Idaho Real Estate Salesperson Exam — All Questions

Which type of estate gives an owner the fullest bundle of rights, is of potentially unlimited duration, and passes to the owner's heirs?

• a.Life estate
• b.Estate for years
• c.Fee simple absolute✓
• d.Estate at will

A fee simple absolute is the highest and most complete estate in land: it lasts indefinitely and is freely inheritable and transferable. A life estate ends at the death of the measuring life, so it is not inheritable. An estate for years and an estate at will are leasehold (less-than-freehold) estates that give possession, not ownership, so they confer far fewer rights.

Two people own a property as joint tenants. When one owner dies, what happens to the deceased owner's interest?

• a.It passes to the deceased owner's heirs by will
• b.It passes automatically to the surviving joint tenant✓
• c.It is sold and the proceeds go to the estate
• d.It reverts to the original grantor

The defining feature of joint tenancy is the right of survivorship: on the death of one joint tenant, that interest passes automatically to the surviving joint tenant(s) outside of probate. Because of survivorship, the interest cannot be devised by will (that is the rule for a tenancy in common instead). There is no forced sale and no reversion to the grantor.

A local government's power to divide land into districts and regulate the use, height, and density of structures within each district is called:

• a.Zoning✓
• b.Escheat
• c.Eminent domain
• d.A deed restriction

Zoning is an exercise of the government's police power to promote public health, safety, and welfare by regulating land use, building height, lot size, and density within designated districts. Escheat is the reversion of property to the state when an owner dies with no heirs. Eminent domain is the power to take private property for public use with just compensation. A deed restriction is a private (not governmental) limitation placed by a prior owner.

An appraiser is valuing a single-family home in an established neighborhood. Which approach to value will the appraiser rely on most heavily?

• a.Cost approach
• b.Income approach
• c.Sales comparison approach✓
• d.Gross rent multiplier approach

The sales comparison approach, which analyzes recent sales of similar nearby properties, is the most reliable and heavily weighted method for single-family residences because such homes are bought and sold frequently, giving plenty of comparable data. The cost approach is most useful for new or special-purpose buildings, and the income approach (and gross rent multiplier) apply to income-producing property, not owner-occupied homes.

The principle that a property's maximum value tends to be set by the cost of acquiring an equally desirable substitute property is known as:

• a.Progression
• b.Substitution✓
• c.Contribution
• d.Anticipation

The principle of substitution holds that an informed buyer will pay no more for a property than the cost of an equally desirable substitute; it is the foundation of the sales comparison approach. Progression is when a lower-value property gains value from higher-value neighbors. Contribution measures how much a specific component adds to total value. Anticipation is value based on expected future benefits.

In a typical mortgage or deed of trust, which document is the borrower's personal promise to repay the debt?

• a.The deed of trust
• b.The mortgage
• c.The reconveyance
• d.The promissory note✓

The promissory note is the borrower's written promise to repay the loan and is the evidence of the debt itself. The mortgage or deed of trust is the security instrument that pledges the property as collateral; it secures the note but does not create the debt. A reconveyance is issued when the debt is fully paid to release the lien.

A clause in a loan that allows the lender to demand the entire remaining balance be paid immediately if the borrower defaults is called a(n):

• a.Acceleration clause✓
• b.Alienation clause
• c.Subordination clause
• d.Defeasance clause

An acceleration clause lets the lender declare the whole unpaid balance due at once upon default, which is a necessary step before foreclosure. An alienation (due-on-sale) clause lets the lender call the loan due if the property is sold or transferred. A subordination clause changes lien priority. A defeasance clause requires the lender to release the lien once the debt is paid.

Which federal law requires lenders to disclose the true cost of credit, including the annual percentage rate (APR) and finance charges, to consumer borrowers?

• a.RESPA
• b.The Fair Housing Act
• c.The Truth in Lending Act (Regulation Z)✓
• d.The Equal Credit Opportunity Act

The Truth in Lending Act, implemented by Regulation Z, requires lenders to disclose credit terms such as the APR and total finance charges so borrowers can compare loans. RESPA governs settlement-cost disclosures and prohibits kickbacks. The Fair Housing Act bars discrimination in housing. The Equal Credit Opportunity Act prohibits discrimination in lending but does not set the cost-of-credit disclosure rules.

Which of the following is NOT one of the essential elements required for a valid contract?

• a.Offer and acceptance (mutual assent)
• b.Notarization of the parties' signatures✓
• c.Consideration
• d.Legal capacity of the parties

A valid contract requires mutual assent (offer and acceptance), consideration, legal capacity of the parties, lawful object, and (for real estate) usually a writing. Notarization is not an element of validity; it is only an authentication used for recording certain documents such as deeds. The other three choices are all genuine essential elements.

