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Foodborne Illness

40 questions
1. A line cook at a taquería leaves a pan of cooked carnitas on the counter at room temperature during a slow afternoon. Which range describes the Temperature Danger Zone where bacteria grow most rapidly?
a.70°F to 125°F
b.41°F to 135°F
c.32°F to 100°F
d.50°F to 150°F

The Temperature Danger Zone is 41°F to 135°F; bacteria multiply fastest between these limits, and growth is most rapid from 70°F to 125°F. Cold holding must stay at or below 41°F and hot holding at or above 135°F to keep food out of the zone. The other ranges are incorrect because they do not match the Food Code limits.

2. What is the maximum temperature at which cold TCS food may be held to keep it safe?
a.45°F
b.50°F
c.41°F
d.38°F

Cold TCS (Time/Temperature Control for Safety) food must be held at 41°F or below. At 45°F or 50°F the food is inside the danger zone and pathogens can grow. 38°F is safe but is not the maximum allowed limit the question asks for.

FDA Food Code §3-501.16
3. A cook holds a pot of chicken tortilla soup on the steam table. What is the minimum hot-holding temperature required?
a.135°F
b.125°F
c.145°F
d.155°F

Hot TCS food must be held at 135°F or above. 125°F is inside the danger zone and unsafe. 145°F and 155°F are cooking temperatures for certain foods, not the minimum hot-holding requirement.

FDA Food Code §3-501.16
4. A manager reheats a pan of leftover rice and beans that was properly cooled. To what internal temperature must it be reheated, and within what time?
a.145°F within 4 hours
b.155°F within 2 hours
c.135°F within 2 hours
d.165°F within 2 hours

TCS food reheated for hot holding must reach 165°F for 15 seconds within 2 hours. Reaching only 135°F, 145°F, or 155°F would not destroy pathogens that may have grown, and taking longer than 2 hours keeps food in the danger zone too long.

FDA Food Code §3-403.11
5. What is the minimum internal cooking temperature and hold time for chicken, turkey, and other poultry?
a.155°F for 17 seconds
b.165°F for 15 seconds
c.145°F for 15 seconds
d.175°F for 10 seconds

Poultry must be cooked to 165°F for 15 seconds because it commonly carries Salmonella and Campylobacter. 155°F is for ground meat, 145°F is for whole cuts and seafood, and 175°F is not a Food Code standard.

FDA Food Code §3-401.11
6. A cook is grilling beef hamburger patties for lunch service. What is the minimum internal temperature and time for ground beef?
a.145°F for 15 seconds
b.165°F for 15 seconds
c.155°F for 17 seconds
d.135°F for 17 seconds

Ground meat such as hamburger must reach 155°F for 17 seconds because grinding spreads surface bacteria throughout the patty. Whole cuts only need 145°F since bacteria stay on the surface, and 165°F is for poultry.

FDA Food Code §3-401.11
7. A customer orders a grilled salmon fillet and a medium steak. What is the minimum internal cooking temperature for whole seafood and steaks?
a.145°F for 15 seconds
b.155°F for 17 seconds
c.165°F for 15 seconds
d.135°F for 15 seconds

Whole muscle seafood, steaks, chops, and shell eggs cooked for immediate service require 145°F for 15 seconds. 155°F applies to ground meat, and 165°F to poultry; 135°F is a holding temperature, not a cooking temperature.

FDA Food Code §3-401.11
8. The acronym FAT TOM describes the six conditions bacteria need to grow. What do the letters stand for?
a.Fat, Acid, Temperature, Time, Oxygen, Moisture
b.Food, Air, Time, Temperature, Oxygen, Minerals
c.Fat, Acidity, Time, Texture, Oxygen, Moisture
d.Food, Acidity, Temperature, Time, Oxygen, Moisture

FAT TOM stands for Food, Acidity, Temperature, Time, Oxygen, and Moisture, the six factors that control bacterial growth. Controlling temperature and time is the tool managers rely on most. The other options substitute incorrect words like Fat or Minerals.

