Browse all questions

The figures these questions turn on, laid out by section on dense colour pages you can print: Life & Health Insurance Producer cheat sheet PDF — $9.99 →

Own the complete California Life & Health Insurance Producer Exam guide — PDF + EPUB, $19.99 →

Every question with its answer and explanation — study by topic or all at once.

Group Life & Annuities

88 questions
1. Under a group life insurance plan sponsored by an employer, who holds the master contract and who receives a certificate of insurance?
a.The employer holds the master contract; each covered employee receives a certificate of insurance✓
b.The insurer holds the master contract, and the employer receives a certificate of insurance for its files
c.Each covered employee holds a master contract, and the employer receives the certificate of insurance
d.Both the employer and every employee hold signed copies of the master contract itself

In group life insurance the sponsoring employer (or association) is the policyowner and holds the single master contract. Each insured employee receives only a certificate of insurance summarizing coverage, beneficiary, and conversion rights.

Cal. Ins. Code §10202
2. An employee with $100,000 of group term life coverage is terminated. How long does she have to convert to an individual permanent policy without proof of insurability?
a.21 days
b.60 days
c.31 days✓
d.10 days

California group life law requires a 31-day conversion privilege following termination of group coverage. The departing employee may convert to an individual permanent policy at her attained age with no evidence of insurability.

Cal. Ins. Code §10209
3. Under Internal Revenue Code Section 79, how much employer-paid group term life coverage on an employee is excluded from the employee's taxable income?
a.The first $25,000
b.The first $100,000
c.The first $50,000✓
d.All employer-paid coverage regardless of amount

Section 79 excludes the cost of the first $50,000 of employer-paid group term life coverage from the employee's taxable income. The cost of coverage above $50,000, calculated from IRS Table I, is imputed income on the employee's W-2.

26 U.S.C. §79
4. Which federal agency has primary responsibility for enforcing ERISA's fiduciary, disclosure, and reporting rules for employer-sponsored benefit plans?
a.The Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC)
b.The Federal Trade Commission (FTC)
c.The Internal Revenue Service (IRS)
d.The U.S. Department of Labor (DOL)✓

ERISA is administered chiefly by the U.S. Department of Labor through its Employee Benefits Security Administration. The IRS handles tax qualification of pensions and the PBGC insures certain defined-benefit pensions, but front-line fiduciary and disclosure enforcement is DOL.

29 U.S.C. §1001 et seq.
5. An annuity is best described as protection against which risk?
a.Property loss due to fire or theft
b.Becoming disabled and losing earned income
c.Living too long and outliving one's savings✓
d.Dying too soon and leaving dependents without income

An annuity is the mirror image of life insurance. Life insurance insures against dying too soon; an annuity insures against living too long, by converting accumulated savings into a stream of income that the annuitant cannot outlive.

Cal. Ins. Code §10168.2
6. In an annuity contract, whose life is used to calculate the periodic payouts during the annuitization phase?
a.The annuitant's✓
b.The beneficiary's
c.The owner's
d.The issuing insurer's

The annuitant is the natural person whose life is the measuring life for the payout calculation. Owner and annuitant are often the same person, but they need not be. The beneficiary receives any remaining value only if the owner dies before annuitization.

Cal. Ins. Code §10127.10
7. In a fixed annuity, who bears the investment risk on the funds the owner has paid in?
a.The contract owner
b.Both the owner and the annuitant equally
c.The annuitant only
d.The insurance company✓

A fixed annuity credits a declared current rate that is never less than the guaranteed minimum stated in the contract. The insurer bears the investment risk and must credit at least the minimum even if its own investments perform poorly.

Cal. Ins. Code §10168.25
8. Which license, in addition to a California life-only license, must a producer hold to sell a variable annuity?
a.A California accident and health agent license
b.A FINRA securities license (Series 6 or Series 7)✓
c.A California public adjuster license from the CDI
d.A California property and casualty broker-agent license

Variable annuity subaccounts are securities, so selling a variable annuity requires a FINRA securities license such as Series 6 (mutual funds and variable contracts) or Series 7, in addition to a state life insurance license.

Cal. Ins. Code §10506
9. An indexed annuity has a 0% floor and a 6% cap. If the linked index returns negative 12% in a contract year, what interest is credited to the owner's account that year?
a.0%✓
b.Negative 6%
c.Negative 12%
d.6%

The floor prevents loss in a down year. With a 0% floor, the worst that can happen is that no interest is credited; the owner's principal is not reduced because of the index decline. The cap would only matter in an up year, limiting an above-cap gain.

Cal. Ins. Code §10168.25
10. Which statement best describes a single premium annuity?
a.It is funded by one lump-sum payment✓
b.It is funded by both an initial premium and required annual top-ups
c.It cannot accept any premiums after the first year of the contract
d.It is funded by ongoing flexible payments over many years

A single premium annuity is purchased with one lump-sum payment. A flexible premium annuity, by contrast, allows the owner to make additional contributions over time within contract limits.

Cal. Ins. Code §10127.13

Want these explained in order? California Life & Health Insurance Producer Exam — Complete Study Guide (2026) — PDF + EPUB, $19.99 · 14-day refund →

11. By definition, a single premium immediate annuity (SPIA) must begin making payouts to the annuitant no later than:
a.One year from the date of purchase✓
b.The annuitant's 65th birthday
c.The annuitant's 59½ birthday
d.Five years from the date of purchase

An immediate annuity, including a SPIA, must begin making periodic payouts within one year of purchase, which is what distinguishes it from a deferred annuity. The 59½ rule is a tax rule about early-withdrawal penalty, not a payout-start rule.

Cal. Ins. Code §10168.2
12. Which annuity settlement option produces the largest periodic payment for a given premium, all else equal?
a.Life with 20-year period certain
b.Joint and 100% survivor
c.Straight life✓
d.Life with installment refund

Straight life produces the highest periodic payment because payments end at the annuitant's death, with nothing payable to a survivor or beneficiary. Joint and survivor and any form with a guarantee or refund must cost something, so they lower the per-payment amount.

Cal. Ins. Code §10168.2
13. A married couple wants lifetime income that continues to whichever spouse lives longer. Which annuity settlement option is the most common fit?
a.Straight life on the husband only
b.Single life with cash refund on the wife
c.Fixed period for 10 years
d.Joint and survivor✓

Joint and survivor pays as long as either annuitant is alive, with the survivor commonly receiving 100%, 75%, or 50% of the original payment. It is the most common payout choice for married couples seeking lifetime income for both.

Cal. Ins. Code §10168.2
14. What is the additional IRS penalty (on top of ordinary income tax) for taking a taxable withdrawal from a non-qualified annuity before age 59½?
a.7.5%
b.10%✓
c.20%
d.5%

Internal Revenue Code §72(q) imposes a 10% additional tax on the taxable portion of a withdrawal taken from an annuity before age 59½. This penalty is added to the ordinary income tax on the gain portion of the early distribution.

26 U.S.C. §72(q)
15. Which of the following exchanges is NOT permitted on a tax-free basis under Internal Revenue Code Section 1035?
a.An annuity exchanged for a life insurance policy✓
b.A life insurance policy exchanged for an annuity
c.An annuity exchanged for another annuity
d.A life insurance policy exchanged for another life insurance policy

Section 1035 permits tax-free exchanges life-to-life, life-to-annuity, and annuity-to-annuity. The one direction not allowed is annuity-to-life, because that would convert taxable annuity gains into a life insurance death benefit and undercut the tax rules.

