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Accident & Health Fundamentals

74 questions
1. A consumer enrolls in a California Health Maintenance Organization (HMO). Which state agency has primary regulatory authority over that HMO?
a.California Department of Insurance, Consumer Services
b.California Department of Managed Health Care (DMHC)✓
c.Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
d.California Department of Public Health (CDPH)

Under the Knox-Keene Health Care Service Plan Act, California HMOs are regulated by the Department of Managed Health Care (DMHC), not the CDI. The CDI regulates indemnity health insurance and PPO products, but full-service HMOs fall under DMHC.

Cal. Health & Safety Code §1340 et seq. (Knox-Keene Act)
2. Under the federal Affordable Care Act, a non-grandfathered group health plan must cover recommended preventive services with:
a.A separate $100 deductible
b.No cost-sharing to the in-network member✓
c.A flat $25 copayment per visit
d.The same coinsurance applied to specialty care

Section 2713 of the Public Health Service Act, added by the ACA, requires non-grandfathered plans to cover certain preventive services (such as immunizations, screenings, and annual wellness visits) without imposing any deductible, copayment, or coinsurance when delivered in-network.

42 U.S.C. §300gg-13 (ACA preventive services)
3. An employee voluntarily quits her job at a private company with 60 employees. Under federal COBRA, the maximum continuation coverage period available to her is:
a.18 months✓
b.60 months
c.36 months
d.29 months

Voluntary or involuntary termination (other than for gross misconduct) and reduction in hours are 'qualifying events' that entitle a covered employee to up to 18 months of COBRA continuation. The 29-month period applies only when the qualified beneficiary becomes disabled, and 36 months applies to dependent events such as death, divorce, or loss of dependent status.

29 U.S.C. §1161 et seq. (COBRA)
4. Cal-COBRA differs from federal COBRA primarily because it:
a.Eliminates the premium contribution requirement by shifting the cost to the employer
b.Provides a longer continuation period to employees of large employers only
c.Replaces federal COBRA for every California employer and resident alike
d.Extends continuation rights to employees of small employers with 2-19 employees✓

Federal COBRA applies only to employers with 20 or more employees. Cal-COBRA fills the gap by requiring continuation coverage from California group health plans of small employers with 2 to 19 employees, generally for up to 36 months total.

Cal. Health & Safety Code §1366.20 et seq. (Cal-COBRA)
5. To be eligible to contribute to a Health Savings Account (HSA), an individual must be covered by:
a.A Health Maintenance Organization plan that carries a zero-dollar deductible
b.Any employer-sponsored group health plan, whatever its deductible or copayments
c.A High Deductible Health Plan (HDHP) with no disqualifying other coverage✓
d.Medicare Part A or Part B, together with a Medigap supplement insurance policy

Section 223 of the Internal Revenue Code requires an HSA-eligible individual to be covered under a qualifying HDHP and to have no other disqualifying health coverage. Enrollment in Medicare disqualifies a person from making new HSA contributions.

26 U.S.C. §223 (Health Savings Accounts)
6. Under the ACA metal-tier framework, a silver plan must cover what approximate percentage of the average enrollee's covered medical costs (its actuarial value)?
a.65%
b.70%✓
c.80%
d.60%

The ACA defines four metal tiers by actuarial value: bronze at approximately 60%, silver at 70%, gold at 80%, and platinum at 90%. Catastrophic plans are separate and available only to certain enrollees.

42 U.S.C. §18022 (ACA actuarial value)
7. A 45-year-old applicant with a history of diabetes applies for an individual ACA-compliant health policy through Covered California. The insurer may:
a.Exclude diabetes-related claims during the first 12 months of coverage
b.Deny the application outright as an uninsurable medical risk
c.Charge a 50% premium surcharge for the pre-existing condition
d.Not deny coverage or charge a higher premium based on the diabetes✓

Since 2014, the ACA has prohibited individual and group market insurers from denying coverage, charging higher premiums, or excluding benefits based on any pre-existing condition. Permitted rating factors are limited to age, geography, family size, and tobacco use.

42 U.S.C. §300gg-3 (ACA pre-existing conditions)
8. Under the ACA, a group health plan that offers dependent coverage must make that coverage available to an enrolled employee's adult child until the child reaches age:
a.19
b.21
c.26✓
d.23

The ACA requires plans offering dependent coverage to allow enrolled adult children to remain on a parent's plan until age 26, regardless of marital status, residency, financial dependence, or student status.

42 U.S.C. §300gg-14 (ACA dependent coverage)
9. Which of the following is NOT one of the ten Essential Health Benefits categories that an ACA-compliant individual or small group plan must cover?
a.Adult dental and vision services✓
b.Mental health and substance use disorder services
c.Prescription drugs
d.Maternity and newborn care

The ten Essential Health Benefits include ambulatory services, emergency services, hospitalization, maternity/newborn care, mental health/substance use, prescription drugs, rehabilitative services, lab services, preventive/chronic disease management, and pediatric (not adult) services including dental and vision. Adult dental and vision are not required.

ACA – 10 Essential Health Benefits (42 U.S.C. §18022(b))
10. A health plan has a $2,000 deductible, 20% coinsurance, and a $7,500 out-of-pocket maximum. Once the insured reaches the out-of-pocket maximum, in-network covered services for the rest of the plan year are paid at:
a.100% by the plan✓
b.80% by the plan
c.0% by the plan; the maximum has been used
d.50% by the plan

The out-of-pocket maximum (sometimes called the MOOP) is the annual cap on a member's cost-sharing for in-network essential benefits. Once it is reached, the plan must pay 100% of covered in-network services for the remainder of the plan year.

General insurance terminology

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11. A key structural difference between a traditional HMO and a Preferred Provider Organization (PPO) is that the HMO:
a.Requires a primary care physician (PCP) to coordinate care and generally has no out-of-network benefits except emergencies✓
b.Always pays 100% of covered charges without any deductible, copayment, or coinsurance from the member
c.Is regulated solely by federal Medicare rules rather than by any California insurance or managed-care statute
d.Allows members to see any specialist nationwide with no referral, and pays the same benefit in or out of network

A core HMO feature is the gatekeeper PCP who coordinates and authorizes referrals to specialists. HMOs typically only pay for in-network care, with emergencies as the main exception. PPOs allow direct access to specialists and pay reduced benefits for out-of-network care.

Plan design – HMO vs. PPO
12. An Exclusive Provider Organization (EPO) plan is best described as a plan that:
a.Pays for care from any licensed provider nationwide because it imposes no network restriction
b.Limits non-emergency coverage to in-network providers but typically does not require a PCP referral✓
c.Combines Medicare and Medicaid benefits into a single plan for dual-eligible members
d.Requires a primary care physician gatekeeper for every referral and pays partial out-of-network benefits

An EPO restricts non-emergency benefits to the in-network panel of providers, much like an HMO, but unlike a traditional HMO it generally does not require a PCP referral to see specialists. Out-of-network non-emergency care is usually not covered.

Plan design – EPO
13. Which type of managed care plan combines features of an HMO (PCP gatekeeper) with limited out-of-network coverage at a higher cost share?
a.Traditional indemnity plan
b.EPO (Exclusive Provider Organization)
c.Self-funded reinsurance plan
d.POS (Point of Service)✓

A Point of Service (POS) plan blends HMO and PPO features. The member selects a PCP who manages and refers care, but unlike a pure HMO the plan also pays a reduced benefit when the member uses out-of-network providers.

