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A&H Policy Provisions

71 questions
1. Which California law sets the standardized required and optional provisions that every individual accident and health policy must follow?
a.The Uniform Individual Accident and Sickness Policy Provisions Law (UPPL)✓
b.The California Long-Term Care Insurance Act, which standardizes all A&H policy language
c.The Holden-Bagley Act, which prescribes the required provisions for group life contracts
d.The Knox-Keene Health Care Service Plan Act, which dictates individual A&H policy provisions

The UPPL, codified beginning at Cal. Ins. Code §10350, divides A&H policy language into required and optional provisions. Knox-Keene governs HMOs; Holden-Bagley addresses life and disability; the LTC Act covers long-term care contracts.

Cal. Ins. Code §10350 et seq.
2. Under the Time Limit on Certain Defenses provision, after how many years from issue can the insurer no longer rescind an A&H policy for a non-fraudulent misstatement on the application?
a.3 years
b.1 year
c.2 years✓
d.5 years

The incontestability window for individual A&H policies is two years from the date of issue. After that, only fraudulent misstatements remain contestable; ordinary errors no longer support rescission.

Cal. Ins. Code §10350.2
3. Sergio's individual health policy was issued four years ago. The insurer discovers that on the application he deliberately concealed a prior cancer diagnosis to obtain coverage. May the insurer rescind the policy?
a.Yes, fraudulent misstatements may be contested at any time✓
b.No, the three-year contestable period expired before the discovery
c.No, the two-year incontestability clause now bars any rescission
d.Only if the concealed condition was material to the claimed loss

The incontestability provision does not protect fraudulent statements. Even after the two-year window, an insurer may rescind a policy issued in reliance on a deliberately false answer.

Cal. Ins. Code §10350.2
4. An individual A&H policy is paid on a monthly mode. What is the length of the required grace period?
a.10 days✓
b.20 days
c.31 days
d.7 days

The standard grace period is 7 days for weekly mode, 10 days for monthly mode, and 31 days for all other modes. Coverage continues during the grace period.

Cal. Ins. Code §10350.3
5. An A&H policy is reinstated on June 1. The insured suffers a covered injury on June 2 and is diagnosed with a covered sickness on June 7. Which loss(es) will the reinstated policy cover?
a.Both the injury and the sickness
b.Only the sickness
c.Only the injury✓
d.Neither the injury nor the sickness

A reinstated policy covers accidental injuries from the date of reinstatement, but sicknesses are only covered if they begin more than 10 days after reinstatement. The June 7 sickness falls inside the 10-day exclusion window.

Cal. Ins. Code §10350.4
6. Within how many days after a covered loss must written notice of claim be given to the insurer under the standard required provision?
a.20 days✓
b.30 days
c.10 days
d.60 days

Notice of Claim must be given within 20 days after the occurrence or commencement of any loss, or as soon as reasonably possible. After receiving notice, the insurer must supply claim forms within 15 days.

Cal. Ins. Code §10350.5
7. After receiving a notice of claim, within how many days must the insurer furnish claim forms to the claimant?
a.15 days✓
b.7 days
c.10 days
d.5 days

The insurer must supply claim forms within 15 days after receiving notice of claim. If it fails to do so, the claimant may submit any written proof describing the occurrence, character, and extent of loss.

Cal. Ins. Code §10350.6
8. Written proof of loss must generally be furnished to the insurer within how many days after the date of loss?
a.60 days
b.180 days
c.20 days
d.90 days✓

Proof of Loss must be furnished within 90 days after the date of loss (or after the end of each disability period for periodic disability benefits). Late proof is still acceptable if it was not reasonably possible, generally no later than one year.

Cal. Ins. Code §10350.7
9. Under the Legal Actions provision, an insured cannot start a lawsuit on the policy until at least how long after written proof of loss has been furnished?
a.6 months
b.90 days
c.60 days✓
d.1 year

The Legal Actions provision bars suit sooner than 60 days after proof of loss has been furnished and later than 3 years after proof of loss was required. This gives the insurer time to investigate and pay.

Cal. Ins. Code §10350.11
10. What is the maximum number of years after written proof of loss was required during which the insured may bring a legal action on the policy?
a.5 years
b.1 year
c.2 years
d.3 years✓

The Legal Actions provision sets an outside limit of 3 years from the time proof of loss was required. After that, the insurer has a complete defense to the suit.

Cal. Ins. Code §10350.11

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11. When an insurer discovers that an insured's age was misstated on an A&H application, what is the typical result under the optional Misstatement of Age provision?
a.The insurer must refund every premium paid from inception and cancel the policy outright
b.The benefit or premium is adjusted to what the correct premium would have purchased✓
c.The policy is rescinded back to the date of issue, as though it had never been written
d.The policy continues unchanged, because age never affects A&H premium rates

The Misstatement of Age provision is a corrective remedy, not a voiding remedy. The benefit (or premium) is adjusted to what the correct age premium would have purchased; the contract stays in force.

Cal. Ins. Code §10369.7
12. Which renewability classification gives the insured the strongest protection by preventing the insurer from raising the premium or refusing renewal during the contract period?
a.Guaranteed renewable
b.Conditionally renewable
c.Optionally renewable
d.Noncancellable✓

A noncancellable policy locks both the premium and the renewal right. Guaranteed renewable lets the insurer raise the premium by class; conditionally and optionally renewable allow non-renewal under stated or any conditions.

13. Under a guaranteed renewable individual health policy, what may the insurer do at renewal?
a.Cancel the policy mid-term because its claims experience has become unprofitable
b.Raise the premium for that one insured alone, based on that insured's own claim history
c.Raise the premium for an entire class of insureds, but must still renew✓
d.Refuse to renew at any point inside the stated contract period, for any reason it chooses

Guaranteed renewable means the insurer must renew up to the stated age, cannot cancel except for non-payment, and may only adjust premiums on a class basis — never against a single insured.

14. Maria and Carlos are married with two dependent children covered under both spouses' group health plans. Maria's birthday is March 8 and Carlos's is October 21. Under California's birthday rule for coordination of benefits, which plan is primary for the children?
a.Maria's plan, because her month-and-day birthday falls earlier in the year✓
b.The plan that has been in force for the longer continuous period
c.Carlos's plan, because the father's coverage is always primary for children
d.The plan of the parent born in the earlier calendar year, counting birth year first

The birthday rule looks at the month and day of birth, not the year. The parent whose birthday falls earlier in the calendar year carries the primary plan for dependent children. Maria's March 8 birthday is earlier than Carlos's October 21.