26 U.S.C. §1035
16. Which statement about a typical annuity surrender charge schedule is correct?
a.It usually declines year by year and eventually reaches 0%✓
b.It applies only to withdrawals taken after the owner reaches 59½
c.It is set by IRS regulation rather than by the annuity contract
d.It is a flat percentage that applies for the life of the contract

Annuity surrender charges typically follow a declining schedule such as 7%, 6%, 5%, 4%, 3%, 2%, 1%, 0%, ending at zero after the surrender period. The schedule is a contract provision, not an IRS rule.

Cal. Ins. Code §10127.13
17. During the accumulation phase of a non-qualified deferred annuity, how is the interest credited inside the contract treated for federal income tax purposes?
a.Tax-deferred; not taxed until withdrawn✓
b.Permanently exempt from federal income tax
c.Taxed each year as ordinary income whether withdrawn or not
d.Taxed each year at long-term capital gain rates

An annuity's accumulation phase enjoys tax deferral: interest, dividends, and gains credited to the contract are not taxed each year. They are taxed only when withdrawn, generally as ordinary income on the gain portion.

26 U.S.C. §72
18. Which of the following is NOT one of the eligible group categories for group life insurance in California?
a.Random group of unrelated individuals who walk into the same agent's office✓
b.Employer-employee group covering the full-time employees of a single employer
c.Debtor-creditor group insuring the borrowers of a single lending institution
d.Labor union group covering the members of a single labor organization

California law lists employer-employee groups, labor unions, associations, and debtor-creditor groups as eligible categories. A random collection of unrelated individuals with no common organizational tie does not qualify because there is no master sponsor and no objective definition of the group.

Cal. Ins. Code §10200
19. If the owner of a deferred annuity dies during the accumulation phase, before annuitization begins, who normally receives the contract's remaining value?
a.The state of California as escheated property
b.The insurance company keeps the funds
c.The named beneficiary✓
d.The annuitant

During accumulation the named beneficiary receives the contract's remaining value if the owner dies. The annuitant is the measuring life for payouts, not the recipient of a death benefit, and insurers do not keep the value when an owner dies before annuitization.

Cal. Ins. Code §10127.10
20. An employee with group life coverage dies 10 days after leaving the job, having not yet applied for conversion. What is the insurer's obligation?
a.Pay 50% of the group amount as a compromise, because the employee left the plan before any conversion application was filed
b.Refuse the claim because no individual conversion policy was ever issued to or paid for by the former employee
c.Pay the group amount as if conversion had already taken place, because death occurred within the 31-day conversion window✓
d.Pay only the unearned premium back to the estate, since group coverage ended on the employee's last day of work

Death during the 31-day conversion window after group coverage ends is paid as if the conversion had already been completed, even if no individual policy was actually issued. This is a statutory protection in California group life law.

Cal. Ins. Code §10209
21. Which statement BEST describes the difference between a 401(k) plan and a 403(b) plan?
a.403(b) plans are non-qualified deferred compensation arrangements standing outside ERISA, while only 401(k) plans receive qualified-plan tax treatment and the salary-deferral exclusion
b.Both plans may be sponsored only by state and local government employers, and both are administered under the same IRC §457 deferred compensation rules
c.Only 401(k) plans may accept designated Roth contributions; a 403(b) participant is limited to pre-tax salary reduction deferrals for the whole of his or her career
d.401(k) plans are sponsored by for-profit private employers; 403(b) plans are sponsored by public schools, churches, and certain tax-exempt 501(c)(3) organizations✓

Both 401(k) and 403(b) are qualified, tax-deferred salary-reduction retirement plans subject to ERISA (with limited exceptions for governmental and church 403(b) plans). The key difference is the type of sponsor: 401(k) plans are offered by for-profit employers under IRC §401(k); 403(b) plans — sometimes called TSAs (tax-sheltered annuities) — are offered under IRC §403(b) by public school districts, colleges, hospitals, and 501(c)(3) charitable organizations. The statement that both may be sponsored only by state and local governments is wrong — 457 plans are for governmental and select non-profits; 401(k) is private; 403(b) is education/non-profit. The statement that a 403(b) is a non-qualified arrangement standing outside ERISA is wrong — both are qualified. And the claim that only 401(k) plans may accept designated Roth contributions is wrong — both 401(k) and 403(b) plans may now offer designated Roth contributions under IRC §402A.

IRC §401(k) and 29 U.S.C. §1001 et seq. (ERISA)
22. Under ERISA, an employee's own salary-deferral contributions to a 401(k) plan must vest:
a.Over a 3-year cliff schedule chosen by the employer
b.Immediately and fully (100%) at the time of contribution✓
c.Only after the employee completes 5 years of service with the firm
d.Over a 6-year graded schedule written into the plan

ERISA §203 (29 U.S.C. §1053) and IRC §411 require that an employee's own elective salary-deferral contributions to a qualified plan be 100% vested immediately — the employee always owns 100% of what they contributed from their own paycheck. Only EMPLOYER matching or profit-sharing contributions may be subject to a vesting schedule (3-year cliff or 2-to-6-year graded vesting under §411(a)(2)). The 3-year cliff schedule and the 6-year graded schedule both describe permissible EMPLOYER-contribution vesting schedules, not the employee's own deferrals. The 5-years-of-service response is not a standard schedule under current law (the 5-year cliff was raised to 3-year cliff for matching contributions by PPA 2006). The principle: 'your money vests instantly; your employer's match may take time.'

29 U.S.C. §1053 (ERISA §203)
23. During the ACCUMULATION phase of a deferred annuity, which of the following best describes the contract's status?
a.The annuitant receives level monthly income payments computed from his or her life expectancy, and the contract can no longer be surrendered for cash value
b.Premiums earn interest on a tax-deferred basis, no scheduled income payments are made, and the contract may be surrendered subject to surrender charges✓
c.The contract is fully taxable each year on the interest credited, because deferred annuities are denied any inside-buildup tax deferral
d.The insurer pays out only the interest credited each year and withholds the principal until annuitization, so no cash surrender is available

A deferred annuity has two distinct phases: ACCUMULATION (or 'pay-in' phase) — premiums earn interest tax-deferred under IRC §72, with no scheduled distributions; and ANNUITIZATION (or 'pay-out' phase) — the contract converts the accumulated value into a stream of income payments. During accumulation the owner may surrender the contract for cash (less any applicable surrender charges and possible 10% IRS penalty if under 59½). The response describing level monthly income computed from life expectancy with no surrender right describes the annuitization (payout) phase instead. The response in which the insurer pays out only the interest each year and withholds principal until annuitization invents a non-existent payout rule. And the response taxing the interest credited every year is wrong — annuity inside-buildup is tax-DEFERRED, not currently taxed, which is the very purpose of the annuity tax shelter.

IRC §72 and Cal. Ins. Code §10168 et seq.
24. California regulates the surrender-charge schedule on individual deferred annuities sold to seniors. Which statement is correct about a typical compliant surrender-charge schedule?
a.Surrender charges typically decline annually (e.g., 8-7-6-5-4-3-2-1-0%) over a multi-year schedule and the contract must disclose this schedule at or before sale✓
b.Surrender charges apply only if the contract is surrendered within the first 30 days, and the schedule is furnished to the buyer after issue
c.California prohibits all surrender charges on annuities sold to buyers age 65 or older, so no charge schedule may lawfully be imposed on them
d.Surrender charges may continue indefinitely without any time limit, as long as the percentage charged never rises above the first-year level

A typical deferred annuity has a multi-year 'declining' surrender-charge schedule (sometimes called the contingent deferred sales charge, CDSC) — for example, 8% in year 1, declining 1% per year to 0% in year 9 — and the schedule must be disclosed at or before sale. California requires clear pre-sale disclosure of the surrender charge schedule (Insurance Code §10127.13) and applies heightened scrutiny when the buyer is age 65 or older — surrender periods that extend beyond the senior's likely time horizon trigger suitability concerns under §10234.93. The statement that charges may continue for the whole life of the contract is wrong — schedules must eventually drop to zero. The statement that California prohibits all surrender charges for buyers 65 or older is wrong — California regulates, but does not ban, surrender charges. And the response limiting charges to the first 30 days with disclosure deferred to the next annual statement confuses surrender charges with the free-look period.