A seller receives an offer and responds by changing the closing date and raising the price before signing. This response is legally best described as a:

• a.Valid acceptance
• b.Option
• c.Novation
• d.Counteroffer✓

Any change to the material terms of an offer is a counteroffer, which rejects the original offer and creates a new offer that the other party may accept or reject. It is not an acceptance because acceptance must mirror the offer exactly. An option is a separate contract giving a right to buy within a set time. A novation is the substitution of a new contract or party for an existing one.

The legal doctrine that requires contracts for the sale of real estate to be in writing to be enforceable is called the:

• a.Statute of frauds✓
• b.Statute of limitations
• c.Doctrine of laches
• d.Parol evidence rule

The statute of frauds requires certain contracts, including those for the sale of real property, to be in writing and signed to be enforceable. The statute of limitations sets the time limit for filing a lawsuit. Laches bars a claim due to unreasonable delay that prejudices the other party. The parol evidence rule limits the use of outside evidence to contradict a written contract.

A buyer and seller sign a purchase agreement, but before closing the seller changes his mind and refuses to convey title. The buyer sues to force the seller to complete the sale. The buyer is seeking:

• a.Liquidated damages
• b.Rescission
• c.Specific performance✓
• d.A novation

Specific performance is an equitable remedy that compels a party to carry out the contract as agreed; it is available in real estate because each parcel of land is considered unique and money damages may be inadequate. Liquidated damages are a pre-agreed money amount for a breach. Rescission cancels the contract and returns the parties to their prior positions. A novation replaces the contract, which is not what the buyer wants.

A contract signed by a 15-year-old minor to purchase real estate is generally considered:

• a.Void from the start
• b.Voidable by the minor✓
• c.Fully enforceable against both parties
• d.Illegal

A contract made by a minor is voidable at the minor's option because minors lack full legal capacity; the minor may disaffirm it, but the adult party is bound unless the minor chooses to cancel. It is not void from the start (that describes contracts with an illegal purpose or missing an essential element), it is not fully enforceable against the minor, and buying real estate is a lawful object, so it is not illegal.

A real estate licensee owes a client duties of loyalty, obedience, confidentiality, disclosure, accounting, and reasonable care. These are collectively known as:

• a.Statutory rights
• b.Ministerial duties
• c.General obligations
• d.Fiduciary duties✓

An agent owes fiduciary duties to the principal (client): loyalty, obedience, confidentiality, disclosure, accounting, and reasonable care and diligence. These arise from the position of trust in an agency relationship. Ministerial duties are routine, non-advisory tasks performed for a customer. The other choices are not the recognized term for this bundle of client duties.

A licensee represents both the buyer and the seller in the same transaction with the informed written consent of both. This relationship is called:

• a.Dual agency✓
• b.Single agency
• c.Designated subagency
• d.A general agency

Dual agency occurs when one licensee (or brokerage) represents both parties in the same transaction, and it is permitted only with the informed written consent of both because of the inherent conflict of interest. Single agency is representing only one party. Subagency extends the listing broker's agency to another broker. A general agency covers a broad range of acts, unrelated to representing both sides at once.

In a typical seller-listing arrangement, when is the listing broker generally considered to have earned the commission?

• a.Only after the deed is recorded
• b.As soon as the listing agreement is signed
• c.When the broker produces a ready, willing, and able buyer who meets the seller's terms✓
• d.Only if the buyer obtains financing

Under the common-law rule, a broker earns the commission by producing a buyer who is ready, willing, and able to purchase on the seller's stated terms (or terms the seller accepts). Signing the listing alone does not earn a commission; it only creates the agency. Recording the deed and the buyer's financing are closing events, and although most agreements tie actual payment to closing, the commission is legally 'earned' when the qualified buyer is produced.

A buyer's agent learns that the buyer is willing to pay far more than the asking price. To whom does the agent owe the duty of confidentiality regarding this information?

• a.The seller
• b.The buyer✓
• c.The listing broker
• d.Both the buyer and the seller equally

As the buyer's agent, the licensee owes fiduciary duties, including confidentiality, to the buyer (the principal). Disclosing the buyer's top price to the seller or listing broker would breach loyalty and confidentiality and harm the client's negotiating position. The duty runs to the principal, not to the other party in the transaction.

Federal law requires which disclosure for the sale of most residential housing built before 1978?