Plan design – POS
14. Which of the following best defines coinsurance?
a.A percentage of covered charges the insured pays after the deductible is met✓
b.A separate policy the insured buys that pays only the deductible amount each year
c.A flat dollar fee the insured pays at the time of each office visit
d.A fixed dollar amount the insured pays each year before benefits begin

Coinsurance is the percentage share of covered expenses the insured pays (for example, 20%) after the deductible has been satisfied; the plan pays the remaining percentage. A deductible is the dollar amount paid before benefits start, and a copay is the fixed per-service charge.

Cost-sharing definitions
15. The federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996 primarily addresses which of the following?
a.The design and funding of the premium subsidies offered through the Covered California exchange
b.Mandatory enrollment of all individuals in Medicare Part A regardless of age or employment status
c.Protection of individually identifiable health information and continuity of group health coverage✓
d.The federal funding formula for the Medicaid expansion population enrolled in California

HIPAA was enacted in 1996 to standardize electronic health transactions, protect the privacy and security of individually identifiable health information (PHI), and improve portability and continuity of group health coverage when workers change jobs.

HIPAA – 42 U.S.C. §1320d et seq.
16. Covered California is best described as:
a.California's state-based ACA health insurance exchange offering qualified health plans and premium subsidies✓
b.A privately run association marketplace selling short-term limited-duration medical plans outside the ACA rules
c.A federally administered Medicare Advantage program serving California residents who are already over the age of 65
d.A self-insured health plan that the State of California operates directly for its uninsured residents

Covered California is the state-operated Affordable Care Act exchange (marketplace) where individuals and small employers can compare and enroll in qualified health plans and where income-eligible enrollees receive federal and state premium assistance.

Cal. Gov. Code §100500 et seq. (Covered California)
17. As of 2026, California residents who go without minimum essential health coverage may face which of the following?
a.Suspension of their California driver's license by the Department of Motor Vehicles until coverage resumes
b.Automatic enrollment in Medicare Part A by the Social Security Administration at the next open enrollment
c.Only the federal ACA shared-responsibility penalty, collected by the IRS with the federal income tax return
d.A California state Individual Shared Responsibility Penalty assessed through the state income tax return✓

The federal individual mandate penalty was reduced to $0 starting in 2019, but California enacted its own Individual Shared Responsibility Penalty effective January 1, 2020. It is administered through the Franchise Tax Board and assessed on the state income tax return.

Cal. Rev. & Tax. Code §61000 et seq. (CA individual mandate)
18. A Flexible Spending Account (FSA) used to pay for qualifying medical expenses is best described as:
a.An employee-owned investment account whose balance rolls forward each year and earns interest tax-free for the employee's whole life
b.A federally administered program that pays the Medicare Part B premiums of retired employees and their spouses and dependents
c.A pre-tax employee salary-reduction account subject to a 'use-it-or-lose-it' rule, with only limited carryovers allowed✓
d.An account funded only by the employer that the employee may roll over from year to year without any limit

A health FSA established under an IRC §125 cafeteria plan is funded with pre-tax employee salary reductions (and any employer contributions). Unused balances are generally forfeited at year-end, although plans may allow a limited carryover or grace period.

26 U.S.C. §125 (cafeteria plans/FSA)
19. A Health Reimbursement Arrangement (HRA) is most accurately described as:
a.A long-term care insurance contract that reimburses nursing home charges on a daily benefit basis
b.An optional group insurance rider that replaces COBRA continuation coverage once employment ends
c.An employer-funded, employer-owned arrangement that reimburses employees for qualifying medical expenses✓
d.An employee-funded savings account, funded by salary reduction, that earns interest and is portable like an HSA

An HRA is funded solely by the employer (not by employee salary reductions) and is owned by the employer. It reimburses employees, tax-free, for qualified medical expenses up to the amount the employer allocates, under rules in IRC §105 and IRS guidance.

26 U.S.C. §105; IRS Notice 2002-45 (HRA)
20. Balance billing in a health plan context refers to:
a.A bonus payment made to in-network providers for meeting the quality and cost targets set out in the plan's contract
b.The monthly premium statement a health plan sends to the enrolled subscriber before each month of coverage begins
c.The insurer's annual reconciliation of premiums collected against the claims paid during the plan year
d.A provider billing the patient for the difference between the provider's full charge and the amount the insurer pays✓

Balance billing occurs when a provider bills the patient for the difference between the provider's total charge and the amount the insurer pays as the allowed amount. In-network providers typically agree not to balance bill; out-of-network or surprise-billing scenarios are addressed by laws like the federal No Surprises Act and California AB 72.

Network terminology – balance billing
21. An employer that pays employee medical claims directly out of its own funds, rather than purchasing a fully insured group policy, is using:
a.A Medicare Advantage plan that the employer chooses to administer on its own
b.A fully insured plan whose premiums vary each month with the actual claims paid
c.A guaranteed-renewable individual plan issued separately to each covered employee
d.A self-funded (self-insured) plan, often paired with stop-loss/reinsurance✓

In a self-funded (self-insured) plan, the employer assumes the financial risk for claims and typically buys stop-loss (reinsurance) coverage that caps the employer's exposure per individual claim and on an aggregate annual basis. Self-funded plans are generally governed by ERISA at the federal level.

Plan funding – self-funded vs. fully insured
22. A major medical health insurance policy is best characterized by:
a.A fixed daily indemnity benefit paid regardless of the actual medical charges the insured incurs
b.Coverage that pays only for losses caused by accidental injury, never for sickness or disease
c.Broad coverage for inpatient and outpatient services with a deductible, coinsurance, and out-of-pocket maximum✓
d.Coverage limited to dental, vision, and hearing services, with no hospital or surgical benefits

Major medical insurance provides broad coverage for hospital, surgical, physician, and outpatient care subject to plan design features such as a deductible, coinsurance, copayments, and an annual out-of-pocket maximum. Limited-benefit, accident-only, and indemnity policies are distinct product types.

Major medical coverage
23. A health plan that requires the member to pay $30 every time they visit their primary care doctor is using which cost-sharing tool?
a.Out-of-pocket maximum
b.Copayment✓
c.Coinsurance
d.Deductible

A copayment (copay) is a fixed dollar amount the member pays at the time of service, regardless of total charges. Deductibles are paid before benefits begin, coinsurance is a percentage share after the deductible, and the out-of-pocket maximum is the annual cap on cost-sharing.

Cost-sharing definitions – copayment
24. With respect to Essential Health Benefits on an ACA-compliant plan, an insurer may impose:
a.A $250,000 annual dollar cap on inpatient hospital and surgical benefits
b.No annual or lifetime dollar limits on Essential Health Benefits✓
c.A $1,000,000 lifetime dollar cap on all essential benefits combined
d.Only an annual dollar cap on essential benefits, but no lifetime cap

The ACA prohibits both annual and lifetime dollar limits on Essential Health Benefits. Non-essential benefits may still be subject to limits, but the ten categories of Essential Health Benefits (hospitalization, prescription drugs, maternity, etc.) must be offered without dollar caps.

ACA – annual & lifetime limits (42 U.S.C. §300gg-11)
25. A spouse of a covered employee loses dependent coverage because of divorce. Under federal COBRA, the maximum continuation coverage period available to the divorced spouse is:
a.60 months
b.There is no continuation available for divorced spouses
c.36 months✓
d.18 months

Divorce or legal separation is a qualifying event that affects spouses and dependent children. The maximum COBRA continuation period for such 'dependent' qualifying events (including death of the covered employee or a child losing dependent status) is 36 months.