Cal. Ins. Code §10127.13 (annuity surrender charges)
25. A California employee with $80,000 of group term life coverage is terminated. Under the standard group conversion right, the converted INDIVIDUAL policy:
a.May be any type of individual policy regularly issued by the insurer EXCEPT term insurance, generally without evidence of insurability if the application and premium are submitted within 31 days✓
b.Must automatically carry over the disability waiver and accidental death riders from the group certificate, since every group benefit is guaranteed on conversion
c.Is available only if the employee passes a new physical examination and submits current lab work, because the insurer must fully re-underwrite each departing member before it will issue a contract
d.Must be the identical group term contract simply re-rated to individual mortality, because the conversion right changes only who pays the premium and leaves the form, face amount, and expiry date untouched

Under California Insurance Code §10209 and the standard group life conversion provision, a terminating employee may convert group life coverage to an individual permanent policy (whole life, universal life, etc.) — but NOT to another term policy — issued by the same insurer, generally without proving insurability, provided the application and first premium are submitted within 31 days of termination. The face amount cannot exceed the group amount being lost. The response requiring the identical group term contract merely re-rated to individual mortality is incorrect — conversion is to an individual policy, generally permanent, not group. The response guaranteeing carry-over of the disability waiver and accidental death riders is wrong — supplemental riders are not guaranteed on conversion. And the response requiring a new physical examination and current lab work misses the point — the entire purpose of the conversion right is to bypass a new medical exam, making coverage available even to uninsurable workers.

Cal. Ins. Code §10209 (group life conversion)
26. A participant in a 401(k) plan has a vested account balance of $120,000 and an outstanding plan loan of $5,000. Under IRC §72(p), the MAXIMUM additional loan this participant may take WITHOUT the loan being treated as a taxable distribution is generally:
a.$120,000 — the full vested account balance, because IRC §72(p) treats a participant loan as a taxable distribution only where the plan itself fails to qualify, so the participant may borrow the entire vested balance as long as the note is repaid within five years on a level amortization schedule and the plan document permits loans; the $5,000 already outstanding is disregarded because prior loans are aggregated only for a participant who is a 5-percent owner of the sponsoring employer
b.Under IRC §72(p), the maximum new loan when added to the highest balance of any plan loan in the prior 12 months cannot exceed the LESSER of (a) $50,000 reduced by the highest outstanding balance in the past 12 months, or (b) the greater of $10,000 or 50% of the vested account balance. With $5,000 outstanding (highest prior balance assumed $5,000) and $120,000 vested, the cap is $50,000 - $5,000 = $45,000 (since 50% of $120,000 = $60,000 exceeds that)✓
c.$60,000 — one half of the $120,000 vested account balance, because the §72(p) ceiling is measured solely by the 50-percent-of-vested-balance test; the $50,000 figure is a reporting threshold that applies only to loans from governmental 457(b) plans, and the $5,000 currently outstanding is ignored because a balance under $10,000 is exempt from the 12-month aggregation rule as a de minimis loan
d.$50,000 — the flat statutory maximum, because the §72(p) dollar cap is a fixed ceiling that is never reduced by amounts already borrowed; the reduction for a prior balance is imposed only after a participant has defaulted on an earlier loan, and the 50-percent-of-vested-balance test drops out once the vested balance exceeds $100,000, so a new $50,000 loan may be taken alongside the $5,000 already outstanding

Under IRC §72(p)(2), a qualified-plan loan is not treated as a taxable distribution only if it satisfies dollar limits, a 5-year repayment requirement (longer for primary-home loans), and level amortization rules. The DOLLAR limit is the LESSER of $50,000 reduced by the EXCESS of the participant's highest outstanding loan balance during the prior 12 months over the current outstanding balance, or the GREATER of $10,000 or 50% of the participant's vested account balance. Here vested = $120,000 (50% = $60,000) and the highest prior balance is $5,000, so the limit is $50,000 - $5,000 = $45,000, capped by the $60,000 figure (which is larger so does not bind) — the response that works the two-part test to $45,000. The response allowing $60,000 as simply one half of the vested balance ignores the $5,000 already out. The response treating $50,000 as a flat ceiling never reduced by amounts already borrowed ignores the dollar reduction. The response permitting a loan of the full $120,000 vested balance would treat the entire account as withdrawable — incorrect under §72(p).

IRC §72(p) (qualified plan loans)
27. Which statement about required minimum distributions (RMDs) and qualified longevity annuity contracts (QLACs) is correct in 2026?
a.QLACs are prohibited inside qualified plans and inside IRAs alike: IRC §401(a)(9)(F) permits a deferred income annuity to be held only in a non-qualified account, so a participant who wants longevity protection must first take a fully taxable distribution and buy the annuity with after-tax dollars, and any annuity bought directly with plan assets is treated as a deemed distribution of the entire account balance and is reported by the administrator on a Form 1099-R
b.RMDs continue to begin at age 70½ exactly as they did under pre-SECURE law, because neither the SECURE Act of 2019 nor SECURE 2.0 disturbed the required beginning date for IRAs or employer plans; those statutes reached only the payout period allowed to beneficiaries after the owner's death, so an owner who reaches 70½ must still take a first distribution by April 1 of the following year or owe the shortfall excise tax
c.The QLAC dollar limit is unlimited: a participant may commit an entire IRA or plan balance to a qualified longevity annuity contract, and the amount excluded from the RMD calculation is bounded only by the requirement that annuity payments begin no later than age 85, because SECURE 2.0 repealed the QLAC purchase limit outright rather than replacing the old percentage cap with an indexed dollar ceiling, so no purchase limit survives
d.Under SECURE Act 2.0, the RMD beginning age has been increased to 73 (and rises to 75 in 2033 for those born in 1960 or later); separately, a QLAC under IRC §401(a)(9)(F) allows a participant to use up to a SECURE 2.0-increased dollar limit (generally $200,000 in 2024, inflation-indexed thereafter) of IRA / qualified plan assets to purchase a deferred income annuity that starts payments by age 85, with that QLAC value EXCLUDED from RMD calculations until annuitization✓

The SECURE Act of 2019 raised the RMD age from 70½ to 72; the SECURE 2.0 Act of 2022 further raised it to age 73 effective in 2023, and it rises again to 75 in 2033 for those born in 1960 or later (IRC §401(a)(9)(C)). A QUALIFIED LONGEVITY ANNUITY CONTRACT (QLAC) under IRC §401(a)(9)(F) is a deferred income annuity purchased inside an IRA or qualified plan that begins payments no later than age 85. SECURE 2.0 increased the per-person QLAC purchase limit (eliminating the prior 25% of account value cap and raising the dollar cap to $200,000 in 2024, indexed thereafter), and the amount used to buy a QLAC is EXCLUDED from RMD calculations until annuitization begins — which is exactly the response combining the age-73 beginning date with the $200,000 indexed QLAC limit and payments starting by age 85. The response keeping the required beginning date at 70½ reflects pre-SECURE law. The response saying a QLAC may be held only in a non-qualified account is wrong; QLACs are expressly authorized inside IRAs and qualified plans. The response calling the QLAC limit unlimited is wrong; there is a statutory dollar limit.