9. Which of the following is a TCS (Time/Temperature Control for Safety) food that requires strict temperature control?
a.Uncut whole lemons
b.Cut cantaloupe melon
c.Dry white rice (uncooked)
d.Sealed jar of honey

Cut melons, including cantaloupe, are TCS foods because cutting exposes the moist, low-acid flesh where bacteria can grow. Whole citrus, uncooked dry rice, and shelf-stable honey are not TCS in their listed state. Once rice is cooked it becomes TCS.

10. A guest becomes ill after eating raw oysters and reports jaundice weeks later. Which of the Big 6 pathogens is a virus most associated with contaminated shellfish and infected food handlers?
a.Nontyphoidal Salmonella
b.Shigella
c.Hepatitis A
d.Shiga toxin-producing E. coli

Hepatitis A is a virus linked to raw or undercooked shellfish and to infected food handlers with poor handwashing, and it can cause jaundice. Salmonella, Shigella, and STEC are bacteria, not viruses. Hepatitis A is one of the Big 6 highly infectious pathogens.

11. Norovirus outbreaks spread rapidly in restaurants. What is the most effective way for a manager to prevent Norovirus transmission from staff?
a.Exclude ill staff and enforce proper handwashing with no bare-hand contact with ready-to-eat food
b.Increase the freezer temperature to kill the virus
c.Rely on hand sanitizer instead of soap and water
d.Cook all food to 135°F

Norovirus is extremely contagious and spread by the fecal-oral route, so excluding sick employees and strict handwashing plus no bare-hand contact with ready-to-eat food are the key controls. Freezing does not kill Norovirus, sanitizer alone is not effective against it, and 135°F is a holding temperature, not a kill step.

12. A prep cook slices deli meat and then handles lettuce for salads without washing hands. Nontyphoidal Salmonella is most commonly associated with which foods?
a.Fresh citrus and vinegar
b.Poultry, eggs, and produce
c.Bottled water and ice
d.Dry pasta and flour

Nontyphoidal Salmonella is commonly found in poultry, eggs, meat, and fresh produce, and cross-contamination spreads it. Cooking to required temperatures and avoiding cross-contamination are the main controls. Highly acidic or dry, shelf-stable items are not typical vehicles.

13. Salmonella Typhi (which causes typhoid fever) differs from nontyphoidal Salmonella mainly because it:
a.Is destroyed by refrigeration
b.Only affects animals, never humans
c.Is not one of the Big 6 pathogens
d.Lives only in humans and is spread by infected food handlers

Salmonella Typhi lives only in humans and is spread when an infected food handler contaminates food, often via ready-to-eat items and beverages. It is one of the Big 6. Refrigeration does not destroy it, and it clearly affects humans, causing typhoid fever.

14. Shigella is most often transmitted in food establishments through:
a.Undercooked poultry
b.Cross-contact with allergens
c.Flies and food handlers with poor personal hygiene
d.Improper freezing of vegetables

Shigella is spread by the fecal-oral route, often through flies, contaminated water, and food handlers who do not wash hands after using the restroom. It commonly contaminates ready-to-eat foods and salads. Controlling handwashing and excluding ill staff are key, not freezing.

15. Shiga toxin-producing E. coli (STEC), such as E. coli O157:H7, is most strongly associated with which food?
a.Canned tomatoes
b.Undercooked ground beef
c.Boiled white rice
d.Pasteurized milk

STEC is strongly linked to undercooked ground beef and to contaminated produce, and even a small dose can cause severe illness such as hemolytic uremic syndrome. Cooking ground beef to 155°F controls it. Canned tomatoes, boiled rice, and pasteurized milk are not typical STEC vehicles.