15. What is the primary purpose of Coordination of Benefits (COB) provisions?
a.To require every insurer covering the same insured to divide the premium dollars collected among them equally
b.To void the secondary policy automatically once the primary plan has paid the claim in full, ending that coverage
c.To increase the total benefits payable to an insured who happens to be covered by more than one group health plan
d.To prevent an insured from collecting more than the actual loss when multiple plans cover the same expense✓

COB rules prevent over-insurance. They order multiple plans into primary and secondary roles so the combined payments do not exceed 100% of the actual covered expense.

16. A hospital indemnity rider pays benefits in what manner?
a.A single lump-sum payment made on first diagnosis of any covered illness
b.A monthly disability income equal to the insured's full pre-disability monthly salary
c.A fixed dollar amount per day of hospital confinement, regardless of actual charges✓
d.Reimbursement of the actual hospital charges shown on the itemized bill after discharge

Hospital indemnity coverage pays a stated daily, weekly, or monthly cash amount during a covered hospital stay. The cash is paid to the insured and is not tied to the actual hospital bill.

17. Tomas adds a critical illness rider to his policy. Six months later he is diagnosed with a covered heart attack and survives. How is the benefit typically paid?
a.A lump-sum cash benefit on first diagnosis of the covered condition✓
b.A daily indemnity for each day of hospital confinement, paid to the hospital
c.A monthly disability income for the rest of the insured's working life
d.Reimbursement of covered medical expenses up to the rider's stated limit

Critical illness (also called dread disease) riders pay a single lump sum upon first diagnosis of a listed condition such as heart attack, stroke, cancer, kidney failure, or major organ transplant. The insured may use the money for any purpose.

18. What is the elimination period on a disability income policy?
a.The number of days the insurer is allowed to take before it must pay each monthly benefit check
b.The probationary waiting period that must pass before a newly contracted sickness is covered at all
c.A deductible expressed in days during which the insured must be disabled before benefits begin✓
d.The maximum number of days for which benefits will be paid to the insured over an entire lifetime

The elimination period is the time-based deductible at the front end of a disability claim. Longer elimination periods (such as 90 or 180 days) lower the premium because the insurer pays for fewer short claims.

19. Which statement about pre-existing-condition exclusions is correct under current federal and California rules?
a.Pre-existing-condition exclusions have been eliminated for every type of A&H product, including long-term care, disability income, and hospital indemnity
b.Major medical plans may no longer use pre-existing-condition exclusions, but long-term care, disability income, and supplemental products still may✓
c.Only group health plans may still exclude pre-existing conditions, while individual plans are barred from doing so under both federal and California law
d.All individual and group A&H products may exclude pre-existing conditions for the first two years the policy is in force, no matter which product is involved

The Affordable Care Act eliminated pre-existing-condition exclusions on major medical plans (both individual and group). Limited-benefit products outside the major medical market, such as long-term care, individual disability income, and supplemental policies, may still impose them.

ACA §1201
20. Under the Time of Payment of Claims required provision, periodic disability income benefits that have accrued must be paid at least how often during the period the insurer is liable?
a.Annually
b.Quarterly
c.Monthly✓
d.Weekly

Accrued periodic disability income benefits must be paid at least monthly during the period of liability. Any unpaid balance at the end of liability must be paid immediately upon receipt of due written proof.

Cal. Ins. Code §10350.8
21. Under HIPAA's portability rules as modified by the ACA, which statement is correct regarding pre-existing condition exclusions in group health plans?
a.Pre-existing condition exclusions are no longer permitted in any non-grandfathered group or individual health plan✓
b.Pre-existing condition exclusions remain permitted, but only for group health plan participants who are over age 65
c.Group plans may still exclude pre-existing conditions for up to 12 months, less credit for the enrollee's prior creditable coverage
d.Group plans may still exclude pre-existing conditions for up to 18 months for late enrollees, who receive no creditable-coverage credit

Originally, HIPAA Title I (29 U.S.C. §1181) permitted group health plans to impose a pre-existing condition exclusion of up to 12 months (18 months for late enrollees), reduced by prior 'creditable coverage' under a HIPAA certificate. However, the Affordable Care Act effectively eliminated pre-existing condition exclusions: §2704 of the Public Health Service Act, added by the ACA, prohibits ANY pre-existing condition exclusion in non-grandfathered individual and group health plans. The 12-month exclusion less creditable coverage and the 18-month late-enrollee exclusion both describe the pre-ACA HIPAA rule, which has been superseded. The exception said to survive for participants over age 65 is fabricated. Today, both Covered California and employer group plans must accept enrollees regardless of pre-existing conditions; California Insurance Code §10198.7 mirrors this protection at the state level.

29 U.S.C. §1181 (HIPAA Title I portability)
22. Under California's prompt-payment statute for health insurance, an insurer must pay or contest a 'clean' claim within how many working days of receipt?
a.Within 6 months of receipt, with no separate deadline for electronically submitted claims
b.Within 90 calendar days, the deadline California borrowed from the federal Medicare program
c.Within 15 working days, but only for a claim submitted by a contracted network provider
d.Within 30 working days for paper claims (and 30 calendar days for electronic claims)✓

California Insurance Code §10123.13 (and §10350.5 for disability/health) requires an insurer to reimburse or contest a clean claim from a contracted health provider within 30 working days of receipt for paper claims and 30 calendar days for electronic claims. If the insurer fails to act within that window, interest at 10% per year (or 15% for certain emergency claims under §10123.147) accrues automatically on the unpaid amount. The 15-working-day window limited to contracted network providers is too short and is not the statutory rule. The 90-calendar-day window is closer to the federal Medicare standard, not the CA private-insurance rule. And the 6-month window is far beyond statute. The prompt-payment rules are part of California's consumer-protection regime that prevents insurers from indefinitely deferring legitimate provider claims.

Cal. Ins. Code §10350.5 (prompt payment of claims)
23. Under the required Grace Period provision in a California individual accident & health policy paid on a quarterly mode, the grace period is:
a.21 days
b.10 days
c.7 days
d.31 days✓

California Insurance Code §10350.6 (mirroring the NAIC Uniform Individual Accident and Sickness Policy Provisions Law) requires the following grace period based on premium mode: 7 days for weekly mode, 10 days for monthly mode, and 31 days for any other mode (quarterly, semi-annual, annual). During the grace period the policy remains in force; if the insured suffers a covered loss during the grace period, the insurer may deduct any unpaid premium from the claim payment. The 7-day period applies only to weekly-paid coverage. The 10-day period applies only to monthly mode. The 21-day period is fabricated. For quarterly mode, the grace period is 31 days. (Contrast with the LIFE insurance grace period under §10113.5, which is 60 days/2 months in California.)

