completed work

Overbilling (billings in excess of costs) occurs when the amount invoiced to the owner is greater than the value of work actually completed so far. It can help cash flow, but it also means the contractor is holding money for work not yet performed, which can mask problems and create a liability. The opposite, underbilling, ties up the contractor's own cash and can signal poor billing discipline.

Why do sureties and lenders pay close attention to a contractor's working capital and current ratio?

• a.They indicate whether the contractor can pay near-term bills and complete work without running out of cash✓
• b.They determine the color scheme the contractor may use in advertising
• c.They set the maximum height of buildings the contractor may construct
• d.They decide which OSHA standards apply to the company

Working capital (current assets minus current liabilities) and the current ratio (current assets divided by current liabilities) measure short-term liquidity — the contractor's ability to pay bills, meet payroll, and buy materials while waiting to be paid. Sureties issuing bonds and banks extending credit rely on these figures to judge whether the contractor can finance and finish jobs, so weak liquidity can limit bonding capacity.

On a balance sheet, which of the following is a current asset?

• a.A company-owned excavator expected to last ten years
• b.Accounts receivable expected to be collected within a few months✓
• c.The company's office building
• d.A long-term bank loan the company owes

Current assets are resources expected to be converted to cash or used up within one year, such as cash, accounts receivable, and materials inventory. Accounts receivable — money owed by customers and due shortly — is a classic current asset. Long-lived equipment and buildings are fixed (long-term) assets, and a long-term loan is a liability, not an asset.

OSHA construction standards are found in which part of Title 29 of the Code of Federal Regulations?

• a.29 CFR Part 1910
• b.29 CFR Part 1904
• c.29 CFR Part 1926✓
• d.29 CFR Part 40

OSHA's safety and health standards for the construction industry are contained in 29 CFR Part 1926. (General industry standards are in Part 1910, and injury recordkeeping requirements are in Part 1904.) Knowing that construction work is governed by Part 1926 helps you locate specific rules — for example, fall protection at 1926.501 and excavations at 1926.651-652.

OSHA requires that a 'competent person' inspect excavations. What defines a competent person under 29 CFR 1926?

• a.Someone able to identify existing and predictable hazards and who has authority to take prompt corrective action✓
• b.Any worker who has been on the job the longest
• c.Only a licensed attorney
• d.Any employee over a certain age

OSHA defines a competent person as one who is capable of identifying existing and predictable hazards in the surroundings or working conditions and who has the authorization to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them. For excavations (29 CFR 1926.651), a competent person must inspect the trench and protective systems daily and as conditions change. The role requires both knowledge and the authority to act.

Under OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard, what document must be available to workers to inform them about the hazards of a chemical product on site?

• a.A building permit
• b.A certificate of occupancy
• c.A mechanic's lien
• d.A Safety Data Sheet (SDS)✓

The Hazard Communication Standard (29 CFR 1926.59, adopting 1910.1200) requires that hazardous chemicals be labeled and that a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) be readily accessible to workers. The SDS describes the chemical's hazards, safe handling, protective measures, and first-aid and emergency response information. Workers have a 'right to know' the dangers of the materials they handle, and the SDS is the core document delivering that information.

OSHA identifies the 'Fatal Four' hazards responsible for the majority of construction worker deaths. Which of the following is one of them?

• a.Paperwork errors
• b.Falls to a lower level✓
• c.Parking violations
• d.Late material deliveries

OSHA's 'Fatal Four' (sometimes called the Focus Four) are the leading causes of construction fatalities: falls, struck-by incidents, electrocutions, and caught-in/between hazards. Falls are consistently the single largest category, which is why fall protection (29 CFR 1926.501) is so heavily emphasized and enforced. Focusing safety efforts on these four hazard types prevents the greatest share of deaths.