16. Which populations are considered highly susceptible (high-risk) to foodborne illness and should be given extra protection?
a.Young children, the elderly, pregnant women, and immunocompromised people
b.Healthy adults who eat out often
c.Teenagers and athletes
d.People who take daily vitamins

Highly susceptible populations include young children, older adults, pregnant women, and people with weakened immune systems, because their bodies fight infection less effectively. Facilities serving these groups (such as hospitals and nursing homes) must not serve certain raw or undercooked foods. Healthy adults and athletes are not high-risk by definition.

17. A customer becomes flushed, dizzy, and develops a rash within minutes of eating tuna that was stored improperly. This is most likely which type of toxin illness?
a.Ciguatera poisoning
b.Paralytic shellfish poisoning
c.Botulism
d.Scombroid (histamine) poisoning

Scombroid poisoning is caused by histamine that forms when fish like tuna, mahi-mahi, and mackerel are time-temperature abused; symptoms appear rapidly and include flushing and rash. The histamine is not destroyed by cooking, so cold storage is critical. Ciguatera comes from reef fish toxins and botulism causes neurological paralysis.

18. Ciguatera poisoning is caused by a toxin found in certain large predatory reef fish. Which fish is a common source?
a.Farm-raised tilapia
b.Barracuda and large grouper
c.Atlantic cod
d.Canned sardines

Ciguatera toxin accumulates in large predatory reef fish such as barracuda, amberjack, and large grouper; the toxin cannot be destroyed by cooking or freezing. Buying fish from approved, reputable suppliers is the main control. Farmed tilapia, cod, and canned sardines are not typical ciguatera sources.

19. A parasite of concern in raw or undercooked fish served as sushi or ceviche is:
a.Salmonella
b.Norovirus
c.Anisakis (roundworm)
d.Clostridium botulinum

Anisakis is a roundworm parasite found in raw or undercooked fish; freezing fish at required temperatures for the required time destroys it, which is why fish for raw service must be frozen unless exempt. Salmonella is bacteria, Norovirus a virus, and Clostridium botulinum a toxin-forming bacterium.

20. A manager finds mold on a block of cheddar cheese and on a loaf of bread. Which statement about fungi (molds and yeasts) is correct?
a.Some molds produce toxins, so moldy soft/high-moisture foods should be discarded
b.All mold is harmless and can simply be scraped off any food
c.Mold only grows in the freezer
d.Yeasts are always dangerous pathogens

Some molds produce dangerous mycotoxins, so moldy soft foods, breads, and high-moisture items should be thrown out; only certain hard cheeses can have mold trimmed at least an inch away. Not all mold is harmless, mold does not require the freezer to grow, and most yeasts spoil food rather than cause infection.

21. According to the FDA Food Code, how long should the entire handwashing process take, from wetting hands to drying?
a.At least 5 seconds
b.Exactly 60 seconds
c.About 10 seconds
d.At least 20 seconds total

The complete handwashing process should take at least 20 seconds, including vigorous scrubbing with soap for 10 to 15 seconds. Five or ten seconds is too short to remove pathogens, and while thorough washing is important, the Code sets a minimum of 20 seconds total.

FDA Food Code §2-301.14
22. A cook prepares a large batch of pork stew. When cooling TCS food using the two-stage method, it must first be cooled from 135°F to 70°F within how many hours?
a.4 hours
b.2 hours
c.6 hours
d.1 hour

The two-stage cooling method requires cooling from 135°F to 70°F within 2 hours, then from 70°F to 41°F within an additional 4 hours, for a total of 6 hours. If the food does not reach 70°F within the first 2 hours it must be reheated or discarded. The 2-hour first stage limits the time bacteria spend in the fastest-growth range.

FDA Food Code §3-501.14
23. In the two-stage cooling method, after reaching 70°F the food must be cooled to 41°F within how many additional hours?
a.2 additional hours
b.6 additional hours
c.4 additional hours
d.8 additional hours

After the first stage brings food to 70°F within 2 hours, the second stage must bring it from 70°F down to 41°F within 4 more hours, for a maximum total of 6 hours. Allowing more time would keep the food in the danger zone too long and permit pathogen growth.