Cal. Ins. Code §10350.6 (grace period — A&H)
24. Under federal COBRA, the maximum continuation period for a covered employee who becomes entitled to Medicare and the family then loses coverage is:
a.18 months for the employee and family alike
b.60 months for the spouse and all dependent children
c.29 months for the employee and the family
d.36 months for the spouse and dependent children✓

COBRA continuation maxima under 29 U.S.C. §1162 (ERISA §602) are: 18 months for the covered employee following voluntary or involuntary termination (or reduction in hours); 29 months if the qualified beneficiary is determined disabled by the SSA within 60 days of the qualifying event; and 36 months for SPOUSES AND DEPENDENT CHILDREN following the employee's Medicare entitlement, divorce/legal separation, or death of the employee, or for a dependent child losing dependent status. The covered employee himself doesn't need COBRA after Medicare entitlement (he has Medicare), but his family does, hence the 36-month period. The 18-month figure applies to the standard termination/reduction-of-hours scenario. The 29-month figure is the disability-extension period. And 60 months is not a COBRA period at all.

29 U.S.C. §1162 (COBRA continuation periods)
25. Under HIPAA Title I as ORIGINALLY enacted, a 'pre-existing condition' for group-health-plan purposes was defined as a condition for which medical advice, diagnosis, care, or treatment was recommended or received during the:
a.6-month period ending on the enrollment date (the 'lookback' period); creditable coverage with no break exceeding 63 days reduced any allowable exclusion month-for-month✓
b.Entire lifetime of the individual, so any condition ever diagnosed or treated could be excluded permanently from the employee's new group plan
c.24-month period ending on the enrollment date, a lookback applied only to enrollees over age 65 and one that no amount of prior coverage could shorten
d.12-month period ending on the enrollment date, with no offset allowed for prior creditable coverage however recently the individual was insured

HIPAA Title I (29 U.S.C. §1181) ORIGINALLY defined a pre-existing condition as one for which medical advice, diagnosis, care, or treatment was recommended or received within the 6-month period ending on the individual's enrollment date in the plan. Plans could exclude such conditions for up to 12 months (18 for late enrollees), REDUCED by prior creditable coverage so long as there was no break exceeding 63 days. The ACA later eliminated pre-existing-condition exclusions for non-grandfathered individual and group plans, but the 6-month lookback and 63-day break rule remain important conceptual building blocks tested on exams. California Insurance Code §10198.7 parallels these protections. The 24-month lookback said to apply only to enrollees over age 65, and the 12-month lookback said to allow no offset for prior creditable coverage, both invent incorrect windows and scopes. The lifetime lookback permitting permanent exclusion of any condition ever diagnosed is plainly wrong; HIPAA never used a lifetime lookback. Candidates should know both the historical HIPAA rule and the ACA's later elimination of pre-ex exclusions.

29 U.S.C. §1181 (HIPAA pre-existing lookback); California Insurance Code §10198.7
26. A California employee works for a small employer with 15 employees and loses coverage due to termination of employment. Federal COBRA does NOT apply because the employer has fewer than 20 employees. What is the employee's CONTINUATION right under California law?
a.No continuation right exists at all; because California defers entirely to federal law on group continuation, an employee of a fully insured small employer loses group coverage on the termination date and must buy an individual policy through Covered California during a special enrollment period
b.The employee receives exactly 6 months of continuation from the insurer, after which the county automatically enrolls the former employee in Medi-Cal without regard to income or assets, so neither the insurer nor the plan owes any further private continuation coverage under state law
c.Federal COBRA still applies regardless of employer size, because ERISA preempts the California small-employer statutes and extends the federal 18-month continuation period to every group health plan sold in the state, so the California mini-COBRA statutes have no field of operation at all
d.Cal-COBRA under California Insurance Code §1366.20 et seq. (and Health & Safety Code §1373.621 for HMOs) provides up to 36 months of continuation coverage for employees of small employers (2-19 employees) whose group health plan is fully insured by a California insurer or HMO✓

California's 'mini-COBRA' (Cal-COBRA) statutes — California Insurance Code §1366.20 et seq. for insurers and Health & Safety Code §1373.621 for HMOs — fill the gap for small employers (2-19 employees) that are NOT subject to federal COBRA, so the response describing Cal-COBRA continuation of up to 36 months for a fully insured small-employer plan is correct. Cal-COBRA generally provides up to 36 months of continuation coverage following a qualifying event (longer than the federal COBRA 18-month period for termination/reduction in hours). For employees who exhaust federal COBRA at a larger employer, Cal-COBRA may also provide an additional period bringing the total to 36 months. The statement that no continuation right exists at all and the worker must buy an individual policy through Covered California is wrong; California fills the COBRA gap. The claim that ERISA preempts the California small-employer statutes so federal COBRA reaches every group plan regardless of size is wrong; federal COBRA applies only to employers with 20+ employees. The response giving 6 months and then automatic county enrollment fabricates a Medi-Cal trigger that does not exist.

California Insurance Code §1366.20 et seq.; CIC §1373.621 (Cal-COBRA / mini-COBRA)
27. Which statement BEST describes a 'Section 125 cafeteria plan'?
a.It is a written plan under IRC §125 that allows employees to choose between cash compensation and qualified non-taxable benefits (such as group health premiums, HSA contributions, FSA contributions, dependent-care FSA, and group term life up to $50,000); employee contributions are made pre-tax, reducing federal income, Social Security, and Medicare wages✓
b.It is a federally subsidized meal-benefits program for low-income workers administered by the Department of Labor, under which an employer that runs an on-site cafeteria may deduct the cost of the subsidized meals and exclude their value from the workers' reported wages for both income and payroll tax purposes, provided the same subsidized meal is offered to every hourly employee at the site
c.It is a defined-contribution retirement plan that lets each employee pick from a 'menu' of mutual funds selected by the employer, with salary deferrals growing tax-deferred until the participant separates from service or reaches the plan's normal retirement age and begins taking distributions from the account balance
d.It is a non-qualified plan under which the employer's contributions toward group health premiums are added to the employee's taxable wages, with the employee claiming an offsetting deduction on the individual return; being non-qualified, it escapes nondiscrimination testing, may be offered to executives alone, and lets the employer deduct the contribution in the year the employee reports it

A 'cafeteria' or Section 125 plan under IRC §125 is a written employer plan that gives each employee the choice between cash (taxable wages) and one or more qualified non-taxable benefits, including employer-sponsored health insurance, health FSAs, dependent-care FSAs, HSA contributions, group term life insurance up to $50,000, and adoption assistance — exactly what the response describing a written §125 plan funded by pre-tax salary reduction states. Employee elections to receive the benefit instead of cash are funded with PRE-TAX salary reduction, reducing federal income tax, Social Security, and Medicare wages (a major efficiency for both employer and employee). Strict nondiscrimination rules under §125(b) prevent the plan from favoring highly compensated employees. The response describing a defined-contribution plan with a menu of employer-selected mutual funds confuses §125 with a §401(k). The subsidized on-site meal program administered by the Department of Labor is fabricated. The response that adds the employer's health contributions to taxable wages with an offsetting deduction is the opposite of how §125 works (pre-tax, not taxable).