Before workers enter a permit-required confined space (such as a manhole or tank), a critical first step under OSHA is to:

• a.Test the atmosphere for oxygen level and hazardous gases before and during entry✓
• b.Immediately send several workers in without any testing
• c.Fill the space with water to check for leaks
• d.Wait for the space to fill with fresh paint fumes

Permit-required confined spaces can contain oxygen-deficient or toxic/flammable atmospheres that are not obvious. OSHA requires that the atmosphere be tested and monitored — for oxygen content, flammable gases, and toxic substances — before and during entry, along with a permit system, attendant, and rescue plan. Many confined-space deaths occur when would-be rescuers rush in; atmospheric testing and proper procedures prevent these tragedies.

The safety procedure of 'lockout/tagout' is primarily used to:

• a.Lock the job-site tool trailer at night
• b.Tag finished work as ready for inspection
• c.Control hazardous energy so machinery cannot be started while it is being serviced✓
• d.Keep track of which workers have clocked in

Lockout/tagout (LOTO) is the practice of isolating and de-energizing equipment and applying locks and tags so that machinery or electrical systems cannot be accidentally energized or started while a worker is servicing or repairing them. It protects against the sudden release of hazardous energy — electrical, mechanical, hydraulic — that could injure or kill the person working on the equipment. It is a key control against electrocution and caught-in hazards.

A personal fall-arrest system used on a construction site generally consists of which three basic components?

• a.A hard hat, safety glasses, and gloves
• b.A ladder, a scaffold, and a guardrail
• c.A first-aid kit, a fire extinguisher, and a sign
• d.An anchorage, a full-body harness, and a connector such as a lanyard or lifeline✓

A personal fall-arrest system (PFAS) has three essential parts, sometimes remembered as the ABCs: an Anchorage point strong enough to hold the forces of a fall, a full-Body harness worn by the worker, and a Connector such as a shock-absorbing lanyard or self-retracting lifeline linking the harness to the anchor. All three must be present and properly rated; a harness alone provides no protection without a proper anchor and connector.

At the end of the year, an employee receives a W-2 while an independent contractor who was paid $600 or more receives a:

• a.Form I-9
• b.Form 1099 (such as 1099-NEC)✓
• c.Form W-4
• d.A certificate of occupancy

Employees receive a W-2 reporting wages and the taxes withheld from their pay. Independent contractors are not employees, so no taxes are withheld; instead a business that pays a contractor $600 or more in a year generally issues a Form 1099-NEC reporting that nonemployee compensation. Using the correct form follows directly from correctly classifying the worker, and the IRS uses these forms to track income.

On federally funded public works projects, the Davis-Bacon Act generally requires contractors to:

• a.Pay workers at least the locally prevailing wage and fringe benefits for their trade✓
• b.Hire only workers from out of state
• c.Provide free housing to all employees
• d.Complete the project without any inspections

The federal Davis-Bacon Act requires that laborers and mechanics on federally funded or assisted construction contracts (above a threshold amount) be paid no less than the locally prevailing wages and fringe benefits, as determined by the Department of Labor for the area and trade. Many states have similar 'little Davis-Bacon' prevailing-wage laws for state-funded projects. Certified payroll records document compliance.

How is the cost of a contractor's workers' compensation insurance primarily determined?

• a.By the color of the company's trucks
• b.By the number of building permits pulled
• c.By the company's payroll and the risk classification of the work performed✓
• d.By the age of the company's owner

Workers' compensation premiums are generally calculated from the employer's payroll multiplied by a rate tied to the risk classification of the work — higher-risk trades like roofing carry higher rates than lower-risk office work. An experience modification factor then adjusts the premium up or down based on the company's actual claims history. Keeping a good safety record therefore directly lowers insurance costs.

Under the federal Fair Labor Standards Act, what is generally true about the overtime standard?

• a.Overtime is owed after 8 hours in any single day nationwide
• b.Overtime must always be paid at double the regular rate
• c.Overtime applies only to salaried managers
• d.Overtime is owed for hours over 40 in a workweek, at 1.5 times the regular rate, for covered nonexempt employees✓

The FLSA's federal overtime rule requires covered nonexempt employees to be paid at least one-and-one-half times their regular rate for hours worked beyond 40 in a workweek. The federal standard is measured weekly, not daily, and the premium is time-and-a-half (not double time). Some states impose additional daily-overtime rules, but the nationwide FLSA baseline is the 40-hour workweek at 1.5x.