FDA Food Code §3-501.14
24. Clostridium botulinum is dangerous because it produces a deadly toxin under which conditions?
a.In anaerobic (oxygen-free) environments such as improperly canned or ROP foods
b.Only in high-acid foods like lemon juice
c.Only in the presence of abundant oxygen
d.Only in dry, low-moisture foods

Clostridium botulinum grows and forms toxin in anaerobic, low-acid, moist environments such as improperly home-canned foods, ROP (reduced-oxygen packaged) foods, and garlic-in-oil mixtures. Oxygen and high acidity inhibit it, and it does not thrive in dry foods. The toxin attacks the nervous system.

25. Bacillus cereus is often linked to cooked rice held at improper temperatures because it:
a.Is destroyed instantly by any reheating
b.Forms heat-resistant spores and toxins when cooked starchy foods are time-temperature abused
c.Only grows in raw meat
d.Cannot survive in cooked food

Bacillus cereus forms heat-resistant spores that survive cooking; if cooked rice or pasta is left in the danger zone, the bacteria grow and produce toxins that reheating may not destroy. This is why cooked rice must be cooled quickly or held at safe temperatures. It is not limited to raw meat and can survive in cooked food.

26. Listeria monocytogenes is especially dangerous because, unlike most bacteria, it:
a.Cannot survive in ready-to-eat foods
b.Is killed by refrigeration
c.Grows at refrigeration temperatures and threatens pregnant women
d.Only grows above 135°F

Listeria monocytogenes can grow at cold refrigeration temperatures and is dangerous to pregnant women, causing miscarriage, as well as to elderly and immunocompromised people. It is often found in deli meats, soft cheeses, and smoked seafood. Refrigeration slows most bacteria but not Listeria, so date-marking and discarding old ready-to-eat foods matter.

27. A deli makes chicken salad on Monday and holds it cold at 41°F. Under the Food Code, ready-to-eat TCS food held cold must be date-marked and used within how many days, counting the day of preparation as day 1?
a.3 days
b.10 days
c.5 days total, discard on day 6 (day of prep is day 0)
d.7 days

Ready-to-eat TCS food held at 41°F or below may be kept for a maximum of 7 days, with the day of preparation counted as day 1. After 7 days the food must be discarded because Listeria and other pathogens can slowly grow even under refrigeration. Shorter counts are not required by the Code, and the 5-day framing here misstates the counting rule.

FDA Food Code §3-501.17
28. When using time as a public health control instead of temperature, cold TCS food removed from refrigeration may be held without temperature control for a maximum of how long before it must be used or discarded?
a.6 hours, if it starts at 41°F and never exceeds 70°F
b.12 hours regardless of temperature
c.24 hours if covered
d.2 hours only

Under time as a public health control, cold TCS food may be held up to 6 hours if it begins at 41°F or below and does not exceed 70°F, after which it must be discarded. Alternatively, food may be held up to 4 hours with no temperature limit. The item must be labeled with the discard time; 12 or 24 hours is far too long.

FDA Food Code §3-501.19
29. A cook has been diagnosed with a Norovirus infection. Under the Food Code, the manager must:
a.Let the cook work if they wear gloves
b.Exclude the cook from the establishment until cleared per the Code
c.Reassign the cook to dishwashing only
d.Allow the cook to work but avoid touching food

An employee diagnosed with Norovirus (one of the Big 6) must be excluded from the food establishment and can only return when cleared according to the Food Code, typically after being symptom-free for at least 24 to 48 hours and with regulatory approval. Gloves, reassignment, or simply avoiding food contact are not sufficient for a Big 6 diagnosis.