COBRA qualifying events (29 U.S.C. §1163)
26. To be eligible to contribute to a Health Savings Account (HSA) in 2026, an individual must be covered by a High-Deductible Health Plan (HDHP) AND:
a.Be self-employed, because an HSA is open only to sole proprietors and partners and is closed to an employee whose coverage comes through a group plan
b.Be under age 65 on the last day of the tax year, because the right to make HSA contributions ends on the accountholder's 65th birthday
c.Have NO other disqualifying coverage (e.g., full Medicare, general-purpose FSA, or non-HDHP plan) and not be a tax dependent of another✓
d.Have household income below 400% of the federal poverty level, the same ceiling that governs eligibility for premium tax credits on the exchange

Under IRC §223, HSA eligibility requires that the individual (1) be covered by a qualifying HDHP with minimum deductibles and maximum out-of-pocket limits set annually by the IRS, (2) have NO other 'disqualifying' health coverage — this includes Medicare enrollment (any part), a general-purpose health FSA, a spouse's non-HDHP plan that covers them, or being entitled to VA benefits within the prior 3 months (with exceptions), and (3) not be claimed as a dependent on another taxpayer's return. The under-age-65 condition is implied by the Medicare disqualifier but is not the full rule. The 400%-of-federal-poverty-level ceiling does not apply here — HSA eligibility is income-blind, unlike ACA subsidies. And the self-employed-only restriction is wrong — HSAs are available to employees, self-employed, and the unemployed alike.

IRC §223 (HSA eligibility)
27. A 'hospital indemnity' policy differs from a major medical policy because it:
a.Pays only the attending physician's professional fees and excludes hospital room-and-board charges from coverage entirely
b.Pays a fixed, stated dollar amount per day (or per admission) regardless of the actual medical expenses incurred✓
c.Covers only catastrophic claims above a high dollar threshold and pays nothing toward an ordinary short hospital stay
d.Reimburses the actual covered medical expenses dollar-for-dollar after the deductible and coinsurance are applied

A hospital indemnity (or 'hospital cash') policy pays a flat, scheduled benefit — for example, $200 per day of hospital confinement or $1,500 per admission — without regard to the actual medical costs. This contrasts with a major medical or reimbursement policy, which pays based on the actual expenses incurred (subject to deductibles, coinsurance, and out-of-pocket maxima). Hospital indemnity benefits are typically considered SUPPLEMENTAL coverage and do NOT qualify as minimum essential coverage under the ACA; the consumer needs comprehensive coverage in addition. The description of paying only for catastrophic claims above a high dollar threshold describes catastrophic policies. The description of dollar-for-dollar reimbursement after the deductible and coinsurance describes reimbursement plans (the major medical model). And the claim that only the physician's professional fees are paid, with room and board excluded, is fabricated. Hospital indemnity is a 'valued' or 'indemnity-style' contract, paying a scheduled amount.

Cal. Ins. Code §10123 and federal PPACA
28. Which of the following is the BEST description of an Exclusive Provider Organization (EPO)?
a.A managed-care plan that covers ONLY in-network providers except in emergencies and generally does NOT require referrals from a primary care physician✓
b.A plan that requires a primary-care-physician referral for every specialist visit and pays for out-of-network care at exactly the same benefit level as in-network care
c.A government-run health plan sold only through Covered California and administered by the state exchange itself rather than by any private insurance company
d.A traditional fee-for-service indemnity plan that has no provider network at all and pays every licensed provider on the same basis

An Exclusive Provider Organization (EPO) is a managed-care hybrid: like an HMO, it provides coverage ONLY through in-network providers (except in genuine emergencies under the federal 'prudent layperson' standard); like a PPO, it generally does NOT require a primary-care-physician referral to see specialists. The EPO model is regulated as a health care service plan under Knox-Keene if it is a full-service plan. The plan that requires a PCP referral for every specialist visit describes a Point-of-Service (POS) plan. The plan with no provider network at all, paying every licensed provider on the same basis, describes a traditional fee-for-service indemnity plan. The government-run exchange-administered plan is fabricated; EPOs are private insurance products. The three key managed-care archetypes in California are HMO (PCP+narrow network), PPO (broader, no PCP, out-of-network covered at lower rate), and EPO (narrow, no PCP, no out-of-network).

Cal. Health & Safety Code §1342 (Knox-Keene)
29. A health plan member sees an in-network specialist for a service that costs $500. The plan has a $250 deductible (already met), 20% coinsurance, and a $30 copay for specialist visits. After meeting the deductible, the typical structure is:
a.The member pays the $250 deductible over again plus the full $500 bill, because the plan's deductible resets at the start of every new specialist visit
b.The member pays a $30 copay OR 20% coinsurance ($100), per the plan's design — but not both, unless the plan's schedule explicitly stacks them✓
c.The member pays only the $30 copay and nothing further, no matter what the plan's benefit schedule says about coinsurance rates
d.The member pays 100% of the $500 charge, since in-network specialist care is never covered once the deductible has already been met

Cost-sharing terms in California are defined under Insurance Code §10123 and managed-care regulations. A 'deductible' is the amount the member pays before the plan starts paying. A 'copay' is a fixed dollar amount per service. 'Coinsurance' is a percentage of the cost the member pays after the deductible. Most plan designs apply EITHER a copay OR coinsurance for a given visit — not both — and the Summary of Benefits & Coverage spells out which, so the correct statement is the one that makes the member owe the $30 copay OR 20% coinsurance ($100) per the plan's design, unless the schedule explicitly stacks them. The response charging the $250 deductible again wrongly assumes the deductible reapplies (the prompt said it was met). The response charging the member 100% of the $500 ignores the plan's coverage entirely. And the response paying only the $30 copay no matter what the schedule says assumes copay-only without checking the plan's design.

Cal. Ins. Code §10123 (cost-sharing definitions)
30. Which of the following BEST describes a 'staff model' HMO?
a.Physicians are employees of the HMO itself and typically work in HMO-owned clinics, seeing only HMO members✓
b.The HMO contracts with multiple independent physician practices, who continue to see non-HMO patients in private practice
c.The HMO is owned by the federal Medicare program
d.Each member chooses any community physician and the HMO reimburses fee-for-service

HMO organizational models under the federal HMO Act and California Knox-Keene Act include: (1) STAFF model — physicians are W-2 employees of the HMO working in HMO-owned facilities and seeing only HMO members; (2) GROUP model — the HMO contracts with one multi-specialty medical group, which may or may not see outside patients; (3) NETWORK model — the HMO contracts with multiple groups; (4) IPA (Independent Practice Association) model — the HMO contracts with an IPA whose individual physicians remain in private practice and see other patients. Contracting with multiple independent physician practices whose doctors keep seeing non-HMO patients therefore describes the IPA model, not the staff model. Letting each member choose any community physician with fee-for-service reimbursement describes traditional indemnity, not an HMO at all. Federal Medicare ownership is fabricated; HMOs are private (Medicare Advantage HMOs are private plans contracting with CMS, but the HMOs themselves are not federally owned). Staff-model HMOs are the most tightly integrated form.