IRC §125 (cafeteria plans / Section 125 plans)
28. A California health insurer denies a claim for a covered service. Which statement BEST describes the insured's CLAIM-APPEAL rights?
a.The insurer must provide a written explanation of the denial and inform the insured of the right to file an internal appeal; after exhausting internal review the insured has the right to an Independent Medical Review (IMR) for medical-necessity / experimental-treatment denials administered by the California Department of Insurance or DMHC, free of cost✓
b.Appeals must be filed within 24 hours of the denial or the insured's rights are permanently waived, and Independent Medical Review is open only to insureds covered under a group contract; an individual policyholder whose claim is denied is confined to the binding arbitration clause printed in the policy itself
c.The insured has no right to appeal a denied claim outside the courts, because California treats a coverage denial as an ordinary contract dispute that only a superior court may resolve; the Department of Insurance is barred from reviewing any individual claim and may act only on a pattern of misconduct found during a market-conduct examination, and the insured's only recourse is to sue on the contract itself
d.Only the insured's treating physician may file an appeal or request an Independent Medical Review, because the question turns on clinical judgment; the physician must also advance the review fee to the reviewing panel and is reimbursed by the insurer only when the denial is ultimately overturned

Under California Insurance Code §10123.13, §10123.147, and the Fair Claims Settlement Practices Regulations (10 CCR §2695 et seq.), a health insurer that denies a claim must provide a written explanation of the basis for denial, cite the policy provisions relied upon, and inform the insured of internal appeal rights — which is what the response describing written denial notice, internal appeal, and a free Independent Medical Review states. After exhausting the insurer's internal review, the insured may request an Independent Medical Review (IMR) for medical-necessity, investigational/experimental, and certain emergency-care denials. IMRs are administered free of charge by the CDI (for CDI-regulated products) or the DMHC (for Knox-Keene plans), and the insurer is bound by the IMR decision. The response saying the insured has no appeal outside the courts wrongly denies the regulatory appeal scheme. The response letting only the treating physician appeal or request an IMR is wrong; insureds may file directly. The response imposing a 24-hour filing deadline and limiting IMR to group contracts fabricates that deadline; typical appeal windows are 60 to 180 days or longer.

California Insurance Code §10123.13 and §10123.147 (claim handling / appeals)
29. When a California health insurer fails to pay or contest a properly submitted CLEAN claim within the statutory deadline (generally 30 working days for paper / 30 calendar days for electronic), what is the principal financial consequence to the insurer?
a.The CDI automatically revokes the insurer's certificate of authority on the first missed deadline and without a hearing, because a prompt-payment violation is a strict-liability ground for immediate suspension of the right to transact
b.The provider must accept a payment reduced by half, because the statute makes a late claim payable at fifty percent of billed charges as the penalty for submitting a claim the insurer proved unable to adjudicate within the statutory window
c.Interest accrues automatically on the unpaid amount (generally at 10% per year, or 15% for certain emergency claims), payable to the provider/insured without need to request it, plus potential market-conduct sanctions✓
d.The claim is forgiven and the insurer owes the provider nothing at all, because missing the statutory window extinguishes the obligation and shifts the entire balance to the patient as an ordinary uncovered charge

California Insurance Code §10123.13 (and §10350.7 for disability/health prompt-pay) imposes a duty on insurers to pay or contest a clean claim within 30 working days (paper) or 30 calendar days (electronic). Failure to do so causes interest to accrue automatically on the unpaid amount — generally 10% per year, or 15% for certain emergency-care claims under §10123.147 — payable to the claimant without the claimant having to request it, which is the response describing automatic interest plus potential market-conduct sanctions. Persistent violations can also trigger market-conduct examinations, fines, and enforcement actions by the CDI. The response saying the claim is forgiven and the balance shifts to the patient is wrong; the claim remains due. The response cutting the provider to fifty percent of billed charges fabricates a 50% haircut. Automatic revocation of the certificate of authority on the first missed deadline is far disproportionate; certificates of authority are revoked only for serious, sustained violations after due process. The accrual-of-interest remedy is the principal day-to-day enforcement mechanism.

California Insurance Code §10350.7 (prompt-pay interest); §10123.13
30. Under the Uniform Provisions Law, the 'time limit on certain defenses' (incontestability) provision in an individual health policy generally prevents the insurer, after the policy has been in force for a stated period, from:
a.Ever raising premiums on the whole class of policyholders, even with regulatory approval
b.Requiring the insured to submit a written proof of loss before it pays any further claim
c.Denying a claim based on misstatements in the application (except fraudulent ones, where permitted)✓
d.Paying claim benefits on time, since this provision suspends all of the insurer's ordinary payment deadlines

The time-limit-on-certain-defenses (incontestability) provision bars the insurer, after the policy has been in force for a set period (often two or three years), from voiding the policy or denying a claim because of misstatements made in the application, with an exception for fraudulent misstatements where state law allows. It does not restrict the insurer's right to adjust premiums for a whole class, nor does it eliminate the routine requirement that the insured submit proof of loss. Paying benefits on time is required by a separate provision (time of payment of claims), not this one.

31. A 'pre-existing condition' provision in a health policy generally allows the insurer to:
a.Limit or exclude coverage for a condition the insured had before the policy took effect, for a stated period✓
b.Refuse to ever pay for accidents, including injuries that occur long after the policy took effect
c.Increase the death benefit payable for illnesses the insured was treated for before applying
d.Cancel the policy outright whenever the insured files any claim, regardless of when the condition first arose

A pre-existing condition provision lets the insurer limit or exclude benefits for a medical condition that existed (was diagnosed or treated, or would have prompted a prudent person to seek care) before the policy's effective date, typically for a defined waiting period after which the condition is covered. It is not a general right to cancel the policy whenever a claim is filed, and it does not let the insurer refuse all accident coverage. Health policies pay medical or disability benefits, not a death benefit, so raising a death benefit for previously treated illnesses is inapplicable.