SECURE Act 2.0 (2022); IRC §401(a)(9) (RMDs); IRC §401(a)(9)(F) (QLAC)
28. During the accumulation phase of a deferred annuity, what is happening?
a.The owner is paying money into the contract and it is growing tax-deferred✓
b.The contract is being surrendered early for its remaining cash surrender value
c.The contract's death benefit is being paid to the named beneficiary
d.The insurer is paying periodic income payments to the annuitant

The accumulation (pay-in) phase is when the owner contributes premiums and the annuity's value grows on a tax-deferred basis, before income payments begin. Making periodic income payments describes the annuitization (payout or distribution) phase, not accumulation. Surrendering the contract ends it early. Paying a death benefit occurs if the owner/annuitant dies, which is a separate event. An immediate annuity skips accumulation, but a deferred annuity has this pay-in period first.

29. How does an immediate annuity differ from a deferred annuity?
a.An immediate annuity guarantees a higher interest rate than any deferred annuity because the insurer holds the funds for a much shorter accumulation period
b.An immediate annuity has no annuitant, so the payments simply continue to the owner's estate as long as the contract stays in force
c.An immediate annuity can only be funded with level monthly premiums paid throughout an accumulation period of at least ten years
d.An immediate annuity begins income payments within about one payment period of purchase, while a deferred annuity delays payments to a future date✓

An immediate annuity (typically a single-premium immediate annuity, or SPIA) starts income payments within roughly one payment interval of purchase, so it is bought to generate income right away; a deferred annuity postpones the payout phase to a later date, allowing tax-deferred accumulation first. Immediate annuities are funded with a single lump sum, not level monthly premiums paid across a ten-year accumulation period. Every annuity has an annuitant (the measuring life), and no rule makes an immediate annuity credit a higher interest rate than a deferred one.

30. An annuitant selects a 'straight life' (life-only) annuity payout option. What is the main trade-off of this choice?
a.It refunds every unused premium dollar to the annuitant's estate, because the insurer keeps no principal at all
b.It pays the largest monthly income, but payments always stop at the annuitant's death with nothing to heirs✓
c.It continues the very same payment to a surviving joint annuitant for as long as either one lives
d.It pays the smallest monthly income because a minimum number of payments is guaranteed to heirs

A straight life (life-only) option pays income for as long as the annuitant lives and stops at death, with no further payments to a beneficiary; because the insurer has no obligation beyond the annuitant's life, it provides the largest periodic payment of the pure life options. Saying it pays the smallest income because a minimum number of payments is guaranteed to heirs is backwards on both counts. Continuing the same payment to a surviving joint annuitant describes a joint-and-survivor option, not life-only. Payouts that refund unused premiums (installment or cash refund) or guarantee a period certain do protect a beneficiary, but they pay less than life-only.

31. In an annuity contract, the person whose life expectancy is used to determine the income payments is the:
a.Beneficiary
b.Annuitant✓
c.Owner
d.Insurer

The annuitant is the measuring life on whom the income payments and their duration are based, much as the insured is the key life in a life insurance policy. The owner funds and controls the contract but is not necessarily the measuring life. The beneficiary receives any death benefit. The insurer issues and administers the contract. Payments under a life payout option are calculated from the annuitant's age and life expectancy.

32. An annuity primarily protects an individual against the risk of:
a.Becoming disabled and unable to work
b.Damage to physical property
c.Dying prematurely
d.Outliving one's retirement savings✓

An annuity guards against living too long and exhausting one's assets by providing income the annuitant cannot outlive under a life payout option; it is often called the opposite of life insurance. Protecting against premature death is the role of life insurance. Property damage is covered by property insurance, and disability by disability income insurance. The longevity (superannuation) risk is the central risk an annuity is built to address.

33. A flexible-premium annuity is always a:
a.Deferred annuity✓
b.Variable annuity
c.Immediate annuity
d.Fully paid-up-at-issue annuity

A flexible-premium annuity is funded with a series of payments made over time, which necessarily requires an accumulation period, so it must be a deferred annuity. An immediate annuity is funded by a single lump sum and begins paying right away, so it cannot accept flexible ongoing premiums. Being variable or fixed describes how funds are invested, not the payment timing. Any contract that accepts ongoing deposits is deferred by definition.

34. In a fixed annuity, the premiums are held in the insurer's:
a.Separate account, whose value rises and falls directly with the performance of the stock and bond markets
b.A mutual fund selected by the owner
c.General account, where the insurer bears the investment risk and guarantees a minimum interest rate✓
d.The owner's own bank account

A fixed annuity places funds in the insurer's general account; the insurer bears the investment risk and guarantees both principal and a minimum interest rate, producing a predictable, stable value. A separate account tied to the market describes a variable annuity, where the owner bears the risk. The funds are not held in a mutual fund chosen by the owner or in the owner's bank account. The general-account guarantee is what makes a fixed annuity 'fixed.'

35. During the accumulation phase of a variable annuity, the owner's payments purchase:
a.Accumulation units whose value rises and falls with the separate account's performance✓
b.Annuity units used to calculate income payments during the payout phase rather than during accumulation
c.Shares of the insurance company's own stock
d.A guaranteed fixed number of dollars each year

In the accumulation phase of a variable annuity, contributions buy accumulation units in the separate account, and the value of those units fluctuates with the performance of the underlying investments, so the owner bears the investment risk. A guaranteed fixed dollar amount describes a fixed annuity. Annuity units are used during the payout (annuitization) phase, not accumulation. The owner is not buying the insurer's stock. Accumulation units measure the growing value before payout begins.

36. During the payout phase of a variable annuity, the number of annuity units is generally fixed, yet the payment amount varies because:
a.The insurer changes the payment arbitrarily each month without any regard to actual investment results
b.The annuitant selects a new amount every month
c.The dollar value of each annuity unit changes with separate account performance✓
d.Interest rates are locked in at issue

Once a variable annuity is annuitized, the number of annuity units credited to the annuitant is typically fixed, but each unit's dollar value moves with the separate account, so the periodic payment rises and falls with investment results. The insurer does not change payments arbitrarily, the annuitant does not reset the amount, and the rate is not locked. The variable payout reflects the fluctuating value of a fixed number of annuity units.

37. An equity-indexed (fixed indexed) annuity protects the owner against index losses by providing:
a.A death benefit that varies with the market
b.A guaranteed minimum floor, often zero percent, below which credited interest will not fall✓
c.Unlimited upside participation in the index with no cap or participation rate limiting the credited interest
d.Federal deposit insurance on the account

A fixed indexed annuity credits interest linked to a market index but includes a guaranteed floor (commonly zero percent), so a down year in the index does not reduce the account value below that floor, offering downside protection. Its upside is not unlimited; it is limited by caps and participation rates. Its guarantees are not a variable death benefit, and it is not covered by federal deposit insurance. The floor is what shields the owner from index declines.

38. In an indexed annuity, the 'participation rate' determines:
a.The commission the producer earns
b.The age at which income must begin
c.The percentage of the index's gain that is credited to the annuity✓
d.The surrender charge applied on early withdrawal during the surrender charge period

The participation rate sets what portion of the linked index's gain is used to credit interest; for example, an 80 percent participation rate credits 80 percent of the index's increase (before any cap). It is not the surrender charge, the producer's commission, or the required starting age. Along with the cap and floor, the participation rate is one of the levers that shapes how much index growth an indexed annuity actually pays the owner.