• a.A radon test report
• b.A flood elevation certificate
• c.A mold inspection
• d.A lead-based paint disclosure✓

The federal Residential Lead-Based Paint Hazard Reduction Act requires sellers and landlords of most housing built before 1978 to disclose known lead-based paint hazards and provide an EPA pamphlet, because lead paint was banned for residential use in 1978. Radon, flood, and mold disclosures may be required in some states or circumstances but are not the federal pre-1978 requirement.

A seller knows the basement floods every spring but does not mention it, and the defect is not visible during a normal inspection. This is an example of a:

• a.Latent material defect that must be disclosed✓
• b.Patent defect the buyer should have found
• c.Stigmatized condition
• d.Condition protected by caveat emptor

A latent defect is a hidden, material problem not discoverable by ordinary inspection; a seller (and agent) who knows of it generally must disclose it because it affects value or desirability and safety. A patent defect is one that is obvious or readily observable. A stigmatized property involves events like a death, not a physical defect. Modern disclosure duties limit the old caveat emptor ('let the buyer beware') rule for known latent defects.

Which type of deed offers the grantee the greatest protection by warranting clear title against defects arising at any time in the property's history?

• a.Quitclaim deed
• b.Special warranty deed
• c.General warranty deed✓
• d.Bargain and sale deed

A general warranty deed provides the greatest protection because the grantor warrants title against all defects, including those arising before the grantor owned the property. A special warranty deed covers only defects arising during the grantor's ownership. A quitclaim deed carries no warranties and conveys only whatever interest the grantor may have. A bargain and sale deed implies ownership but offers limited or no express warranties.

For a deed to transfer title, it must be delivered to and accepted by the grantee. Recording the deed in the public records primarily serves to:

• a.Make the deed valid between the grantor and grantee
• b.Give constructive notice to the world of the grantee's ownership✓
• c.Transfer title even without delivery
• d.Satisfy the requirement of consideration

Recording gives constructive (public) notice of the grantee's interest and establishes lien and title priority against later claimants. A deed is valid between the parties upon proper execution, delivery, and acceptance even if never recorded, so recording is not needed for validity between grantor and grantee. Recording cannot substitute for delivery, and it has nothing to do with consideration.

Under the federal Fair Housing Act, which of the following is a protected class?

• a.Occupation
• b.Level of education
• c.Source of a person's income
• d.Religion✓

The federal Fair Housing Act prohibits discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex, national origin, familial status, and disability (handicap). Religion is therefore a protected class. Occupation, education level, and source of income are not protected under the federal act, although some state or local laws add extra protected categories such as source of income.

An agent tells prospective buyers that they would be 'more comfortable' in a different neighborhood based on the racial makeup of the area, steering them away from certain homes. This illegal practice is called:

• a.Steering✓
• b.Blockbusting
• c.Redlining
• d.Puffing

Steering is directing buyers toward or away from particular neighborhoods based on a protected characteristic such as race, and it violates fair housing law. Blockbusting is inducing owners to sell by suggesting that people of a particular protected class are moving in. Redlining is refusing to lend or insure in certain areas. Puffing is legal, non-factual sales exaggeration and is unrelated to discrimination.

Client funds such as earnest money deposits that a broker holds on behalf of others must be kept in a:

• a.Broker's general operating account
• b.Personal savings account of the agent
• c.Separate trust or escrow account✓
• d.Petty cash fund

Money belonging to others, such as earnest money, must be held in a separate trust (escrow) account to keep it distinct from the broker's own funds. Mixing client money with the broker's business or personal funds is commingling, and using it for the broker's own purposes is conversion, both of which are serious license-law violations. A general operating, personal, or petty cash account would all constitute commingling.

A tenant remains in possession of a leased property after the lease term ends, without the landlord's permission. This tenancy is best described as a(n):

• a.Estate for years
• b.Tenancy at sufferance✓
• c.Estate from period to period
• d.Tenancy at will

A tenancy (estate) at sufferance arises when a tenant who was lawfully in possession stays past the end of the lease without the landlord's consent, becoming a holdover tenant. An estate for years has a definite beginning and end. A periodic tenancy renews automatically for successive periods. A tenancy at will continues with the consent of both parties and can be ended by either at any time, unlike the unauthorized holdover here.

A home sells for $340,000 with a total commission of 6%. The listing brokerage receives 50% of the total commission, and the listing agent receives 60% of the listing brokerage's share. How much does the listing agent earn?

• a.$10,200
• b.$20,400
• c.$6,120✓
• d.$4,080

First find the total commission: $340,000 x 6% = $20,400. The listing brokerage's share is 50%: $20,400 x 0.50 = $10,200. The listing agent then receives 60% of that: $10,200 x 0.60 = $6,120. The $20,400 figure is the total commission and $10,200 is the brokerage's full share, not the agent's; $4,080 mistakenly takes 40% instead of 60%.