32. The mandatory 'notice of claim' provision requires the insured to notify the insurer of a claim within:
a.Six months after the insured's entire course of treatment for the loss has ended
b.Exactly five days from the date of loss, with no exception allowed when notice was not reasonably possible
c.A stated period, typically 20 days after a loss or as soon as reasonably possible✓
d.One full year after the loss, measured from the date the insured first sought care

The notice of claim provision requires the insured to tell the insurer that a loss has occurred within a stated time, commonly 20 days after the loss or as soon as reasonably possible. A rigid five-day rule, six months, or a full year does not match the standard uniform provision. Prompt notice lets the insurer begin processing and, if needed, investigate the claim. This is the first step in the claims sequence, followed by claim forms and proof of loss.

33. Under the 'claim forms' provision, if the insurer fails to furnish claim forms within the required time (usually 15 days) after receiving notice of claim, the insured may:
a.Immediately file a lawsuit against the insurer without first submitting any proof of the loss
b.Automatically receive double the benefit
c.Submit written proof of the loss in their own words and still be considered compliant✓
d.Cancel the policy and demand a refund

If the insurer does not supply claim forms within the stated period after notice, the insured is allowed to submit written proof of the loss in their own words (describing the nature and extent of the loss) and is treated as having complied with the proof requirement. The insured is not entitled to sue immediately, cancel for a refund, or collect double benefits. This provision keeps the insurer's delay from defeating an otherwise valid claim.

34. The mandatory 'proof of loss' provision generally requires the insured to submit proof of loss within:
a.Five days after the date on which the covered loss occurs
b.A stated period, commonly 90 days after the date of the loss✓
c.Three years after the insured's course of treatment is completed
d.Ten years after the date on which the policy was originally issued

The proof of loss provision typically requires written proof within 90 days after the loss (or as soon as reasonably possible, and not later than one year except in cases of legal incapacity). Five days is too short, and three or ten years is far too long. Proof of loss documents the details the insurer needs to determine what it owes. Failing to provide timely proof can jeopardize a claim, which is why the 90-day standard is worth remembering.

35. The mandatory 'time of payment of claims' provision requires the insurer to pay claims:
a.No sooner than two years after the loss has occurred, which would defeat the purpose of prompt payment
b.Only once at the end of the year
c.Whenever the insurer chooses to
d.Promptly, immediately or within a stated number of days after it receives proof of loss✓

The time of payment of claims provision requires the insurer to pay benefits promptly, immediately or within a specified number of days after receiving acceptable proof of loss, so a valid claim is not left unpaid. Paying at the insurer's discretion, only at year-end, or after a two-year delay would defeat the purpose. This provision protects insureds from unreasonable delays once they have properly documented a covered loss.

36. The mandatory 'payment of claims' provision specifies:
a.The number of days in the elimination period that must elapse after a loss before benefits begin to accrue
b.To whom benefits are paid, generally the insured, with death benefits going to a named beneficiary✓
c.The dollar amount of premium the insured must pay each month to keep the coverage in force
d.The size of the deductible the insured must satisfy before the policy pays any benefits

The payment of claims provision states who receives the benefit money: benefits are ordinarily paid to the insured, while any death benefit under the policy is paid to the designated beneficiary (or the estate if none is named). It does not set the premium, the deductible, or the elimination period, which are addressed elsewhere. This provision ensures there is a clear, contractually defined recipient for each type of benefit.

37. The mandatory 'physical examination and autopsy' provision gives the insurer the right, at its own expense, to:
a.Raise the insured's premium
b.Have the insured examined during a pending claim and, where not prohibited by law, require an autopsy✓
c.Cancel the policy during a claim it is investigating, which this examination-and-autopsy provision does not authorize
d.Deny every claim automatically

This provision permits the insurer, at its own cost and as often as reasonably necessary while a claim is pending, to have the insured physically examined and, in the event of death, to require an autopsy unless state law forbids it. It does not allow the insurer to deny all claims, raise premiums, or cancel the policy. The right exists so the insurer can verify the nature and extent of a loss it is being asked to pay.

38. The mandatory 'legal actions' provision prevents an insured from bringing a lawsuit against the insurer until:
a.A stated time (often 60 days) after proof of loss has been filed, and bars suits brought after an outer limit such as three years✓
b.One day after filing any claim
c.The moment the policy is issued
d.The insured has switched insurers and obtained a replacement policy elsewhere, which has nothing to do with the timing rules this provision sets for filing suit

The legal actions provision sets a window for lawsuits: the insured cannot sue for at least a stated period (commonly 60 days) after submitting proof of loss, giving the insurer time to pay, and cannot sue after an outer limit (often three years) from when proof was due. It is not tied to policy issuance, a one-day wait, or changing insurers. This provision gives the insurer a fair chance to settle before litigation and sets a deadline for claims disputes.

39. The optional 'change of occupation' provision allows the insurer to adjust benefits or premiums if the insured:
a.Moves to a different state after the policy is issued
b.Purchases a second unrelated policy from a competing insurer
c.Gets married or divorced during the policy term
d.Changes to a more hazardous or less hazardous occupation✓

The change of occupation provision lets the insurer modify the benefit or premium when the insured switches to a job with a different risk level: a more hazardous occupation may reduce benefits to what the premium would buy at the higher risk, while a less hazardous one may lower the premium and refund the difference. It is not triggered by relocating, marrying, or buying another policy. The provision keeps the coverage aligned with the actual occupational risk being insured.

40. Under the misstatement of age provision in a health policy, if the insured's age was understated on the application, the benefits are:
a.Adjusted to the amount the premium actually paid would have purchased at the insured's correct age✓
b.Automatically doubled as a penalty on the insurer for accepting an application that stated an incorrect age
c.Voided entirely, ending the policy
d.Left completely unchanged

The misstatement of age provision does not void the policy; instead, if the age was misstated, the benefit is adjusted to what the premiums paid would have bought at the true age, so an understated age (which meant an underpaid premium) results in a proportionately reduced benefit. The policy is not canceled, benefits are not doubled, and they are not left unchanged. This keeps the insurer's payout consistent with the premium that was actually charged.

41. A 'probationary period' in a health insurance policy is:
a.The period allowed after delivery during which the policyowner may return the new policy and receive a full refund of the premium paid
b.The number of additional days of leeway allowed for paying a renewal premium after its due date without a lapse
c.A schedule setting out the dates on which the policyowner's premium payments fall due in each year of coverage
d.An initial waiting period after the policy takes effect before benefits for certain conditions, such as sickness, are covered✓

A probationary period is an initial span of time (often the first few weeks) after the policy's effective date during which losses from certain causes, commonly sickness, are not yet covered, reducing the risk of insuring someone already becoming ill. It is not the free-look period, the grace period, or a payment schedule. The probationary period is a one-time waiting period at the start of coverage, distinct from the recurring grace period for premium payments.