39. The 'life with period certain' annuity payout option pays income:
a.Only for a fixed number of years and then stops, which describes a period certain only option that carries no lifetime guarantee at all
b.For the annuitant's life, but guarantees payments for at least a set number of years to a beneficiary if the annuitant dies early✓
c.Only until the original deposit is used up
d.To two annuitants for as long as either lives

Life with period certain pays for the annuitant's entire life and also guarantees that, if the annuitant dies before a stated period (such as 10 or 20 years) ends, payments continue to a beneficiary for the rest of that period. It is not limited to a fixed number of years (that is period certain only), not simply paid until the deposit runs out, and not a two-life option (that is joint and survivor). The period-certain guarantee adds beneficiary protection to a life income.

40. Under a 'cash refund' life annuity option, if the annuitant dies before receiving payments equal to the amount paid in, the beneficiary receives:
a.The difference between the amount paid in and the total payments already made, in a lump sum✓
b.Double the original deposit
c.Lifetime income for the beneficiary equal in amount to the payments the annuitant had been receiving
d.Nothing, because payments stop at death

A cash refund option pays the annuitant for life, and if the annuitant dies before the sum of the payments equals the amount paid in, the beneficiary receives the remaining difference in a lump sum, ensuring at least the purchase amount is returned. It does not pay nothing (that would be straight life), does not double the deposit, and does not grant the beneficiary lifetime income. The refund feature guarantees the principal is not lost to an early death, at the cost of a smaller payment.

41. A 'joint and survivor' annuity continues payments:
a.For only the first annuitant's lifetime
b.For a fixed period of exactly ten years
c.As long as either of the two annuitants is still living✓
d.Only until the original deposit is exhausted and no longer than that

A joint and survivor annuity covers two lives and keeps paying income until both annuitants have died, so the survivor continues to receive payments (sometimes reduced) after the first death; it is popular with couples in retirement. It does not stop at the first death, is not a fixed ten-year payout, and is not simply paid until the deposit runs out. Covering two lives means the insurer pays for a longer expected period, so each payment is smaller than a single-life option.

42. Which annuity payout option provides the largest periodic income for a given amount of money?
a.Installment refund
b.Straight life (life only)✓
c.Life with 20-year period certain
d.Joint and survivor

Straight life pays the highest periodic income because the insurer's obligation ends at the annuitant's death, with nothing guaranteed to a beneficiary, so there is no cost for a survivor or refund feature. Life with period certain, joint and survivor, and installment refund all add guarantees that protect a beneficiary, and each of those guarantees reduces the size of the payment. The trade-off is income size versus beneficiary protection.

43. A surrender charge in a deferred annuity is:
a.A bonus the insurer credits at issue
b.A tax penalty imposed directly by the federal government on any early distribution taken before the contract matures
c.The commission paid to the selling producer
d.A fee the insurer deducts if the owner withdraws more than the allowed amount during the early contract years✓

A surrender charge is a fee the insurer applies when the owner takes out more than the contract permits (or fully surrenders) during the surrender charge period, which usually declines to zero over a set number of years. It is not a government tax penalty (a separate 10 percent IRS penalty may apply before age 59 1/2), not the producer's commission, and not a credited bonus. Surrender charges let the insurer recover early costs and discourage quick withdrawals.

44. An immediate annuity (SPIA) is funded with:
a.A single lump-sum premium, with income beginning within about one payment period✓
b.Employer pension contributions only
c.Flexible monthly premiums paid in over many years during a lengthy accumulation period
d.Money borrowed from the insurer

A single-premium immediate annuity is purchased with one lump sum, and income payments begin within roughly one payment interval (for example, within a month for monthly income). It cannot be funded with ongoing flexible premiums, is not restricted to employer contributions, and is not funded by borrowing. Retirees often use a SPIA to turn a lump sum, such as a rollover, into an immediate guaranteed income stream.

45. A key advantage of an annuity's accumulation phase is that the earnings:
a.Grow tax-deferred until they are withdrawn✓
b.Are exempt from federal income tax when finally withdrawn
c.Must be paid out to the owner monthly
d.Are guaranteed to outpace inflation

During accumulation, an annuity's earnings grow tax-deferred, meaning no tax is due on the interest or gains until money is withdrawn, which allows faster compounding. The earnings are not permanently tax-free; they are taxed as ordinary income when distributed. They are not required to be paid out monthly during accumulation, and no annuity guarantees beating inflation. Tax deferral is the central tax advantage of the accumulation phase.

46. When recommending an annuity, a producer must assess suitability, which includes considering the client's:
a.Favorite hobbies and pastimes
b.Age, financial situation, time horizon, liquidity needs, and risk tolerance✓
c.Political party affiliation
d.The producer's own commission goals and any sales contests running during that month

Suitability requires the producer to match the annuity to the client's circumstances, weighing factors such as age, overall financial situation, time horizon, need for access to funds (liquidity), and tolerance for risk. Personal preferences like hobbies or political affiliation are irrelevant, and the producer's commission goals must never drive the recommendation. Suitability rules exist especially to protect seniors from being sold annuities that do not fit their needs.

47. An 'annuity certain' (period certain only) option pays income:
a.Only while the annuitant is disabled
b.For the annuitant's entire lifetime
c.For a fixed number of years; payments never depend on the annuitant's survival✓
d.For as long as either of two named annuitants lives, with payments continuing to the survivor

A period certain only (annuity certain) option pays a set income for a specified number of years and stops when that period ends, whether or not the annuitant is still alive; if the annuitant dies during the period, remaining payments go to a beneficiary. It is not tied to the annuitant's lifetime, not a two-life option, and not conditioned on disability. Because it lacks a life contingency, it is used when income is needed for a defined period rather than for life.

48. The 'free look' provision on a newly issued annuity allows the owner to:
a.Return the contract within a stated number of days and receive a refund✓
b.Change the annuitant to a different person
c.Double the premium already paid
d.Withdraw all earnings free of income tax at any time without any restriction at all

The free look provision gives the annuity owner a set number of days after delivery to review the contract and, if unsatisfied, return it for a refund. It does not make earnings tax-free, does not by itself allow changing the annuitant, and does not double the premium. The free look is a consumer protection that lets buyers reconsider a purchase without penalty, which is especially important for products marketed to seniors.

49. To sell variable annuities, a producer must hold:
a.Only a health insurance license with no securities registration
b.Both a life insurance license and a securities registration✓
c.A property and casualty license
d.No license at all

Because a variable annuity invests in separate account securities and shifts investment risk to the owner, it is regulated as both an insurance product and a security, so the producer must hold a life insurance license and a securities registration (through FINRA). A health license, no license, or a property and casualty license would not authorize the sale. The dual regulation is the same reason variable life insurance requires a securities registration.

50. The process of converting an annuity's accumulated value into a stream of income payments is called:
a.Reinstatement
b.Accumulation
c.Annuitization✓
d.Underwriting

Annuitization is the act of turning the annuity's accumulated value into periodic income payments under a selected payout option, beginning the payout phase. Accumulation is the earlier pay-in and growth phase. Reinstatement refers to restoring a lapsed insurance policy. Underwriting is risk selection at issue. Annuitization is the pivotal event that starts guaranteed income, and the payout option chosen at that point determines how long and to whom payments are made.