Federal anti-discrimination laws such as Title VII prohibit an employer from making hiring and firing decisions based on:

• a.Protected characteristics like race, color, religion, sex, or national origin✓
• b.A worker's actual job performance
• c.Whether the worker holds the required trade skills
• d.Whether the worker shows up to work on time

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act prohibits employment discrimination based on protected characteristics — race, color, religion, sex, and national origin — and other federal laws add age (ADEA) and disability (ADA) as protected classes. Employers may absolutely make decisions based on legitimate factors like skill, performance, and attendance; what they may not do is base employment decisions on these protected characteristics.

What is the purpose of the Form W-4 that a new employee completes?

• a.To verify the worker's legal authorization to work in the U.S.
• b.To tell the employer how much federal income tax to withhold from the employee's pay✓
• c.To register the employee with OSHA
• d.To calculate the company's workers' compensation premium

The Form W-4 (Employee's Withholding Certificate) is completed by the employee so the employer knows how much federal income tax to withhold from each paycheck based on the employee's filing status and adjustments. It is distinct from the Form I-9, which verifies identity and work authorization. Both are completed at hire, but they serve different functions — tax withholding versus employment eligibility.

Which model code most commonly governs the construction of one- and two-family dwellings and townhouses?

• a.The National Electrical Code (NEC)
• b.The International Building Code (IBC)
• c.The International Residential Code (IRC)✓
• d.The Uniform Plumbing Code (UPC)

The International Residential Code (IRC) is the model code specifically written for one- and two-family dwellings and townhouses up to three stories, bundling building, plumbing, mechanical, and electrical provisions for homes into one document. Larger and commercial structures fall under the International Building Code (IBC). Most U.S. jurisdictions adopt one or both of these model codes, then add local amendments.

A 'rough-in' inspection on a building project generally occurs:

• a.After framing and the electrical, plumbing, and mechanical lines are installed but before walls are covered✓
• b.Only after the building is fully finished and painted
• c.Before any excavation or foundation work begins
• d.After the certificate of occupancy is issued

A rough-in inspection takes place once the framing is up and the electrical wiring, plumbing pipes, and mechanical/HVAC lines are installed but before insulation and drywall cover them. Inspecting at this stage lets the building official verify that concealed work meets code while it is still visible and accessible. Passing rough-in is required before the work may be closed up, avoiding costly tear-out later.

When a local jurisdiction adopts a model building code, what are 'local amendments'?

• a.Fines charged for working without a permit
• b.The federal taxes added to building materials
• c.Optional design suggestions with no legal force
• d.Changes the jurisdiction makes to the model code to address local conditions, which then have the force of law locally✓

Jurisdictions typically adopt a model code (such as the IBC or IRC) as their base, then enact local amendments — additions or modifications that address regional concerns like seismic activity, hurricanes, snow load, or soil conditions. Once adopted, those amendments carry the force of law in that jurisdiction. This is why the core requirements are similar nationwide, yet a contractor must always check the specific local code in force.

Electrical work in most U.S. jurisdictions is governed by which widely adopted model code?

• a.The International Residential Code (IRC)
• b.The National Electrical Code (NEC / NFPA 70)✓
• c.The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
• d.The Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSH Act)

The National Electrical Code (NEC), also known as NFPA 70, is the model standard for safe electrical design and installation, and it is adopted (often with amendments) by the great majority of U.S. jurisdictions. It sets requirements for wiring, grounding, circuit protection, and equipment to prevent electrical fires and shock. While the IRC incorporates residential electrical provisions, the NEC is the underlying electrical standard.

A contractor performs structural work without pulling a required building permit. A likely consequence is:

• a.Being ordered to expose and re-inspect the concealed work, plus fines and possible tear-out✓
• b.An automatic increase in the project's profit
• c.A guarantee that no inspections will ever be needed
• d.Immediate issuance of a certificate of occupancy

Working without a required permit undermines the inspection system that verifies code compliance. When discovered, the jurisdiction can issue stop-work orders and fines, and may require the contractor to uncover concealed work so it can be inspected — or even tear out and redo non-compliant work. Unpermitted work can also create problems at resale and void insurance, so pulling required permits protects everyone.