42. The free-look provision in a health insurance policy allows the policyowner to:
a.Change which family members are insured under the policy without the insurer's consent
b.Permanently increase the policy's benefit amounts beyond those originally issued without any further underwriting
c.Skip paying the first premium and still have the coverage take effect on the policy date
d.Examine the policy for a stated number of days and return it for a full premium refund if not satisfied✓

The free-look provision gives the policyowner a set number of days after receiving the policy to review it and, if dissatisfied for any reason, return it for a full refund of premium as though it were never issued. It does not let the owner skip a premium, change the insured, or increase benefits. The free look is a consumer protection ensuring buyers have time to make sure the coverage meets their needs before committing.

43. The insuring clause of a health insurance policy:
a.Names the producer who sold the policy and states the commission the insurer will pay to that producer
b.Sets the schedule of dates on which the policyowner's premiums must be paid to keep coverage
c.States the insurer's promise to pay benefits for covered losses and defines the basic scope of coverage✓
d.Lists the specific conditions, injuries, and treatments that the policy will not cover and for which no benefits are paid

The insuring clause is the insurer's core promise: it states that the insurer will pay benefits for the losses the policy covers and broadly defines the coverage being provided. Listing what is not covered is the function of the exclusions. Setting the premium schedule is a separate provision, and naming the producer is not part of the insuring clause. The insuring clause establishes the fundamental agreement to provide coverage, from which the rest of the policy elaborates.

44. An impairment (exclusion) rider attached to a health insurance policy:
a.Permanently excludes coverage for a specified pre-existing condition or body part✓
b.Adds coverage for a brand-new condition that first arises after the policy is issued
c.Reduces the policy's deductible
d.Increases the overall benefit amount

An impairment rider (also called an exclusion rider) allows the insurer to issue a policy while excluding a particular existing condition or body part from coverage, so the applicant can be insured for everything else. It does not add coverage, lower the deductible, or increase benefits, its effect is to remove coverage for the named impairment. This rider lets an insurer cover an otherwise higher-risk applicant by carving out the specific problem.

45. The optional provision addressing 'other insurance in this insurer' is concerned with:
a.The dollar size of the medical expense deductible the insured must satisfy before any benefits start
b.Situations where an insured holds multiple policies with the same insurer, limiting total benefits to prevent overinsurance✓
c.The insured's separate life insurance policies held with other insurers and the way their death benefits are coordinated at claim time
d.The length of the elimination period that must pass before the policy's disability benefits become payable

This optional provision applies when an insured has more than one policy of the same kind with the same insurer; it lets the insurer limit the total benefits payable (often refunding the premium for the excess coverage) so the insured cannot be overinsured and profit from a loss. It does not concern separate life insurance, the deductible, or the elimination period. The provision reflects the principle that health coverage should reimburse loss, not create a gain from duplicate policies.

46. The mandatory 'notice of claim' provision generally requires the insured to notify the insurer of a claim within:
a.Within 24 hours of any covered loss, or else the insurer becomes entitled to deny the entire claim outright
b.One full year after the loss
c.A stated time such as 20 days after a loss, or as soon as reasonably possible✓
d.Exactly 90 days in every case

Notice of claim typically must be given within about 20 days of a loss or as soon as reasonably possible. It is not a strict 24-hour, one-year, or fixed 90-day rule.

47. Under the 'claim forms' mandatory provision, if the insurer fails to furnish claim forms within a set time (often 15 days) after notice, the insured may:
a.Submit written proof of loss in their own words describing the occurrence, character, and extent of loss✓
b.Wait indefinitely with no consequence
c.Sue the insurer immediately without further steps
d.Lose the right to the claim entirely, since proof of loss cannot be submitted without the insurer's official forms

If the insurer does not send claim forms promptly, the insured satisfies the requirement by submitting proof of loss in their own words. The claim is not forfeited, nor does this provision authorize immediate suit.

48. The 'proof of loss' mandatory provision typically requires the insured to furnish written proof within:
a.10 days of the loss, with no extension permitted
b.24 hours of the loss, by telephone notice to the claims office
c.3 years of the loss, the same limit as the legal action clause
d.90 days after the loss, or as soon as reasonably possible✓

Proof of loss is generally due within 90 days of the loss, or as soon as reasonably possible where 90 days is not feasible. The other intervals do not reflect the uniform provision.

49. The 'time of payment of claims' provision requires the insurer to pay claims:
a.Only at the end of the calendar year
b.Immediately, or within a stated period, after receiving acceptable proof of loss✓
c.Only after the contestable period ends
d.Whenever the insurer chooses, since no provision sets a firm deadline for paying an approved claim to the insured

This provision requires prompt payment once proof of loss is received, within the period the provision states. The insurer cannot delay at will or hold claims for year-end or the contestable period.

50. The 'legal actions' mandatory provision states that an insured may not sue the insurer until a set time after proof of loss, and no later than a stated outer limit. Those periods are commonly:
a.1 year after proof of loss and no more than 2 years after the loss itself
b.immediately upon filing proof of loss, with no outer limit on the time to sue at all
c.60 days after proof of loss and no more than 3 years after proof was required✓
d.10 days after proof of loss and no more than 6 months after the claim is denied

The legal actions provision typically bars suit for 60 days after proof of loss and requires any suit within about 3 years. This gives the insurer time to process while preserving the insured's right to sue.

51. The mandatory 'physical examination and autopsy' provision allows the insurer, at its own expense, to:
a.Raise the policy's premium at any point while a claim is being investigated by the company's claims department
b.Deny all pending claims automatically
c.Cancel the coverage during a claim
d.Examine the insured while a claim is pending and require an autopsy where not forbidden by law✓

This provision lets the insurer verify a claim by examining the insured or, in a death claim, ordering an autopsy where state law permits, all at the insurer's cost. It does not authorize automatic denial, premium hikes, or cancellation.

52. In individual health insurance, the length of the grace period usually depends on the:
a.Premium payment mode (for example, 7 days for weekly, 10 days for monthly, 31 days for other modes)✓
b.The insured's current attained age, with older insureds automatically receiving a longer grace period than younger ones
c.Insured's state of residence only
d.Amount of the policy's benefits

The health grace period varies with how often premiums are paid, longer intervals get longer grace periods. It is not tied to age or benefit amount.