California Health & Safety Code §1342 et seq. (Knox-Keene Act); HMO models
31. A Point-of-Service (POS) plan is BEST distinguished from a pure HMO by which of the following features?
a.A POS plan never requires a primary-care referral and reimburses out-of-network providers at 100% of billed charges, so the member's cost sharing is the same whichever provider is used, balance billing cannot arise, and the member may see any specialist directly without telling the plan
b.A POS plan has no provider network and operates exactly like indemnity insurance, paying a fixed percentage of usual and customary charges to any licensed provider the member picks, with no primary-care gatekeeper, no referral requirement, and no participating-provider list
c.A POS plan layers an HMO 'core' (in-network, PCP referrals, lowest cost-sharing) with PPO-like benefits when the member chooses to go OUT of network without a referral, but the out-of-network benefit is paid at a LOWER level (higher deductible and coinsurance)✓
d.A POS plan covers only emergency and urgent care, so routine office visits, preventive services, and chronic-disease management must each be purchased under a separate standalone indemnity rider issued by the same carrier at enrollment

A Point-of-Service (POS) plan is a managed-care hybrid that gives the member a choice 'at the point of service.' In-network with a primary-care-physician referral, the member receives HMO-level benefits with low cost-sharing. Out-of-network or without a referral, the member can still get covered care, but at PPO-like cost levels (a higher deductible, higher coinsurance, and balance-billing risk) — that two-tier structure is the correct distinction from a pure HMO. The description of a plan with no provider network paying a fixed percentage of usual and customary charges to any licensed provider is wrong; POS plans have networks and gatekeepers. The description that never requires a referral and reimburses out-of-network providers at 100% of billed charges is wrong; the very point of the structure is to make out-of-network MORE expensive, not free. And limiting the plan to emergency and urgent care with routine services bought through a separate indemnity rider is fabricated. The defining feature is the two-tier benefit structure tied to whether the member uses the HMO core or steps outside it.

California Health & Safety Code §1374.16 et seq. (POS / referrals); Knox-Keene
32. For 2026, to be an HSA-eligible High-Deductible Health Plan (HDHP), the plan must have at LEAST a minimum annual deductible and CANNOT EXCEED a maximum out-of-pocket limit, both set annually by the IRS. Which of the following statements is MOST accurate?
a.The IRS sets MINIMUM deductible amounts and MAXIMUM out-of-pocket limits for HSA-qualifying HDHPs each year separately for self-only and family coverage; the deductible must be at LEAST the minimum, and the out-of-pocket must NOT exceed the maximum (preventive care may be covered without satisfying the deductible)✓
b.The IRS thresholds for HDHP qualification have not been adjusted in 20 years, because IRC §223 fixed the minimum deductible and the out-of-pocket ceiling in the statute itself; the revenue procedure the IRS issues each year simply restates those permanent figures and sets the annual HSA contribution limits for self-only and family coverage
c.There is a single fixed $1,000 deductible minimum that applies to self-only and family coverage alike, and no out-of-pocket cap of any kind, so a plan qualifies as an HDHP as soon as its deductible reaches that amount no matter how large the member's maximum annual exposure turns out to be
d.Only family coverage qualifies for an HSA-eligible HDHP, because a self-only plan may never be paired with a Health Savings Account; an employee with single coverage must add a dependent to the plan before opening an HSA or making any contribution to one during that plan year

Under IRC §223 and annual IRS revenue procedures, an HSA-eligible HDHP must satisfy TWO numerical tests, set separately for self-only and family coverage and adjusted annually for inflation: first, the annual deductible must be at LEAST the IRS minimum (for 2026, in the rough range of $1,700 self-only / $3,400 family — candidates should rely on current Rev. Proc.); and second, the maximum out-of-pocket limit for in-network care must NOT EXCEED the IRS ceiling (in the rough range of $8,500 self-only / $17,000 family for 2026). Preventive services may be covered before the deductible without disqualifying the plan, which is why the statement describing both tests with separate self-only and family figures is the accurate one. The single fixed $1,000 deductible minimum applying to both coverage tiers with no out-of-pocket cap fabricates a flat deductible and removes the ceiling. The claim that only family coverage can be paired with an HSA is wrong; both self-only and family HDHPs qualify. And the assertion that the thresholds have gone unadjusted for 20 years because IRC §223 fixed them in the statute is wrong; the plan-qualification figures are inflation-adjusted yearly by revenue procedure.

IRC §223 (HSA-eligible HDHP thresholds); 2025-2026 IRS Rev. Proc.
33. A Medicare beneficiary turning 65 in 2026 (newly eligible) is comparing standardized Medicare Supplement Plans. Which statement about Plan F versus Plan G is correct?
a.Plan F (which covers the Medicare Part B deductible) is no longer available to people newly eligible for Medicare on or after January 1, 2020; those beneficiaries may instead purchase Plan G, which covers everything Plan F covers EXCEPT the Part B deductible, or Plan N✓
b.Plan F remains the most comprehensive option for every newly eligible Medicare beneficiary, and because it pays the Part B deductible an insurer must offer it to anyone enrolling in Part B at age 65, so declining to sell it to that applicant would be an unfair trade practice
c.Plan G may be sold only to beneficiaries under age 65 who qualify for Medicare through end-stage renal disease, so someone turning 65 in 2026 must instead choose between Plan A and Plan B, the only two plans open to them
d.Plan G provides exactly the same benefits as Plan F, including full payment of the Part B deductible, so the two plans differ only in the premium each insurer chooses to charge, and a beneficiary may move between them at any time without underwriting

Under the Medicare Access and CHIP Reauthorization Act of 2015 (MACRA), Medigap plans that cover the Medicare Part B deductible (Plan F and Plan C) cannot be SOLD to people who become NEWLY eligible for Medicare on or after January 1, 2020. Beneficiaries who were already eligible before that date may keep or buy Plan F or Plan C, but newly eligibles must choose another standardized plan. Plan G is now the most comprehensive available to newly eligibles; it pays everything Plan F pays except the Part B deductible, with Plan N as the other common alternative. California Insurance Code §10192 et seq. mirrors federal Medigap standardization and adds California-specific protections (e.g., the birthday rule under §10192.11). Saying Plan F remains available to every newly eligible beneficiary and must be offered on request overstates Plan F's availability. Saying Plan G provides exactly the same benefits as Plan F including full payment of the Part B deductible is wrong; Plan G expressly excludes the Part B deductible. And restricting Plan G to under-65 beneficiaries who qualify through end-stage renal disease is fabricated.

42 U.S.C. §1395ss (Medigap standardization); California Insurance Code §10192 et seq.
34. Under federal Medigap rules, what is the 'Medigap Open Enrollment Period' for a Medicare Part B enrollee?
a.A 30-day window each October, opening with the Medicare annual election period, during which any beneficiary may buy or switch a Medigap policy on a guaranteed-issue basis; outside that annual window Medigap carriers may not accept an application at all, and a beneficiary who lets the month pass waits until the following October to apply
b.A 90-day window that opens on the beneficiary's 75th birthday, because federal law postpones guaranteed-issue Medigap rights until the age at which underwriting would otherwise become prohibitive; every applicant younger than that is medically underwritten
c.A one-time, 6-month period that begins the first month the beneficiary is BOTH age 65 or older AND enrolled in Medicare Part B; during this window the beneficiary has guaranteed-issue rights for any Medigap plan offered in their state, with no medical underwriting✓
d.An ongoing federal right to switch Medigap plans without underwriting at any time, because a Medigap policy is guaranteed renewable and that status carries with it a continuous right to move the coverage to any other carrier's plan whenever the beneficiary wishes

The federal Medigap Open Enrollment Period under 42 U.S.C. §1395ss is a ONE-TIME 6-month window that begins on the first day of the month in which the beneficiary is both age 65 or older AND enrolled in Medicare Part B. During this window, insurers must issue ANY Medigap plan they offer in the state on a guaranteed-issue basis, without medical underwriting and without surcharges for pre-existing conditions (subject to limited HIPAA-style lookback rules). After this window closes, future Medigap purchases are generally subject to medical underwriting unless a federal or state guaranteed-issue 'trigger' applies (e.g., loss of employer coverage). California layers a state-specific Birthday Rule under §10192.11 allowing annual same-or-lesser-benefit switches without underwriting. Options A, D, and B fabricate other windows.