Accessibility requirements in construction, such as those affecting public and commercial buildings, are most directly associated with which of the following?

• a.The National Electrical Code
• b.OSHA fall-protection standards
• c.The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) and accessibility provisions of the building code✓
• d.The Statute of Frauds

Accessibility in the built environment — features like ramps, accessible restrooms, door widths, and reach ranges in public accommodations and commercial facilities — is governed by the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) standards and the accessibility provisions incorporated into building codes (often based on the ICC A117.1 standard). Contractors building or altering covered facilities must meet these requirements so the spaces are usable by people with disabilities.

Which body licenses and regulates contractors in Oregon?

• a.The Oregon Building Codes Division
• b.The Construction Contractors Board (CCB)✓
• c.Each county's building department, with no statewide board
• d.The Oregon Secretary of State

Oregon licenses contractors through the Construction Contractors Board (CCB) under ORS Chapter 701. The CCB registers contractors, administers the exam, and resolves consumer disputes statewide. (The business entity is separately registered with the Secretary of State.)ORS Ch. 701

How is the Oregon contractor licensing examination structured?

• a.A closed-book business exam plus a separate closed-book trade exam
• b.A trade exam only, with no business or law content
• c.A single open-book Laws and Business Practices exam, 80 scored questions, 180 minutes, 70% to pass, with no separate trade exam✓
• d.An oral interview before the board

Oregon uses a single Laws and Business Practices exam — 80 scored questions, 180 minutes, open book, 70% to pass — and has no separate trade or technical examination. This is different from states that split business/law and trade testing.CCB examination structure

What training must an Oregon candidate generally complete before taking the CCB exam?

• a.A 16-hour pre-license training on Oregon contracting law and business practices✓
• b.A four-year apprenticeship
• c.A 60-hour trade course
• d.No training of any kind is required

Oregon requires a 16-hour pre-license training covering Oregon contracting law and business practices before a candidate takes the CCB exam. A candidate who has already passed the NASCLA exam may skip the training but still must take the Oregon exam.ORS Ch. 701; CCB pre-license training

A candidate has passed the NASCLA Accredited Commercial General Building Contractor exam. How does that affect Oregon's licensing steps?

• a.It fully licenses the candidate in Oregon with no further steps
• b.It waives the Oregon exam but requires the 16-hour training
• c.It has no effect at all in Oregon
• d.It waives the 16-hour pre-license training, but the candidate must still take and pass the Oregon exam✓

In Oregon, passing the NASCLA exam lets a candidate skip the 16-hour pre-license training, but the candidate must still take and pass Oregon's single Laws and Business Practices exam. NASCLA does not by itself grant an Oregon license.CCB policy on NASCLA holders

A person wants to do a small $800 paid repair job on someone else's house in Oregon. What does ORS Chapter 701 generally require?

• a.Nothing, because Oregon exempts jobs under $2,500
• b.A CCB license, because Oregon requires licensing for construction work for compensation with only limited exceptions✓
• c.Only a county handyman permit
• d.A federal contractor registration

Oregon has essentially no dollar threshold: with limited exceptions, anyone who performs construction, repair, or improvement work on real property for compensation must hold a CCB license. Even small paid jobs generally require a license.ORS Ch. 701 (licensing threshold)

In Oregon, the owner or employee who completes the training, passes the exam, and is responsible for the business's construction work is called the:

• a.Registered design professional
• b.County competency cardholder
• c.Responsible Managing Individual (RMI)✓
• d.Bond underwriter

Each Oregon license is tied to a Responsible Managing Individual (RMI), the owner or employee who completes the pre-license training, passes the exam, and is responsible for the business's construction operations.ORS Ch. 701 (Responsible Managing Individual)

When registering with the CCB, an Oregon contracting business must select which of the following?