51. In group insurance, the individual members of the group receive:
a.Their own master contracts to keep
b.Certificates of coverage, while a single master policy is issued to the sponsor✓
c.Separately underwritten individual policies issued individually to each member of the group
d.No documentation of their coverage

In group insurance, the insurer issues one master policy to the sponsor (such as an employer or association), and each covered member receives a certificate of coverage that summarizes their benefits and rights. Members do not get individually underwritten policies, are not left without documentation, and do not each hold a master contract. The master-policy-and-certificate structure is a defining feature of group insurance and is why group underwriting looks at the group rather than each person.

52. In a noncontributory group insurance plan, the employer pays the entire premium, and as a result insurers generally require that:
a.Only employees who volunteer are covered
b.Coverage remain entirely optional for each worker
c.100 percent of eligible employees be covered✓
d.No employees be covered until they contribute

In a noncontributory plan the employer pays the full premium, so insurers typically require that 100 percent of eligible employees participate; universal participation eliminates adverse selection because no one can opt out and leave only higher-risk workers in the plan. It is not limited to volunteers, does not exclude everyone, and is not optional. The 100 percent rule for noncontributory plans contrasts with the lower participation percentages allowed when employees share the cost.

53. In a contributory group plan, in which employees share in the premium cost, insurers usually require that:
a.A high percentage, such as 75 percent, of eligible employees enroll to limit adverse selection✓
b.Only the employer be covered under the plan
c.No employees be allowed to enroll
d.Exactly 100 percent of employees enroll every year, a level generally required only for noncontributory plans

When employees pay part of the premium (a contributory plan), insurers require that a substantial share of those eligible, often around 75 percent, actually enroll, so the group does not fill up mainly with people who expect to have claims. Requiring no enrollment or only the employer makes no sense, and 100 percent participation is generally required only for noncontributory plans, where the employer pays everything. The participation threshold guards the group against adverse selection.

54. When an employee leaves a group life insurance plan, the conversion privilege generally allows them to:
a.Keep paying the group's low premium rate for life on the individual policy that is issued
b.Convert to an individual permanent policy without evidence of insurability, usually within 31 days✓
c.Remain insured under the employer's master group policy indefinitely at the same rate after leaving the company
d.Receive a cash refund of all the premiums the employer and the employee previously paid

The conversion privilege lets a departing employee convert their group life coverage to an individual permanent policy without proving insurability, typically within 31 days of leaving, though the individual premium is based on the person's attained age. It does not preserve the group rate, refund premiums, or keep the person under the master policy. Conversion protects coverage for someone who might otherwise be uninsurable, which is especially valuable if their health has declined.

55. Federal COBRA continuation generally allows an eligible employee who loses group health coverage to:
a.Enroll in Medicare before age 65, because an involuntary job loss is a Medicare qualifying event
b.Keep the same group coverage permanently, because the plan may never terminate a former employee's coverage
c.Receive the continued coverage at no cost, because the former employer must keep paying the premium
d.Continue the group health coverage for a limited time by paying the premium themselves✓

COBRA lets qualified individuals who experience a qualifying event (such as job loss or reduced hours) continue their group health coverage for a limited period by paying the premium themselves, generally the full cost plus a small administrative charge. It is not free, not permanent, and not a path to early Medicare. COBRA bridges a coverage gap so a person does not go uninsured while between jobs or plans, though the enrollee bears the cost the employer once shared.

56. In addition to retirement income, the federal Social Security program also provides:
a.Property damage coverage for a worker's home and personal belongings after a disaster
b.Long-term custodial care in a nursing home once a worker's own savings have been exhausted
c.Survivor benefits to a worker's dependents and disability benefits to qualifying workers✓
d.Routine dental and vision care for workers who have reached full retirement age

Social Security is a social insurance program that pays retirement, survivor, and disability benefits: survivor benefits go to the dependents of a deceased worker, and disability benefits go to workers who become disabled and meet the earnings and work-history requirements. It does not provide property, dental, or long-term custodial care coverage. Because Social Security offers a base of survivor and disability protection, producers factor it in when calculating how much private coverage a client still needs.

57. Under the federal Affordable Care Act, adult children may generally remain covered on a parent's health plan until they reach age:
a.18
b.21
c.30
d.26✓

The Affordable Care Act allows young adults to stay on a parent's health plan until age 26, regardless of whether they are married, in school, or financially independent. Ages 18, 21, and 30 are not the federal threshold. This provision is one of the most widely used ACA reforms, helping young adults maintain continuous coverage during early career years, and it is a frequently tested federal figure on the licensing exam.

58. A central federal Affordable Care Act reform to individual and small-group health coverage was to:
a.Remove all preventive care from coverage
b.Prohibit denying coverage or charging more due to pre-existing conditions and require coverage of essential health benefits✓
c.Allow insurers to impose lifetime dollar limits on benefits, which is the opposite of what the law did, since it banned such lifetime limits
d.Permit denial of coverage for people with prior illnesses

The ACA prohibits insurers in the individual and small-group markets from denying coverage or charging higher premiums because of pre-existing conditions, and it requires plans to cover a set of essential health benefits. It did the opposite of allowing lifetime limits (it banned them), did not permit denial for prior illness, and expanded rather than removed preventive care (which many plans must cover at no cost sharing). Guaranteed issue and essential health benefits are hallmark ACA consumer protections.

59. To be 'fully insured' for Social Security retirement benefits, a worker generally needs:
a.100 quarters of covered work credits
b.40 quarters (credits) of coverage✓
c.10 quarters of covered earnings
d.No covered work history at all

Fully insured status for retirement benefits generally requires 40 quarters (credits) of covered work, about 10 years. Fewer quarters may provide only limited or no benefits.

60. Social Security survivor benefits may be paid to:
a.A surviving spouse and dependent children of a deceased insured worker✓
b.Only the deceased worker themselves, paid out as a single lump sum into the worker's estate
c.The deceased worker's employer
d.Anyone who applies for them

Survivor benefits support the eligible family, typically a surviving spouse and dependent children, of an insured worker who dies. They are not paid to unrelated applicants or employers.

61. Social Security disability benefits use a strict definition: the worker must be unable to engage in ______ due to a medically determinable impairment expected to last at least 12 months or result in death:
a.the duties of their own occupation
b.any substantial gainful activity✓
c.a preferred, higher-paying occupation
d.any part-time or light-duty work

Social Security disability requires inability to perform any substantial gainful activity, a very strict any-occupation-style standard, with a durational requirement of 12 months or death. It is not an own-occupation test.

62. The Social Security 'blackout period' is the span during which a surviving spouse receives no survivor income, generally:
a.From when the youngest child turns 16 until the surviving spouse reaches age 60✓
b.Immediately after the worker's death
c.While the surviving spouse is disabled
d.The years after the surviving spouse turns 65 and begins receiving their own Social Security retirement benefit

The blackout period runs from when the youngest child reaches 16 (ending the caregiver benefit) until the surviving spouse turns 60 and can claim widow(er)'s benefits. During it, no Social Security survivor income is paid to the spouse.

63. A worker's Social Security benefit amount is based on the Primary Insurance Amount (PIA), which is derived from the worker's:
a.Number of dependents only
b.Average indexed earnings over their working career✓
c.Current savings balance
d.The total size and annual payroll of the worker's single most recent employer

The PIA is computed from the worker's averaged, indexed lifetime earnings and determines the benefit at full retirement age. Savings, employer size, and dependent count do not set the PIA.