FDA Food Code §2-201.12
30. Which set of symptoms requires a food handler to be excluded or restricted and reported to the manager?
a.Mild headache and tiredness
b.Dry skin and a stuffy nose
c.Vomiting, diarrhea, jaundice, sore throat with fever, or an infected wound
d.A minor paper cut on a covered finger

Food handlers must report to the manager and be restricted or excluded when they have vomiting, diarrhea, jaundice, a sore throat with fever, or an infected open wound, as these signal pathogens that can contaminate food. Headache, tiredness, dry skin, or a properly bandaged minor cut do not by themselves require exclusion.

FDA Food Code §2-201.11
31. A food handler at a seafood counter must understand that paralytic shellfish poisoning (PSP) toxins in mollusks like clams and mussels:
a.Are destroyed by cooking to 145°F
b.Only affect the person if eaten raw
c.Cause an immediate skin rash only
d.Are not destroyed by cooking or freezing, so shellfish must come from approved sources

Shellfish toxins such as those causing paralytic shellfish poisoning are naturally occurring, heat-stable, and not destroyed by cooking or freezing, so the only control is buying shellfish from approved, reputable suppliers with proper tags. Cooking to 145°F will not neutralize the toxin, and PSP causes neurological symptoms, not just a rash.

32. A cook prepares a large beef roast. What is the acceptable minimum internal temperature and hold time for a whole-muscle roast cooked in an oven (using an approved time-temperature combination)?
a.145°F for 4 minutes (or an approved lower-temp/longer-time combination)
b.165°F for 15 seconds
c.155°F for 17 seconds
d.135°F for 4 minutes

Whole-muscle roasts may be cooked to 145°F held for 4 minutes, or to an approved lower temperature held for a longer time, because the interior of an intact roast has few surface bacteria. Poultry needs 165°F and ground meat 155°F, while 135°F is only a holding temperature, not a safe cook temperature for roasts.

FDA Food Code §3-401.11
33. An intoxication (like Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning) differs from an infection because:
a.It requires the bacteria to keep multiplying in the body
b.The illness is caused by a toxin already present in the food, so symptoms come on quickly
c.It is only caused by viruses
d.It cannot be prevented by good hygiene

In an intoxication, the person eats a toxin already produced in the food (for example by Staphylococcus aureus, often introduced by bare-hand contact), so symptoms appear quickly, sometimes within hours. An infection requires living pathogens to multiply in the body, with a slower onset. Good hygiene, especially handwashing and no bare-hand contact, helps prevent Staph intoxication.

34. Staphylococcus aureus is commonly carried by humans and transferred to food through:
a.Undercooking vegetables
b.Freezing meat too slowly
c.Bare-hand contact by carriers who touch ready-to-eat food
d.Using too much vinegar

Staphylococcus aureus lives in the nose, mouth, skin, and infected cuts of many healthy people and is transferred to ready-to-eat food by bare-hand contact; the toxin it forms is heat-stable and not destroyed by cooking. Controls include handwashing, no bare-hand contact with ready-to-eat food, and keeping food out of the danger zone. Freezing, acidity, or undercooking vegetables are not the transfer routes.

35. A guest at a hospital cafeteria is immunocompromised. Which menu item should a manager avoid serving this high-risk guest?
a.A well-cooked chicken breast at 165°F
b.Pasteurized orange juice
c.Hot vegetable soup held at 140°F
d.Raw oysters on the half shell

Highly susceptible guests such as immunocompromised patients should not be served raw or undercooked animal foods like raw oysters, because their weakened immune systems cannot fight pathogens such as Vibrio or Norovirus. Fully cooked chicken, pasteurized juice, and properly hot-held soup are safe choices.

36. A brunch cook prepares scrambled eggs that will be hot-held on a buffet, rather than cooked to order. What minimum internal temperature applies to eggs that will be hot-held?
a.155°F for 17 seconds
b.145°F for 15 seconds
c.135°F for 15 seconds
d.165°F for 1 second

Shell eggs that are pooled or will be hot-held (not cooked to order for immediate service) must reach 155°F for 17 seconds, the same as ground meat, because pooling and holding increase risk. Eggs cooked to order for immediate service only need 145°F. 135°F is a holding temperature, not a cooking temperature.