• a.A residential and/or commercial endorsement that defines the scope of work✓
• b.A single nationwide contractor number
• c.A county-by-county competency card
• d.An OSHA trade certificate in place of a CCB license

Oregon businesses register in the residential and/or commercial category and select an endorsement (such as residential general contractor, residential specialty contractor, or commercial general contractor) that defines the scope of work the license authorizes.CCB endorsements

After passing the Oregon CCB exam, how long does a candidate generally have to apply for the license?

• a.30 days
• b.Six months
• c.The application must be filed the same day
• d.Two years✓

A candidate who passes the Oregon exam generally has two years to complete the license application, which includes registering the business with the Secretary of State, posting the CCB bond, and providing proof of liability insurance. Retakes of the exam are unlimited.CCB application window

Before the CCB will issue a license, what must an Oregon contracting business also do?

• a.Nothing else; the CCB handles all registration
• b.Register the business entity with the Oregon Secretary of State✓
• c.Obtain a NASCLA certificate
• d.Post a $100,000 cash deposit with the county

An Oregon contracting business must be registered with the Oregon Secretary of State (for example as an LLC or corporation, or an assumed business name) before the CCB will issue the license. The CCB registration and the entity registration are separate steps.ORS Ch. 701; Secretary of State registration

A person does construction work in Oregon while not licensed with the CCB, then tries to enforce payment. Under ORS 701.131, what generally happens?

• a.The person may sue and file a lien with no restriction
• b.The person may file a lien but not sue
• c.The person generally cannot file a construction lien, sue to collect, or file a CCB claim for the work✓
• d.The owner must pay double the contract price

ORS 701.131 generally bars a contractor who was unlicensed when the work was done from filing a construction lien, suing to collect compensation, or filing a CCB claim. Being licensed before contracting is essential to preserving payment rights in Oregon.ORS 701.131

What must a licensed Oregon contractor include in its advertising?

• a.Its CCB license number, so consumers can verify registration✓
• b.The homeowner's Social Security number
• c.A notarized copy of its bond
• d.Nothing beyond a phone number

Under ORS 701.305, a licensed Oregon contractor must include its CCB license number in advertising. This lets consumers confirm the contractor is registered and helps the CCB identify unlicensed operators who advertise without a number.ORS 701.305

Under Oregon's construction lien law (ORS Chapter 87), within what time must a claimant generally file (perfect) the claim of lien?

• a.Within 30 days after starting work
• b.Within one year after completion
• c.Within 10 days after the contract is signed
• d.Within 75 days after the claimant ceases to provide labor or materials, or after completion, whichever is earlier✓

Oregon requires a lien claimant to file the claim of lien within 75 days after the claimant ceases to provide labor, rent, or materials, or within 75 days after completion of construction, whichever is earlier (ORS Chapter 87). Missing this short window defeats the lien.ORS Ch. 87 (construction liens)

After recording a construction lien in Oregon, within what time must the claimant begin a suit to foreclose the lien?

• a.Within 30 days
• b.Within 120 days✓
• c.Within five years
• d.There is no deadline

Oregon requires the claimant to begin a suit to foreclose the construction lien within 120 days after the lien is recorded (ORS 87.055). If no foreclosure suit is filed in time, the lien expires.ORS 87.055 (lien foreclosure)

For residential work in Oregon, when is a written contract generally required?

• a.When the contract price exceeds the statutory threshold (generally $2,000)✓
• b.Never; oral agreements are always sufficient
• c.Only for jobs over $500,000
• d.Only when the homeowner requests one in writing

Oregon generally requires a written contract for residential construction work when the price exceeds the statutory threshold (generally $2,000). The contractor must also provide the CCB's consumer notices on qualifying jobs. These disclosures protect homeowners.ORS Ch. 701 (residential written contract)

On many Oregon residential projects, what document must a contractor or supplier deliver to preserve construction-lien rights?