42 U.S.C. §1395ss (Medigap open enrollment); California Insurance Code §10192.11 (birthday rule)
35. In a disability income policy, the 'elimination period' refers to:
a.The period during which the insurer may still cancel the policy for any reason
b.The time the policyowner has to return the policy for a full premium refund
c.The maximum length of time that benefits will be paid on any single claim
d.A waiting period after a disability begins before benefit payments start✓

The elimination period is a waiting period, measured from the start of a covered disability, that must pass before the insured begins receiving benefit payments; it functions like a time deductible and a longer elimination period lowers the premium. The maximum time benefits are paid is the benefit period, a different concept. The insurer's ability to cancel relates to renewability provisions. The time to return the policy for a refund is the free-look period. Only the elimination period delays the start of benefits.

36. In a major medical plan, 'coinsurance' most accurately describes:
a.A flat dollar amount the insured pays at each doctor visit, no matter what the plan's deductible is
b.The fixed amount the insured must pay each year before the plan pays anything at all
c.The maximum dollar amount the plan will ever pay for one insured over an entire lifetime of covered claims
d.The percentage split of covered costs between the insurer and the insured after the deductible is met✓

Coinsurance is the sharing of covered expenses on a percentage basis (for example, the insurer pays 80% and the insured pays 20%) after the deductible has been satisfied. A flat dollar amount per visit is a copayment, not coinsurance. The amount the insured pays before the plan pays is the deductible. The most the plan will ever pay is a maximum benefit limit. Coinsurance specifically refers to the proportional cost split, and it stops once the insured reaches the out-of-pocket maximum (stop-loss).

37. The term 'morbidity' as used by health insurers refers to:
a.The share of premium an insurer spends on agent commissions and marketing
b.The interest rate an insurer credits to its statutory policy reserves each year
c.The incidence and severity of sickness and disability in a given group✓
d.The rate at which the people in a given insured group die during a year

Morbidity measures the frequency and severity of illness, injury, and disability within a defined population, and health insurers use morbidity tables to price coverage. Mortality, by contrast, measures the rate of death and is used mainly for life insurance pricing. Morbidity is not an interest or investment measure, nor is it a marketing or commission figure. Understanding the morbidity-versus-mortality distinction is fundamental: health insurance risk is about getting sick or disabled, while life insurance risk is about dying.

38. A key difference between a Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) and a Preferred Provider Organization (PPO) is that an HMO typically:
a.Lets members see any out-of-network provider at the same cost sharing as in-network care
b.Reimburses members on a pure fee-for-service basis with no provider network and no negotiated discounts
c.Provides no coverage for routine preventive care such as annual physicals and screenings
d.Requires members to use network providers and often a primary care physician who coordinates referrals✓

HMOs emphasize managed care: members generally must use in-network providers and often select a primary care physician (a gatekeeper) who coordinates care and referrals to specialists, in exchange for lower costs. A PPO offers more flexibility, allowing out-of-network care at a higher cost, so identical cost sharing in and out of network is not accurate for either an HMO or a PPO. Pure fee-for-service reimbursement with no network describes a traditional indemnity plan. HMOs actually stress preventive care, so saying they cover no routine physicals or screenings is wrong.

39. Once an insured's covered out-of-pocket expenses reach the plan's 'stop-loss' (out-of-pocket maximum) for the year, the plan generally:
a.Pays 100% of additional covered expenses for the rest of the year✓
b.Requires the insured to pay 100% of every remaining covered charge
c.Cancels the policy and reinstates it in the next plan year
d.Stops paying any further claims for the remainder of that year

The stop-loss (out-of-pocket maximum) provision caps the insured's annual cost sharing; once the insured has paid that amount in deductibles and coinsurance, the plan pays 100% of additional covered expenses for the remainder of the year, protecting the insured from catastrophic costs. It does not stop the plan's payments, nor shift all remaining costs to the insured, which are the opposite of its purpose. Reaching the stop-loss does not cancel the policy. The provision exists specifically to limit the insured's financial exposure.

40. The two broad categories of health insurance are:
a.Property coverage and casualty coverage, a separate branch of insurance entirely
b.Fixed coverage and variable coverage
c.Life insurance and annuities
d.Medical expense coverage and disability income coverage✓

Health insurance divides into medical expense coverage, which pays for care such as hospital, physician, and surgical services, and disability income coverage, which replaces part of the income lost when the insured cannot work. Life insurance and annuities are separate product lines. Property and casualty is a different branch of insurance entirely. Fixed and variable describe how certain life and annuity products are invested, not health insurance categories. Recognizing these two purposes, paying medical bills versus replacing income, frames all health coverage.

41. Basic medical expense coverage differs from major medical coverage mainly because basic coverage typically:
a.Provides first-dollar benefits with no deductible but has relatively low limits✓
b.Is designed to absorb catastrophic medical costs across a broad range of services and providers
c.Carries very high lifetime limits
d.Requires a large annual deductible

Basic medical expense plans historically paid 'first dollar' benefits, meaning they began paying with little or no deductible, but they had relatively low benefit limits for specific services. Major medical, by contrast, provides broad, high-limit protection after a deductible and coinsurance, and is meant to handle large or catastrophic costs. So basic coverage is characterized by low limits and first-dollar payment, not high limits or a large deductible. The two are often combined so basic pays first and major medical covers the excess.

42. A 'calendar-year' deductible in a medical plan means the insured must satisfy the deductible:
a.Once during each year, after which the plan begins paying its share✓
b.Only once in the insured's entire lifetime, after which it would never apply again
c.Fresh at the start of every month
d.Separately for each different illness

A calendar-year (or annual) deductible must be met once during each year; once the insured's covered costs reach that amount, the plan pays its share for the rest of the year, and the deductible resets the following year. A deductible applied to each separate illness is a per-cause deductible. It is not a one-time lifetime deductible, and it does not reset monthly. The calendar-year structure is the most common deductible design in medical expense plans.

43. A 'family deductible' provision in a medical plan generally:
a.Requires every family member to meet a separate deductible with no overall cap, no matter how many of them have already met their own deductibles
b.Doubles the plan's coinsurance percentage
c.Eliminates the out-of-pocket maximum entirely
d.Caps the total deductible a family must meet, often once two or three members have each met the individual deductible✓

A family deductible sets an aggregate limit so that once a specified number of family members (commonly two or three) have each satisfied the individual deductible, the family deductible is considered met and no further deductibles apply for the year. It does not require every member to meet a full deductible with no cap, does not change coinsurance, and does not remove the out-of-pocket maximum. The provision protects larger families from stacking up multiple full deductibles.

44. The 'coordination of benefits' (COB) provision in group health insurance is designed to prevent:
a.The insured from ever filing a claim
b.The insurer from paying any benefits at all whenever a person happens to be enrolled under more than one group plan
c.The plan from covering preventive services
d.The insured from collecting more than 100 percent of covered expenses when covered by two plans✓

Coordination of benefits applies when a person is covered by more than one group plan; it establishes which plan pays first (primary) and which pays second (secondary) so that the total reimbursement does not exceed 100 percent of the actual covered expenses. It does not bar filing claims, block preventive care, or stop the insurer from paying. COB exists to prevent duplicate payment and the profit motive that could arise from being over-reimbursed by multiple plans.