64. In group life insurance, the individual employee receives a ________ while the employer holds the ________:
a.certificate of insurance; master contract✓
b.coverage rider; deferred annuity contract
c.mutual fund prospectus; temporary binder
d.individual policy; enrollment certificate

Group insurance is written as one master contract issued to the employer, and each covered employee receives a certificate summarizing their coverage. The other pairings do not describe group life.

65. Group life underwriting typically:
a.Is performed separately for each individual employee, who must submit their own detailed medical evidence of insurability
b.Requires each member to pass an individual medical exam
c.Declines every applicant with any health condition
d.Evaluates the group as a whole, so individual evidence of insurability is often not required✓

Group underwriting looks at the characteristics of the whole group rather than each individual, so members usually need not prove insurability. This lowers cost and broadens access.

66. In a noncontributory group plan, the employer pays the entire premium, so insurers usually require:
a.100% of eligible employees to be covered, to avoid adverse selection✓
b.At least 75% participation among eligible employees, since some always opt out
c.Individual medical underwriting of each employee before enrollment
d.No minimum participation requirement for the eligible group of employees

Because the employer pays it all in a noncontributory plan, insurers require 100% participation, which eliminates adverse selection. Contributory plans, where employees pay part, use a lower threshold like 75%.

67. In a contributory group plan, where employees pay part of the premium, insurers commonly require a minimum participation of about:
a.75% of eligible employees✓
b.10% of eligible employees
c.100% of eligible employees
d.0%, with no minimum

Contributory plans typically require around 75% participation to spread risk and limit adverse selection. Requiring 100% is the noncontributory rule, and very low thresholds would invite adverse selection.

68. When an employee leaves a job covered by group term life, the conversion privilege usually allows them to convert to:
a.An individual permanent (whole life) policy without evidence of insurability, at their attained age✓
b.No coverage whatsoever, because group term life simply cannot be continued in any form after employment ends
c.A cheaper group plan automatically
d.A new group term plan elsewhere

The conversion privilege lets a departing employee convert group term to an individual permanent policy without proving insurability, though at the attained-age premium. It does not provide new group coverage or a discount.

69. A key advantage of the group life conversion privilege is that the departing employee:
a.Keeps the employer's premium contribution
b.Receives a lower premium than the group rate
c.Converts the group coverage to an individual term policy at no cost to the employee for the first full year
d.Does not have to prove insurability, which is valuable for someone in poor health✓

The conversion privilege's main value is guaranteed insurability, no medical exam, which matters most for someone whose health has declined. The individual premium is usually higher, and the employer no longer contributes.

70. Under federal tax rules, employer-paid group term life premiums are tax-free to the employee only up to ________ of coverage; the cost of coverage above that is taxable income to the employee:
a.$10,000
b.$100,000
c.$250,000
d.$50,000✓

The first $50,000 of employer-provided group term life is a tax-free benefit; the imputed cost of coverage above $50,000 is taxable income to the employee. The other amounts are incorrect thresholds.

71. Federal COBRA generally lets an eligible employee who loses group health coverage continue it for a limited time by:
a.Enrolling immediately in Medicare
b.Receiving free coverage for life
c.Paying the full premium themselves (up to 102% of cost) for a stated period such as 18 months✓
d.Paying nothing at all for the continued coverage, since the former employer must keep funding it in full

COBRA allows continuation of the group health plan if the former employee pays the full premium plus up to a 2% administrative charge, commonly for 18 months. It is not free or permanent, and it is separate from Medicare.

72. Which is a COBRA qualifying event that can extend continuation up to 36 months for dependents?
a.A routine cost-of-living pay raise for the covered employee
b.The employer relocating its offices to another city in the state
c.The employee switching to a different in-network doctor
d.Divorce from, or the death of, the covered employee✓

Events like divorce or the covered employee's death can extend dependents' COBRA continuation to 36 months. A raise, a doctor change, or an office move are not qualifying events.

73. COBRA generally applies to employers with:
a.Only government agencies
b.Fewer than 5 employees
c.Any number of employees
d.20 or more employees✓

Federal COBRA applies to private employers (and state/local government) with 20 or more employees. Very small employers are exempt, though some states have mini-COBRA laws.

74. A Section 125 cafeteria plan allows employees to:
a.Choose only cash compensation
b.Choose among qualified benefits, paying for some of them with pre-tax dollars✓
c.Avoid all taxes on their wages
d.Purchase only employer-sponsored group life insurance, paying those premiums entirely with after-tax dollars

A Section 125 plan lets employees select from a menu of qualified benefits and fund chosen ones with pre-tax dollars, lowering taxable income. It is not cash-only, tax-free wages, or life-insurance-only.

75. A Flexible Spending Account (FSA) under a cafeteria plan traditionally follows a rule that:
a.Unused funds may be forfeited at year-end (use-it-or-lose-it), subject to limited carryover or grace rules✓
b.Unused account balances automatically roll over indefinitely from one plan year to the next with no limit whatsoever
c.Funds are always refunded to the employee in cash
d.There is no annual contribution limit

The classic FSA use-it-or-lose-it rule means unspent funds can be forfeited at year-end, though limited carryover or grace-period options may apply. Funds are not cash-refundable and contributions are capped.

76. The 'actively-at-work' provision in group insurance requires that, for coverage to take effect, the employee must:
a.Be retired from the company yet still carried on its payroll records
b.Have reached age 65 before the group coverage is allowed to begin
c.Be actively performing their job duties on the day coverage is to begin✓
d.Pass an individual physical examination arranged for by the group insurer

The actively-at-work provision conditions the start of coverage on the employee being at work and able to perform their duties on the effective date. It is not tied to retirement, an exam, or a specific age.

77. Group short-term disability (STD) differs from long-term disability (LTD) mainly in that STD:
a.Pays benefits for many years, often continuing all the way until the insured reaches retirement age
b.Has no waiting period of any kind
c.Covers only retired employees
d.Has a shorter benefit period (weeks to months) and a shorter waiting period✓

STD pays for a shorter benefit period after a brief waiting period, bridging until LTD begins. LTD covers longer durations; STD is not for retirees and usually has a short elimination period.

78. The exclusion ratio for an annuity payout is calculated as the:
a.Investment in the contract (cost basis) divided by the expected total return✓
b.The annuity's surrender charge divided by its remaining accumulated cash value at the time of payout
c.Death benefit divided by the annuitant's age
d.Total premiums divided by the current interest rate

The exclusion ratio is the cost basis divided by the expected return; it determines the tax-free portion of each annuity payment. The rest of each payment is taxable earnings.

79. Once an annuitant has lived long enough to recover the entire cost basis through the exclusion ratio, subsequent payments are:
a.Taxed as a long-term capital gain
b.Entirely tax-free as recovered basis
c.Refunded to the annuitant as overpaid
d.Fully taxable as ordinary income✓

After the basis is fully recovered, there is nothing left to exclude, so all further payments are fully taxable as ordinary income. The payments are not tax-free, capital gains, or refunded.

80. A surrender charge on a deferred annuity:
a.Is a federal tax that is imposed on the annuity's earnings each and every year that the contract remains in the accumulation phase
b.Is a declining penalty for withdrawing funds during the early contract years, letting the insurer recover its costs✓
c.Applies only at the annuitant's death
d.Rewards the owner for withdrawing early

A surrender charge is an insurer-imposed penalty that typically declines each year during the surrender period, protecting the insurer from early liquidation costs. It is not a reward or a federal tax.

81. Many deferred annuities include a free withdrawal provision allowing the owner to withdraw, without a surrender charge, up to:
a.The entire 100% of the contract value at any time the owner wishes, without any charge
b.Nothing during the surrender period
c.A stated percentage, often 10%, of the value each year✓
d.Only the interest earned, not any of the principal

A common free withdrawal provision lets the owner take out a set percentage, frequently 10% per year, without surrender charges. It is neither unlimited nor a total lockout.