53. After an individual health policy has been in force for the period stated in the 'time limit on certain defenses,' a claim for a pre-existing condition that is NOT specifically excluded by name:
a.Can always be denied by the insurer
b.Doubles the policy's premium going forward whenever a pre-existing condition is discovered by the insurer after issue
c.Automatically voids the entire policy
d.Can never be denied merely because the condition existed before the policy took effect✓

Once the time limit passes, the insurer cannot deny a claim solely because the condition predated the policy, unless it was specifically named and excluded. It does not void the policy or change the premium.

54. Under the optional 'change of occupation' provision, if an insured changes to a MORE hazardous occupation, benefits will generally be:
a.Reduced to what the premium already paid would purchase at the more hazardous classification✓
b.Terminated immediately, because moving to a more hazardous job voids the contract at the moment of the change
c.Left completely unchanged, since the occupational class is fixed at issue and never affects the benefit amount
d.Increased in proportion to the added risk, with the insurer billing the shortfall in premium at the next renewal

Moving to a riskier job means the premium paid buys less coverage, so benefits are reduced to that level rather than the insurer collecting more. Benefits are not increased, unchanged, or terminated.

55. If an insured changes to a LESS hazardous occupation, the change of occupation provision allows:
a.The policy to be canceled at the insurer's option
b.No change of any kind to premium or benefits
c.The premium to be reduced and any excess refunded✓
d.Benefits to be reduced in proportion to the premium

A safer occupation entitles the insured to a lower rate, with the overpaid premium refunded, since the risk decreased. Benefits are not cut and the policy is not canceled.

56. In a health policy, the misstatement of age provision adjusts the ________ to what the premium paid would have purchased at the correct age:
a.policy deductible
b.benefits✓
c.premium payment mode
d.provider network

As in life insurance, a health misstatement of age is fixed by adjusting benefits to reflect what the premium actually paid would buy at the true age, rather than voiding the policy. Mode, deductible, and network are unaffected.

57. The optional 'illegal occupation' and 'intoxicants and narcotics' provisions let the insurer deny claims for losses that:
a.Involve a minor illness
b.Occur only on weekends or public holidays, when the insured is presumed to be away from the regular workplace
c.Occur while the insured is at work
d.Result from the insured committing a felony or being under the influence of non-prescribed narcotics✓

These optional provisions exclude losses stemming from the insured's illegal activity or intoxication by non-prescribed narcotics. Ordinary work, weekend, or minor-illness losses are not what they target.

58. The insuring clause of a health policy:
a.Sets out the types of losses covered and the insurer's promise to pay benefits✓
b.States the premium and payment mode
c.Names the policy's beneficiary
d.Lists the specific exclusions and limitations that remove certain losses from the policy's coverage

The insuring clause states what the policy covers and the insurer's promise to pay. Exclusions, premium terms, and beneficiary designations are handled in other parts of the contract.

59. A probationary period in a health policy is:
a.The waiting time after each disability before benefits begin
b.The time allowed to return the policy for a refund
c.An initial period after the effective date during which sickness-related claims are not covered✓
d.The window during which the insurer is required to pay an approved claim after receiving the proof of loss

The probationary period is a one-time wait at the start of coverage before certain (usually sickness) claims are payable. Returning for a refund is the free-look, and the post-disability wait is the elimination period.

60. How does an elimination period differ from a probationary period?
a.The probationary period applies once at the start of the policy to new sickness claims, while the elimination period is the waiting time after each disability begins before benefits are paid✓
b.Neither one has any effect on when benefits are paid, because both are only administrative labels the insurer uses when it sets up the policy file at issue
c.The elimination period applies only to death claims under the policy, while the probationary period is the waiting time that applies to every disability claim the insured files
d.They are two different names for the same single waiting period, applied one time when the policy is first issued and never applied again to any later claim or to a subsequent disability of the insured

The probationary period is a single initial wait; the elimination period recurs, delaying benefits after each covered disability starts. Both affect benefits, and neither concerns death claims specifically.

61. In a disability policy, the benefit period is:
a.The period in which the insurer may still contest and rescind the policy
b.The waiting time between the onset of disability and the first benefit payment
c.The maximum length of time benefits will be paid for a covered disability✓
d.The policy's grace period for paying an overdue renewal premium

The benefit period caps how long benefits continue for a claim. The pre-benefit wait is the elimination period, and grace and contestable periods are unrelated concepts.

62. A pre-existing condition provision allows the insurer to:
a.Limit or exclude benefits for a condition treated or manifesting before the effective date, for a stated time✓
b.Deny all future claims of any kind for the entire life of the policy once a pre-existing condition has been identified
c.Cover every condition immediately with no limits
d.Increase the policy's death benefit

The provision lets the insurer restrict coverage for conditions that existed before the policy, but only for a defined period, after which they are covered. It does not bar all claims or add a death benefit.

63. The coordination of benefits (COB) provision in group health coverage is designed to:
a.Prevent an insured with more than one plan from recovering more than 100% of the actual expenses✓
b.Double the deductible the insured owes so that the two plans together collect a larger share of the actual costs
c.Cancel the insured's secondary coverage
d.Let an insured collect full benefits from two plans and profit

COB establishes which plan pays first and limits total recovery to the actual expense, preventing profit from double coverage. It does not cancel coverage or raise deductibles.

64. Under COB, when a child is covered by both parents' group plans, the 'birthday rule' usually makes the primary plan the one belonging to the parent whose:
a.Coverage has been in force for the longer time
b.Earned income is higher on the household tax return
c.Birthday falls earlier in the calendar year✓
d.Plan carries the lower annual deductible amount

The birthday rule assigns primary status to the plan of the parent whose birthday comes first in the year (month and day, not year of birth). Coverage length, income, and deductible are not the deciding factor.

65. Subrogation in a health or medical policy allows the insurer, after paying a claim caused by a third party, to:
a.Retain all of the insured's future premiums
b.Deny the claim it already paid and demand that the insured personally return all of the benefit money received
c.Recover the amount paid from the responsible third party or from the insured's recovery against that party✓
d.Increase the insured's benefits going forward

Subrogation lets the insurer step into the insured's shoes to recover its payment from the at-fault party. It does not undo the claim, seize premiums, or raise benefits.

66. The main purpose of subrogation is to:
a.Reduce the insurer's underwriting duties
b.Prevent the insured from being paid twice for the same loss and hold the at-fault party responsible✓
c.Extend the policy's grace period so the insured has additional time to pursue the responsible third party
d.Reward the insured for filing a claim

Subrogation stops double recovery and shifts the cost to the party that caused the loss. It is unrelated to rewarding the insured, underwriting, or grace periods.