45. Individual disability income policies typically limit the benefit to roughly 60 percent of the insured's earned income in order to:
a.Comply with Medicare requirements
b.Preserve the insured's incentive to return to work and avoid overinsurance✓
c.Match the way property insurance works
d.Reduce the insurer's advertising costs, which has nothing to do with how benefit limits are set

Disability income benefits are capped at a portion of income (often around 60 percent) because disability benefits are generally received income-tax-free when the individual paid the premiums, so replacing too much income could leave the insured better off not working, creating a moral hazard. The limit is not about advertising costs, Medicare, or property insurance. Keeping the benefit below full pay maintains the insured's motivation to recover and return to work.

46. Under a 'presumptive disability' provision in a disability income policy, the insured is automatically presumed totally disabled upon:
a.The loss of sight, hearing, speech, or the use of two limbs✓
b.Catching a common cold or any other short illness
c.Voluntarily leaving one employer for a better-paying position
d.Missing a single scheduled day of work because of illness

A presumptive disability provision automatically deems the insured totally disabled, and pays full benefits without the usual proof, upon certain severe losses such as loss of sight, hearing, speech, or the loss of use of two limbs, even if the insured could technically still work. Missing one day of work, a minor illness like a cold, or changing jobs do not qualify. The provision recognizes that these catastrophic losses are so serious that disability is presumed as a matter of course.

47. A 'recurrent disability' provision in a disability income policy determines:
a.The amount of any death benefit
b.Whether a return of the same disability soon after recovery is treated as a continuation of the prior claim rather than a new one✓
c.How the policy's premiums are calculated at issue, based on the insured's age, occupation, and health, none of which this provision addresses
d.The length of the free-look period

A recurrent disability provision states that if the insured recovers and then suffers the same disability again within a short specified time (often six months), it is treated as a continuation of the original disability, so a new elimination period does not have to be served. It has nothing to do with premium calculation, the free-look period, or a death benefit. The provision protects an insured from having to satisfy a fresh waiting period when the same condition quickly returns.

48. A residual (partial) disability benefit pays when the insured:
a.Is totally and permanently disabled and cannot work at all in any occupation for the rest of their life
b.Returns to work but earns less because of the disability, in proportion to the income lost✓
c.Has fully recovered and returned to full earnings
d.Chooses to retire early with no disability

A residual disability benefit applies when the insured can work but, due to the ongoing effects of the disability, earns less than before; the benefit is generally paid in proportion to the percentage of income lost. It is not for total permanent disability (which pays full benefits), not for full recovery with no lost income, and not for voluntary retirement. The residual benefit bridges the gap between total disability and full recovery by covering a partial loss of earnings.

49. Contributions to a Health Savings Account (HSA) generally receive which federal tax treatment?
a.They are tax-deductible or pre-tax, grow tax-free, and are tax-free when used for qualified medical expenses✓
b.They are forfeited at the end of each year
c.They can never be carried over into a future year unless the account owner remains with the same employer and health plan
d.They are always fully taxable when contributed

HSAs offer a rare triple tax advantage: contributions are deductible or made pre-tax, the account grows tax-free, and withdrawals for qualified medical expenses are tax-free. Contributions are not taxable when made, the balance does carry over year to year, and funds are not forfeited at year-end. This favorable treatment, combined with the balance being the owner's to keep, makes the HSA a powerful savings tool alongside a high-deductible plan.

50. Unlike a Flexible Spending Account (FSA), unused funds in a Health Savings Account (HSA) at year-end:
a.Are forfeited under a strict use-it-or-lose-it rule that applies to any balance left at year-end
b.Roll over and remain the account owner's money, even if the owner changes jobs✓
c.Are taxed at a flat fifty percent rate
d.Automatically revert to the employer

HSA balances roll over indefinitely and belong to the account owner, who keeps them even when changing employers or health plans, so the account can grow over many years. An FSA, by contrast, is generally subject to a use-it-or-lose-it rule. HSA funds do not revert to the employer and are not taxed at a flat penalty rate simply for remaining in the account. Portability and rollover are key advantages of the HSA over the FSA.

51. The term 'usual, customary, and reasonable' (UCR) charge refers to:
a.The amount a plan treats as appropriate for a service based on the prevailing fees charged in that geographic area✓
b.The flat copayment due at a visit
c.The plan's annual deductible
d.The monthly premium the insured pays for the coverage, a fixed cost unrelated to how a plan decides a reasonable charge for a service

A UCR charge is the amount an insurer considers reasonable for a given service, determined by the usual fee the provider charges, the customary fees of similar providers in the same area, and what is reasonable for the situation; the plan bases reimbursement on this figure, and the insured may owe amounts a provider bills above it. UCR is not the deductible, premium, or copay. UCR limits how much a plan will recognize for out-of-network or fee-for-service charges.

52. A managed care 'preauthorization' (precertification) requirement means the insured or provider must:
a.File a written police report with local law enforcement before any medical treatment is received
b.Obtain the plan's approval before certain services, such as a non-emergency hospital admission, to ensure coverage✓
c.Wait a full year after enrolling in the plan before receiving benefits for any hospital service
d.Pay the entire hospital bill up front before any care is delivered and then submit the itemized receipts for reimbursement

Preauthorization (precertification) requires that the plan review and approve certain non-emergency services, such as a planned hospital stay or a costly procedure, before they are provided, both to confirm medical necessity and to ensure the service will be covered. It is not a requirement to pay the full bill first, to wait a year, or to file a police report. Managed care plans use preauthorization to control costs and steer care to appropriate settings.

53. Under a 'capitation' payment arrangement, an HMO pays a network physician:
a.A fixed amount per enrolled member per month that never varies with the services used✓
b.Nothing at all until the enrolled patient files a claim form after each visit
c.A single lump-sum payment only at the end of the calendar year based on total enrollment
d.A separate negotiated fee for each individual office visit, test, or procedure performed for a member

Under capitation, the HMO pays the physician a set amount for each enrolled member per month (per capita), whether or not that member seeks care, which shifts some financial risk to the provider and encourages efficient, preventive care. It is the opposite of fee-for-service, which pays per service. It is not a claim-triggered or year-end-only payment. Capitation is a hallmark of the HMO managed care model.

54. In an HMO, the primary care physician often serves as a 'gatekeeper,' which means the physician:
a.Sets the plan's annual deductible amount and the coinsurance percentage members owe
b.Coordinates the member's overall care and provides referrals to specialists✓
c.Owns and operates the HMO
d.Collects the plan's monthly premiums

As a gatekeeper, the primary care physician manages the member's overall care and must generally provide a referral before the member sees a specialist, which helps the HMO control costs and avoid unnecessary services. The gatekeeper does not collect premiums, own the HMO, or set the deductible. The gatekeeper model is a defining feature of traditional HMOs and a key difference from PPOs, which usually let members self-refer to specialists.

55. A Point-of-Service (POS) health plan is best described as:
a.A hybrid that blends HMO features with the option to go out of network at a higher cost✓
b.A pure fee-for-service indemnity plan with no network
c.A plan that provides no coverage outside a fixed network under any circumstances whatsoever
d.A plan identical in every way to a standard HMO

A POS plan combines HMO and PPO characteristics: members typically choose a primary care physician and use the network for the lowest cost, but they may also go outside the network at the point of service by paying more. It is not a pure indemnity plan, not identical to an HMO (it allows out-of-network use), and it does provide some out-of-network coverage. The 'point of service' name reflects that the member decides in or out of network each time care is needed.