• a.A federal tax lien waiver
• b.A county competency card
• c.A Notice of Right to a Lien✓
• d.An OSHA safety plan

On many residential projects, Oregon requires delivery of a Notice of Right to a Lien to preserve lien rights, and owners must receive the CCB's Information Notice to Owner About Construction Liens on larger jobs. Failing to give required notices can defeat the lien.ORS Ch. 87 (Notice of Right to a Lien)

What role does the Oregon CCB play when a homeowner and a licensed contractor have a payment or workmanship dispute?

• a.None; disputes may only go to federal court
• b.It issues building permits for the disputed work
• c.It represents the contractor against the homeowner
• d.It provides a dispute-resolution process for claims involving licensed contractors✓

The CCB offers a dispute-resolution process for construction complaints involving licensed contractors, backed by the contractor's bond. Being licensed is what allows a contractor to use — and be subject to — that process, another reason licensure matters.ORS Ch. 701 (CCB dispute resolution)

Why does holding a current CCB license matter to an Oregon contractor's ability to be paid?

• a.It has no effect on payment rights
• b.Because an unlicensed contractor generally cannot lien, sue, or file a CCB claim, licensure is a precondition to enforcing payment✓
• c.It only lowers the contractor's tax rate
• d.It merely speeds permit approval

Because ORS 701.131 bars an unlicensed contractor from filing a lien, suing to collect, or filing a CCB claim, being licensed before contracting is a precondition to enforcing payment in Oregon. Licensure protects the contractor's collection tools.ORS 701.131 (effect of licensure on collection)

What surety bond does an Oregon residential general contractor generally file with the CCB?

• a.A $25,000 CCB bond✓
• b.No bond is required
• c.A $250,000 bond
• d.A $1,000 bond

A residential general contractor generally files a $25,000 surety bond with the CCB (a residential specialty contractor posts $15,000, and other endorsements have their own amounts). The bond backs certain CCB claims and must stay in force for the life of the license.ORS 701.068 (CCB surety bond)

In addition to a bond, what insurance does an Oregon residential general contractor generally have to carry?

• a.No insurance is required
• b.Only workers' compensation, even with no employees
• c.General liability insurance, generally at least $500,000✓
• d.Flood insurance on every project

Oregon requires each licensee to carry general liability insurance in an amount set by endorsement; a residential general contractor generally must carry at least $500,000. The bond and liability insurance serve different purposes — the bond backs CCB claims, while insurance covers damage or injury the contractor causes.ORS Ch. 701 (liability insurance)

Which statement about the Oregon CCB exam is correct?

• a.It is closed book and includes a separate trade section
• b.It is a 40-question, 60-minute closed-book test
• c.It is waived for anyone with any out-of-state license
• d.It is a single open-book exam of 80 scored questions over 180 minutes, requiring 70% to pass✓

The Oregon exam is a single open-book Laws and Business Practices test of 80 scored questions over 180 minutes, with a 70% passing score and no separate trade exam. Retakes are unlimited.CCB exam format

Which sequence correctly reflects Oregon's path to a CCB license for a typical new applicant?

• a.Post bond first, then take a trade exam, then get insurance
• b.Complete the 16-hour pre-license training, pass the exam, register the business with the Secretary of State, post the CCB bond, and provide proof of liability insurance✓
• c.Only pass the NASCLA exam; nothing else is required
• d.Apply to the county, then wait five years

A typical Oregon applicant completes the 16-hour pre-license training, passes the single CCB exam, registers the business with the Secretary of State, posts the CCB surety bond, and provides proof of general liability insurance. (A NASCLA-exam holder may skip the training but still takes the exam.)CCB licensing sequence

How does Oregon treat retakes of the CCB exam, and the license renewal cycle?

• a.Retakes are unlimited, and the CCB license is renewed every two years✓
• b.Only one retake is allowed, ever, and the license never renews
• c.Retakes require a five-year wait, and licenses renew annually
• d.The exam may never be retaken after a failure

Oregon allows unlimited retakes of the CCB exam, and the CCB license is renewed on a two-year cycle. Keeping the bond and liability insurance in force is a condition of maintaining the license.ORS Ch. 701; CCB renewal