82. A withdrawal of taxable gain from a nonqualified annuity before age 59 1/2 is generally subject to:
a.A 25% federal penalty
b.No penalty at all, because annuity withdrawals of any kind are treated as tax-favored
c.A 10% federal tax penalty in addition to ordinary income tax✓
d.Long-term capital gains tax only

Early distributions of gain from an annuity before 59 1/2 usually incur a 10% federal penalty on top of ordinary income tax. Annuity gains are ordinary income, not capital gains.

83. When determining the suitability of an annuity recommendation, a producer should consider the client's:
a.Marital status only
b.Favorite mutual fund only
c.Only the client's home zip code and the general cost of living in that particular geographic area
d.Age, income, financial objectives, liquidity needs, risk tolerance, and time horizon✓

Suitability requires evaluating the client's full financial picture, age, income, goals, liquidity, risk tolerance, and time horizon, to ensure the annuity fits. A single factor is not enough.

84. Recommending a deferred annuity with a long surrender period to an elderly client who needs access to funds soon is a suitability concern because:
a.The death benefit would be too high
b.Annuities carry no fees or surrender charges of any kind, so liquidity is never a concern for any client
c.The surrender charges and limited liquidity may not fit the client's short time horizon and cash needs✓
d.Annuities are unsuitable for any client of retirement age

A long surrender period ties up funds a client may soon need, exposing them to charges, which conflicts with a short time horizon and liquidity needs. Annuities are not universally unsuitable, but the fit matters.

85. In a QUALIFIED annuity funded entirely with pre-tax dollars, distributions are:
a.Fully taxable as ordinary income, because there is no after-tax cost basis✓
b.Entirely tax-free, because the contributions to the plan were originally made with after-tax dollars
c.Partly excluded from tax by the exclusion ratio
d.Taxed as long-term capital gains

Since a fully pre-tax qualified annuity has no after-tax basis, the entire distribution is taxable as ordinary income. The exclusion ratio applies only when there is after-tax basis, as in a nonqualified annuity.

86. A nonqualified annuity is funded with after-tax dollars, so at payout:
a.Only the earnings portion is taxable; the return of basis is tax-free✓
b.The entire payment is taxable
c.Nothing is ever taxable
d.The full payment is taxed as a gift to the annuitant in the calendar year that it is received

Because the principal was already taxed, only the earnings are taxed when a nonqualified annuity pays out, with the exclusion ratio spreading the tax-free return of basis. It is not fully taxable or gift-taxed.

87. Choosing a 'life with 10-year period certain' payout means the annuitant receives income for life, but if they die early, payments continue to a beneficiary:
a.For the remainder of the 10-year certain period✓
b.Forever, for as long as the beneficiary remains alive
c.Not at all; the remaining certain payments are forfeited
d.For exactly one additional year following the death

Life with period certain pays for the annuitant's life and guarantees payments for at least the certain period; if the annuitant dies within it, the beneficiary receives the rest of that period. It does not pay forever or nothing.

88. In a fixed indexed annuity, a participation rate of 80% means the contract credits:
a.Nothing unless the index falls
b.A guaranteed 80% of every premium payment that the owner deposits into the contract
c.A guaranteed 80% return each year
d.80% of the index's gain, subject to any cap and floor✓

The participation rate is the share of the index's gain that is credited, so 80% credits 80% of the measured index increase, still limited by any cap and protected by the floor. It is not a share of premium or a guaranteed return.

Last reviewed: · editorial process

PrepPass team · Verified against California CDI · How we review
Reviewed by John Zihao Zhang — California-Licensed Life Insurance Agent (CA Dept. of Insurance License #4396095 — verify)

What's on the California Life & Accident-Health Agent License?

The California Life & Accident-Health Agent License is administered by the California Department of Insurance (CDI). The topic weights below are a PrepPass estimate, not figures published by the California Department of Insurance (CDI).

Questions
150 questions
Time limit
195 minutes
Passing score
60%

Every figure above, with the document it came from and the date we read it →

Topic blueprint

  • 20%
    California Insurance Code & Ethics
  • 15%
    Life Insurance Fundamentals
  • 15%
    Life Policy Provisions
  • 10%
    Accident & Health Fundamentals
  • 10%
    A&H Policy Provisions
  • 10%
    General Insurance Principles
  • 10%
    Group Life & Annuities
  • 5%
    Disability & Long-Term Care
  • 3%
    Medicare & Senior Insurance
  • 2%
    Tax Treatment
PrepPass team · Verified against California Department of Insurance (CDI) · How we review

How hard is the exam?

Difficult. The California Life & Accident-Health exam is 150 questions over 195 minutes at PSI, 60% to pass. Heavy on California Insurance Code (CIC) and IRC tax rules. Available in EN/ES/VI/ZH/KO under AB-451.

Recommended study hours
100-150 hours over 6-10 weeks (only the 12-hour ethics course is required for prelicensing — AB 943, 2026)
First-attempt pass rate
60% on the first attempt (n = 9,117) — California Department of Insurance, 2025. CDI’s row is “Life and Accident / Health or Sickness”; its separate Life-only line was 63% (n = 10,075) and Accident / Health or Sickness 76%. It was 66% in 2024. CDI states plainly that these are “the examination pass rates for individuals taking the license examination on their first attempt.”Source: California Department of Insurance — 2025 Annual Report of the Commissioner (PDF), “LSD Licensing Examination First-Time Pass Rates”
Where to focus first
California Insurance Code (CIC) and Life Insurance Provisions — together about 35% of exam content; expect specific code section citations in distractors.

Fees and salaries are approximate and change over time. The pass rate above is quoted from the source linked beside it, for the period that source covers — where we have not checked a source, we say so and give no number.

Frequently asked questions

How many California Life & Accident-Health insurance practice questions?+

716 original practice questions covering all 10 topics of the California Department of Insurance Life & A&H Agent license exam.

Is the Life & A&H practice test free?+

Yes, completely free. No signup, no credit card. Unlimited practice rounds and a 150-question timed mock exam included.

Are these real CDI exam questions?+

No. All questions are original prose authored from the California Insurance Code, Title 10 CCR, Civil Code, and standard ISO insurance contract concepts. We never copy from real CDI exams or providers like ExamFX, Kaplan, or AD Banker.

What's the passing score for the California Life & A&H exam?+

60%, and CDI publishes no sectional or per-subject cut score — a failing candidate gets a per-topic diagnostic, which is a diagnostic, not a cut score. The real CDI exam is 150 multiple-choice questions over 195 minutes at a PSI testing center.

Is the California insurance license exam offered in Chinese or Vietnamese?+

Yes — AB 451 (Stats. 2023, ch. 136) legally requires CDI to offer producer license exams in English, Spanish, Simplified Chinese, Vietnamese, Korean and Tagalog.

What does the Life & A&H license let me sell?+

Life insurance, annuities, accident insurance, health insurance, disability insurance, and long-term care (LTC) insurance — all to California residents.

How long is the California insurance license valid?+

2 years. Renewal requires 24 hours of continuing education (3 of which must be ethics) per renewal cycle.

Is there a study guide for the Life & Health Insurance Producer?+

Yes. PrepPass sells California Life & Health Insurance Producer Exam — Complete Study Guide (2026), a PDF + EPUB download, $19.99 one-time; the practice on this page stays free without it. See the study guide →

Report