56. Many disability income policies include a waiver of premium feature that:
a.Doubles the monthly disability benefit for as long as the insured remains totally disabled
b.Shortens the policy's elimination period to zero days so that monthly benefits begin on the first day of a disability
c.Adds a lump-sum death benefit payable to the insured's named beneficiary at no extra cost
d.Stops premium payments while the insured is disabled, usually after a waiting period, keeping the policy in force✓

The waiver of premium feature in a disability income policy relieves the insured of paying premiums once they have been disabled for a specified period (often 90 days), and coverage continues without payment while the disability lasts. It does not eliminate the elimination period, double the benefit, or add a death benefit. The feature protects the policy from lapsing at the very time the disabled insured may struggle to pay premiums.

57. Under a 'guaranteed renewable' health policy, the insurer:
a.May refuse to renew if the insured's health worsens
b.May raise an individual's premium based on that person's own claims experience alone
c.May cancel the policy at each renewal date
d.Must renew the policy but may adjust premiums only for an entire class of insureds✓

A guaranteed renewable policy requires the insurer to renew the coverage (usually to a stated age) and forbids singling out an individual for a rate increase or nonrenewal; premiums can be changed only for an entire class of similar policyholders. The insurer cannot cancel at renewal, cannot raise one person's premium for their own claims, and cannot refuse renewal because health declined. This provision sits between the stronger noncancelable and weaker conditionally renewable forms.

58. A 'conditionally renewable' policy allows the insurer to decline renewal:
a.Only after the policy has been in force for twenty years, a time restriction this provision does not impose
b.For absolutely any reason the insurer chooses
c.Only for specific reasons stated in the contract, and not because of the insured's declining health✓
d.Under no circumstances at all

A conditionally renewable policy lets the insurer refuse renewal only for reasons spelled out in the contract (such as the insured reaching a certain age or leaving employment), but it may not decline renewal simply because the insured's health has deteriorated. It is not renewable-or-cancelable at the insurer's whim, is not guaranteed under all circumstances, and has no twenty-year rule. This form gives the insurer more control than guaranteed renewable but still protects against nonrenewal for health reasons.

59. An 'optionally renewable' health policy gives the insurer the right to:
a.Cancel the policy in the middle of a term without any notice to the insured, which this provision does not permit
b.Refuse renewal or change premiums on policy anniversaries or premium due dates, at its own option✓
c.Keep the premium level for the entire life of the policy
d.Renew the coverage indefinitely no matter what

An optionally renewable policy reserves for the insurer the option, at renewal (policy anniversaries or premium due dates), to either decline renewal or adjust the premium, giving the insurer substantial discretion. It does not lock in premiums, does not guarantee renewal, and generally does not permit cancellation in the middle of a paid term (renewability decisions occur at the renewal points). Optionally renewable is a weaker guarantee for the insured than guaranteed renewable.

60. On-the-job injuries and illnesses of most employees are typically covered by:
a.Medicare
b.Workers compensation, which is separate from off-the-job disability coverage✓
c.The employee's major medical plan alone
d.A nonoccupational disability income policy, which specifically excludes on-the-job losses

Workers compensation is a separate, employer-provided coverage that pays for work-related injuries and illnesses, including medical care and a portion of lost wages, which is why private disability income policies are often written as nonoccupational. A nonoccupational policy specifically excludes on-the-job losses. Major medical is general health coverage, not the primary payer for work injuries, and Medicare is a federal program for seniors and certain disabled persons, not the on-the-job payer. Coordinating with workers compensation is an important design point for disability coverage.

61. A hospital indemnity (hospital confinement) policy pays:
a.Only the cost of surgery performed during the insured's hospital stay, and nothing else
b.A fixed dollar amount for each day the insured is hospitalized, never an itemized reimbursement✓
c.The exact amount of the hospital's itemized bill for each confinement after the deductible and coinsurance
d.Nothing toward a hospital stay unless the insured is also confined in intensive care

A hospital indemnity policy pays a predetermined flat amount (for example, a set dollar figure per day of confinement) whenever the insured is hospitalized, no matter what the actual bill is, and the insured may use the cash for any purpose. It does not reimburse the exact bill (that is a medical expense plan), is not limited to surgery, and does provide a hospital benefit. Because it is a limited, fixed-benefit product, it supplements rather than replaces comprehensive medical coverage.

62. An accident-only policy covers:
a.Losses resulting from accidental injury, but not from sickness✓
b.Long-term custodial care
c.Only routine annual checkups
d.Both sickness and accidental injury equally under the same terms

An accident-only policy provides benefits solely for losses caused by accidental injury, such as emergency treatment, hospitalization, or disability resulting from an accident, and it does not cover illness. It is not comprehensive coverage for both sickness and injury, is not limited to checkups, and is not long-term care. Because it excludes sickness, an accident-only policy is a narrow, lower-cost product that should be presented as a supplement, not a substitute for major medical coverage.

63. A specified (dread) disease policy pays benefits:
a.For accidental bodily injury only, never for any diagnosed illness
b.For routine dental cleanings and other preventive services the insured schedules
c.For any illness or injury the insured develops over the life of the policy
d.Only for a named disease listed in the policy, never for any other✓

A specified or dread disease policy pays benefits only if the insured is diagnosed with a particular disease named in the contract, most commonly cancer, and pays nothing for other conditions. It is not general coverage for any illness, not an accident policy, and not dental coverage. Because its benefits are limited to one disease, it is a supplemental product, and producers must be careful not to let a consumer treat it as comprehensive health insurance.

64. An Accidental Death and Dismemberment (AD&D) policy pays:
a.A principal sum for accidental death and a capital sum, a percentage of the principal, for the accidental loss of limbs or sight✓
b.A monthly income benefit for any illness the insured develops, along with reimbursement of the resulting hospital and physician charges
c.Monthly long-term custodial care benefits for an insured who needs daily help with bathing, dressing, and eating
d.A guaranteed monthly retirement income beginning at the insured's normal retirement age and continuing for life

AD&D coverage pays the full principal sum if the insured dies as a result of a covered accident, and pays a capital sum, a stated percentage of the principal, for the accidental loss of, or loss of use of, limbs or eyesight (for example, half the principal for the loss of one hand). It does not pay for illness, provide retirement income, or fund long-term care. AD&D is limited strictly to accidental death and dismemberment, so it is inexpensive but narrow.

65. Dental insurance plans commonly organize covered services into categories of:
a.Accident and sickness, each with its own separate annual deductible and yearly maximum
b.Preventive, basic, and major services, sometimes with separate deductibles and annual maximums✓
c.Skilled and custodial care, the two levels the plan uses to set its annual benefit maximum
d.Inpatient and outpatient care, with a separate deductible and coinsurance percentage applied to each setting

Dental plans typically classify services as preventive (cleanings and exams, often covered at or near 100 percent), basic (fillings and simple extractions), and major (crowns, bridges, and dentures), frequently applying deductibles and an annual dollar maximum. Inpatient and outpatient, accident and sickness, and skilled and custodial are classifications used in other kinds of coverage, not dental. Knowing the preventive-basic-major structure helps explain why dental plans emphasize low-cost preventive care.

66. A future increase option (guaranteed insurability) rider on a DI policy lets the insured:
a.Buy additional monthly benefit as income grows, without new medical underwriting✓
b.Skip the elimination period on claims
c.Change occupations with no tax effect
d.Decrease the monthly benefit only, in order to lower the premium as the insured grows steadily older

The future increase option lets the insured raise the benefit as earnings rise, without proving insurability again. It does not reduce coverage, address occupation taxes, or waive the elimination period.