67. A recurrent disability provision states that if an insured returns to work but becomes disabled again from the same cause within a stated time (such as 6 months), it is treated as:
a.A brand-new disability requiring a new elimination period and a new benefit period
b.A pre-existing condition subject to the policy's pre-existing condition waiting period
c.An excluded loss the insurer will not pay because benefits already ran once
d.A continuation of the original disability, with no new elimination period✓

A relapse from the same cause within the recurrent-disability window is treated as one continuous claim, so the insured need not satisfy a new elimination period. If the gap were longer, it would be a new disability.

68. An impairment (exclusion) rider on a health policy:
a.Lowers the policy's deductible for the named pre-existing condition
b.Adds supplemental benefits for one specified condition in exchange for extra premium
c.Guarantees the policy's renewal regardless of the insured's later health
d.Permanently excludes coverage for a specified condition or body part✓

An impairment rider excludes a particular condition the applicant already has, allowing the insurer to issue coverage for everything else. It does not add coverage, cut deductibles, or guarantee renewal.

69. A 'noncancelable' health policy guarantees that the insurer:
a.Can change the benefits whenever it wishes
b.Can never cancel and can never raise the premium above the amount stated in the policy, while premiums are paid, until a stated age✓
c.May raise the premium at any time
d.May refuse to renew the policy each year and may also increase the premium at any renewal based on the individual insured's changing health

Noncancelable is the strongest renewal guarantee: the insurer can neither cancel nor increase the premium beyond the scheduled amount up to a stated age. It cannot non-renew or alter benefits at will.

70. A 'guaranteed renewable' health policy allows the insurer to:
a.Cancel the policy at any time it chooses, provided only that it gives the insured advance written notice
b.Refuse renewal for a single insured
c.Guarantee renewal to a stated age but adjust premiums by class, not for one individual✓
d.Change an individual insured's benefits

Guaranteed renewable means the insurer must renew to a stated age but may raise premiums for an entire class of insureds. It cannot cancel, single out one insured, or change benefits arbitrarily.

71. A conditionally renewable health policy permits the insurer to non-renew:
a.Only for reasons stated in the policy, such as reaching an age or leaving employment — never for declining health✓
b.For any reason, including the insured's declining health
c.Never decline renewal under any circumstance, so the coverage effectively continues for the insured's entire lifetime automatically
d.Only during the first policy year

Conditionally renewable lets the insurer decline renewal only for specified events (age, employment status), but not because the insured's health worsened. It is more restrictive to the insured than guaranteed renewable but not a free hand for the insurer.

Last reviewed: · editorial process

PrepPass team · Verified against California CDI · How we review
Reviewed by John Zihao Zhang — California-Licensed Life Insurance Agent (CA Dept. of Insurance License #4396095 — verify)

What's on the California Life & Accident-Health Agent License?

The California Life & Accident-Health Agent License is administered by the California Department of Insurance (CDI). The topic weights below are a PrepPass estimate, not figures published by the California Department of Insurance (CDI).

Questions
150 questions
Time limit
195 minutes
Passing score
60%

Every figure above, with the document it came from and the date we read it →

Topic blueprint

  • 20%
    California Insurance Code & Ethics
  • 15%
    Life Insurance Fundamentals
  • 15%
    Life Policy Provisions
  • 10%
    Accident & Health Fundamentals
  • 10%
    A&H Policy Provisions
  • 10%
    General Insurance Principles
  • 10%
    Group Life & Annuities
  • 5%
    Disability & Long-Term Care
  • 3%
    Medicare & Senior Insurance
  • 2%
    Tax Treatment
PrepPass team · Verified against California Department of Insurance (CDI) · How we review

How hard is the exam?

Difficult. The California Life & Accident-Health exam is 150 questions over 195 minutes at PSI, 60% to pass. Heavy on California Insurance Code (CIC) and IRC tax rules. Available in EN/ES/VI/ZH/KO under AB-451.

Recommended study hours
100-150 hours over 6-10 weeks (only the 12-hour ethics course is required for prelicensing — AB 943, 2026)
First-attempt pass rate
60% on the first attempt (n = 9,117) — California Department of Insurance, 2025. CDI’s row is “Life and Accident / Health or Sickness”; its separate Life-only line was 63% (n = 10,075) and Accident / Health or Sickness 76%. It was 66% in 2024. CDI states plainly that these are “the examination pass rates for individuals taking the license examination on their first attempt.”Source: California Department of Insurance — 2025 Annual Report of the Commissioner (PDF), “LSD Licensing Examination First-Time Pass Rates”
Where to focus first
California Insurance Code (CIC) and Life Insurance Provisions — together about 35% of exam content; expect specific code section citations in distractors.

Fees and salaries are approximate and change over time. The pass rate above is quoted from the source linked beside it, for the period that source covers — where we have not checked a source, we say so and give no number.

Frequently asked questions

How many California Life & Accident-Health insurance practice questions?+

716 original practice questions covering all 10 topics of the California Department of Insurance Life & A&H Agent license exam.

Is the Life & A&H practice test free?+

Yes, completely free. No signup, no credit card. Unlimited practice rounds and a 150-question timed mock exam included.

Are these real CDI exam questions?+

No. All questions are original prose authored from the California Insurance Code, Title 10 CCR, Civil Code, and standard ISO insurance contract concepts. We never copy from real CDI exams or providers like ExamFX, Kaplan, or AD Banker.

What's the passing score for the California Life & A&H exam?+

60%, and CDI publishes no sectional or per-subject cut score — a failing candidate gets a per-topic diagnostic, which is a diagnostic, not a cut score. The real CDI exam is 150 multiple-choice questions over 195 minutes at a PSI testing center.

Is the California insurance license exam offered in Chinese or Vietnamese?+

Yes — AB 451 (Stats. 2023, ch. 136) legally requires CDI to offer producer license exams in English, Spanish, Simplified Chinese, Vietnamese, Korean and Tagalog.

What does the Life & A&H license let me sell?+

Life insurance, annuities, accident insurance, health insurance, disability insurance, and long-term care (LTC) insurance — all to California residents.

How long is the California insurance license valid?+

2 years. Renewal requires 24 hours of continuing education (3 of which must be ethics) per renewal cycle.

Is there a study guide for the Life & Health Insurance Producer?+

Yes. PrepPass sells California Life & Health Insurance Producer Exam — Complete Study Guide (2026), a PDF + EPUB download, $19.99 one-time; the practice on this page stays free without it. See the study guide →

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