A seller wants to net $200,000 from a sale after paying a 6% commission (and no other costs). Rounded to the nearest dollar, what must the sale price be?

• a.$212,766✓
• b.$212,000
• c.$188,000
• d.$200,600

After a 6% commission the seller keeps 94% of the sale price, so Sale Price x 0.94 = $200,000, giving Sale Price = $200,000 / 0.94 = $212,765.96, which rounds to $212,766. A common error is to add 6% to $200,000 (getting $212,000), but you cannot simply add the rate back because the commission is charged on the higher sale price, not on the net.

A rectangular parcel measures 200 feet by 217.8 feet. Given that one acre equals 43,560 square feet, how many acres does the parcel contain?

• a.0.5 acre
• b.1 acre✓
• c.2 acres
• d.1.5 acres

Area = length x width = 200 ft x 217.8 ft = 43,560 square feet. Since one acre is exactly 43,560 square feet, the parcel is 43,560 / 43,560 = 1 acre. The other answers result from dividing or multiplying the area incorrectly; memorizing that an acre equals 43,560 square feet makes this a one-step conversion.

Real estate salespersons in Idaho are licensed and regulated by:

• a.The Idaho Realtors association
• b.The Idaho Real Estate Commission (IREC)✓
• c.The Idaho Housing and Finance Association
• d.The Idaho Secretary of State

The Idaho Real Estate Commission (IREC) licenses and disciplines brokers and salespersons and enforces the Idaho real estate license law under Title 54, Chapter 20. A trade association is a private membership organization and has no licensing authority.

In Idaho, the licensee responsible for a brokerage's operations, trust account, and supervision of affiliated licensees is the:

• a.Associate broker
• b.Salesperson of record
• c.Designated broker✓
• d.Managing agent

Each Idaho brokerage must have a designated broker who is responsible for the brokerage's operations, its trust account, and the supervision of affiliated licensees. A salesperson conducts licensed activity for and under the supervision of the designated broker.

An Idaho salesperson may accept compensation for brokerage services from:

• a.The buyer directly at closing
• b.Any cooperating salesperson
• c.The seller in cash before closing
• d.The brokerage's designated broker✓

An Idaho salesperson is paid only through the brokerage's designated broker, who supervises the salesperson's licensed activity. A salesperson may not accept a fee or commission directly from a buyer, seller, or another licensee.

Under Idaho's Brokerage Representation Act, a brokerage may work with a consumer as:

• a.Only a single agent
• b.An agent, a limited dual agent, or a nonagent✓
• c.Only a transaction broker
• d.A subagent of the buyer only

The Idaho Brokerage Representation Act allows a brokerage to work with a consumer as an agent, a limited dual agent, or a nonagent. The relationship is established by written agreement, and the type of representation determines the duties the brokerage owes.

Idaho requires a licensee to give a consumer the agency disclosure brochure:

• a.At the first substantial business contact, before the consumer shares confidential information✓
• b.Only after an offer is accepted
• c.At the closing table
• d.Only if the consumer requests it

Idaho requires the licensee to provide the agency disclosure brochure at the first substantial business contact, before the consumer discloses confidential information. The brochure explains the available brokerage relationships so the consumer can make an informed choice.

Under Idaho law, whether an agency relationship exists is determined by:

• a.Which party pays the commission
• b.The order in which the parties were contacted
• c.A written agreement between the brokerage and the client, not by who pays compensation✓
• d.The listing price of the property

Under the Brokerage Representation Act, the relationship is established by written agreement, and compensation alone does not determine or create an agency relationship. The written agreement, not the source of payment, defines whether a consumer is a represented client.

An Idaho brokerage may act as a limited dual agent representing both buyer and seller only when:

• a.The transaction price exceeds a set amount
• b.Both parties give informed written consent✓
• c.The Commission issues a waiver
• d.The designated broker approves after closing

A brokerage may act as a limited dual agent only with the informed written consent of both parties. The brokerage may assign individual agents to each client, and the licensees must protect each party's confidential information and remain neutral on price and terms.

A person who passes the Idaho salesperson examination may begin practicing real estate when:

• a.The exam results are posted
• b.The applicant joins a trade association
• c.The license is placed with and supervised by a designated broker✓
• d.The applicant completes continuing education

Passing the exam is one step; an Idaho salesperson may conduct licensed activity only after the license is placed with a designated broker who supervises the salesperson and accepts responsibility for the licensed activity and trust account. Without a designated broker, the license is not active.