67. An accident-only policy will NOT pay benefits for:
a.A broken leg from a fall at home
b.Injuries from a highway car accident
c.Dismemberment resulting from an accident
d.Illness such as pneumonia or cancer✓

Accident-only coverage pays for injuries but excludes sickness, so an illness like pneumonia or cancer is not covered. Falls, car-accident injuries, and dismemberment are accidents and are covered.

68. A dread disease (critical illness) policy pays:
a.Long-term custodial and nursing home care benefits for insureds who cannot perform their daily activities
b.Benefits only for accidental injuries
c.A benefit only for a specifically named condition such as cancer or heart attack✓
d.Benefits for any illness the insured develops

A dread disease policy is a limited plan paying only when a named condition, like cancer or heart attack, is diagnosed. It does not cover all illnesses, accidents generally, or long-term care.

69. Skilled nursing care, intermediate care, and custodial care are:
a.Levels of long-term care that an LTC policy may cover✓
b.The four benefit parts of Medicare, A through D
c.Categories of inpatient hospital surgery and anesthesia
d.Annuity payout options under a deferred contract

These describe the levels of long-term care, from skilled medical care down to non-medical custodial help. They are not surgeries, Medicare parts, or annuity options.

70. Custodial care, the level most often needed long-term, primarily involves:
a.Emergency surgical treatment and other acute medical procedures that must be performed by licensed physicians in a hospital setting
b.Care by skilled medical professionals under a physician's order
c.Help with activities of daily living, such as bathing, dressing, and eating, that can be provided by non-medical personnel✓
d.Prescription drug therapy only

Custodial care is non-medical assistance with daily living activities and is what most long-term care recipients require. Skilled care under a doctor's order and surgery are different, higher levels of care.

71. A distinguishing feature of an HMO is that it:
a.Reimburses the insured after the fact on a fee-for-service basis
b.Provides prepaid care through network providers, emphasizing preventive services, usually with low copays✓
c.Operates with no provider network at all
d.Covers only inpatient hospital stays and provides no benefits for routine or preventive outpatient office visits

An HMO delivers prepaid, managed care through its network with an emphasis on prevention and low member cost-sharing. Fee-for-service reimbursement and no network describe indemnity plans.

72. In a PPO, using an out-of-network provider generally results in:
a.Coverage at a higher out-of-pocket cost to the insured✓
b.A cash bonus from the insurer for choosing that provider
c.No coverage at all, not even for emergency treatment
d.Exactly the same cost sharing as staying in network

A PPO still covers out-of-network care but at a higher cost to the insured, preserving flexibility. It neither denies out-of-network care nor charges the same as in-network.

73. A Point-of-Service (POS) plan:
a.Covers only emergency and urgent care services and provides no coverage at all for routine visits, whether they are in-network or out-of-network
b.Never uses a primary care physician
c.Blends HMO and PPO features, letting the member choose in-network (gatekeeper) or out-of-network care at the time of service✓
d.Is identical to traditional indemnity coverage

A POS plan combines HMO gatekeeping for the lowest cost with the option to go out-of-network at higher cost, deciding at the point of service. It is not the same as indemnity coverage.

74. To contribute to a Health Savings Account (HSA), an individual must be covered by a:
a.Stand-alone dental and vision benefit plan
b.Qualified high-deductible health plan (HDHP)✓
c.Low-deductible HMO plan with fixed office copays
d.Medicare Part A hospital insurance alone

HSA contributions require enrollment in a qualified high-deductible health plan and no disqualifying coverage. Low-deductible HMOs, Medicare, and dental plans do not qualify a person to fund an HSA.

Last reviewed: · editorial process

PrepPass team · Verified against California CDI · How we review
Reviewed by John Zihao Zhang — California-Licensed Life Insurance Agent (CA Dept. of Insurance License #4396095 — verify)

What's on the California Life & Accident-Health Agent License?

The California Life & Accident-Health Agent License is administered by the California Department of Insurance (CDI). The topic weights below are a PrepPass estimate, not figures published by the California Department of Insurance (CDI).

Questions
150 questions
Time limit
195 minutes
Passing score
60%

Every figure above, with the document it came from and the date we read it →

Topic blueprint

  • 20%
    California Insurance Code & Ethics
  • 15%
    Life Insurance Fundamentals
  • 15%
    Life Policy Provisions
  • 10%
    Accident & Health Fundamentals
  • 10%
    A&H Policy Provisions
  • 10%
    General Insurance Principles
  • 10%
    Group Life & Annuities
  • 5%
    Disability & Long-Term Care
  • 3%
    Medicare & Senior Insurance
  • 2%
    Tax Treatment
PrepPass team · Verified against California Department of Insurance (CDI) · How we review

How hard is the exam?

Difficult. The California Life & Accident-Health exam is 150 questions over 195 minutes at PSI, 60% to pass. Heavy on California Insurance Code (CIC) and IRC tax rules. Available in EN/ES/VI/ZH/KO under AB-451.

Recommended study hours
100-150 hours over 6-10 weeks (only the 12-hour ethics course is required for prelicensing — AB 943, 2026)
First-attempt pass rate
60% on the first attempt (n = 9,117) — California Department of Insurance, 2025. CDI’s row is “Life and Accident / Health or Sickness”; its separate Life-only line was 63% (n = 10,075) and Accident / Health or Sickness 76%. It was 66% in 2024. CDI states plainly that these are “the examination pass rates for individuals taking the license examination on their first attempt.”Source: California Department of Insurance — 2025 Annual Report of the Commissioner (PDF), “LSD Licensing Examination First-Time Pass Rates”
Where to focus first
California Insurance Code (CIC) and Life Insurance Provisions — together about 35% of exam content; expect specific code section citations in distractors.

Fees and salaries are approximate and change over time. The pass rate above is quoted from the source linked beside it, for the period that source covers — where we have not checked a source, we say so and give no number.

Frequently asked questions

How many California Life & Accident-Health insurance practice questions?+

716 original practice questions covering all 10 topics of the California Department of Insurance Life & A&H Agent license exam.

Is the Life & A&H practice test free?+

Yes, completely free. No signup, no credit card. Unlimited practice rounds and a 150-question timed mock exam included.

Are these real CDI exam questions?+

No. All questions are original prose authored from the California Insurance Code, Title 10 CCR, Civil Code, and standard ISO insurance contract concepts. We never copy from real CDI exams or providers like ExamFX, Kaplan, or AD Banker.

What's the passing score for the California Life & A&H exam?+

60%, and CDI publishes no sectional or per-subject cut score — a failing candidate gets a per-topic diagnostic, which is a diagnostic, not a cut score. The real CDI exam is 150 multiple-choice questions over 195 minutes at a PSI testing center.

Is the California insurance license exam offered in Chinese or Vietnamese?+

Yes — AB 451 (Stats. 2023, ch. 136) legally requires CDI to offer producer license exams in English, Spanish, Simplified Chinese, Vietnamese, Korean and Tagalog.

What does the Life & A&H license let me sell?+

Life insurance, annuities, accident insurance, health insurance, disability insurance, and long-term care (LTC) insurance — all to California residents.

How long is the California insurance license valid?+

2 years. Renewal requires 24 hours of continuing education (3 of which must be ethics) per renewal cycle.

Is there a study guide for the Life & Health Insurance Producer?+

Yes. PrepPass sells California Life & Health Insurance Producer Exam — Complete Study Guide (2026), a PDF + EPUB download, $19.99 one-time; the practice on this page stays free without it. See the study guide →

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