FDA Food Code §3-401.11
37. A restaurant cooks food in a microwave oven. When cooking raw animal foods in a microwave, the food must be heated to a minimum internal temperature of:
a.145°F
b.165°F
c.135°F
d.155°F

Raw animal foods cooked in a microwave must reach 165°F, and the food should be rotated or stirred, covered, and allowed to stand for 2 minutes after cooking to even out cold spots. Microwaves heat unevenly, so the higher 165°F standard and the standing time add a safety margin. Lower temperatures like 145°F or 155°F apply to conventional cooking of certain foods, not microwaving raw animal foods.

FDA Food Code §3-401.11
38. A cook wants to know which pathogen has the smallest infectious dose, meaning even a tiny amount can make someone sick. Which of these is known for a very low infectious dose?
a.Clostridium perfringens
b.Bacillus cereus
c.Shiga toxin-producing E. coli and Shigella
d.Staphylococcus aureus

STEC and Shigella are notable for very low infectious doses, so even slight contamination of ready-to-eat food can cause serious illness, which is why handwashing and no bare-hand contact are critical. Clostridium perfringens and Bacillus cereus generally require larger numbers to cause illness, and Staph illness depends on toxin buildup from time-temperature abuse.

39. Cyclospora and Giardia are examples of which type of foodborne biological hazard?
a.Bacteria
b.Viruses
c.Fungi
d.Parasites

Cyclospora and Giardia are parasites, often spread through contaminated water or fresh produce irrigated or washed with contaminated water. Buying from approved suppliers and using safe water are key controls. Bacteria, viruses, and fungi are separate categories of biological hazards.

40. A manager suspects a foodborne illness outbreak after several customers report similar symptoms from the same meal. What should the manager do first?
a.Gather information, set aside the suspect food, and contact the local regulatory authority
b.Immediately throw away all evidence of the food
c.Ignore it unless a doctor calls
d.Tell staff to say nothing to anyone

When an outbreak is suspected, the manager should gather information from affected guests, isolate and label the suspect food so it is not thrown out or served, and contact the local health department. Discarding the evidence, ignoring reports, or hiding information would hinder the investigation and endanger more customers.

Last reviewed: · editorial process

PrepPass Editorial Team · Verified against FDA Food Code 2022 · How we review

What's on the ServSafe Food Protection Manager Certification Exam?

The ServSafe Food Protection Manager Certification Exam is administered by the National Restaurant Association (ANAB-CFP accredited, proctored via Pearson VUE). Topic weights below come directly from the official exam blueprint — focus your study on the highest-weighted areas first.

Exam length
90 multiple-choice questions (80 scored + 10 pilot); 2-hour limit
Passing score
70%

Topic blueprint

  • 15%
    Foodborne Illness
  • 15%
    Preparation & Cooking
  • 13%
    Personal Hygiene
  • 13%
    Holding & Service
  • 12%
    Contamination & Allergens
  • 12%
    Receiving & Storage
  • 10%
    Management & HACCP
  • 10%
    Facilities, Cleaning & Pests

How hard is the exam?

Moderate. The ServSafe Food Protection Manager exam is 90 multiple-choice questions (80 scored), 2 hours, 70% to pass (at least 56 of 80). It is proctored and closed-book — harder than a food-handler card because it tests manager-level judgment on the FDA Food Code, not just basics.

Recommended study hours
8-20 hours over 1-3 weeks (most candidates), plus a review of the FDA Food Code temperatures
First-attempt pass rate
Roughly 70-75% first-attempt pass rate (industry estimate; NRA does not publish an official rate). Most who fail miss time-temperature and HACCP questions.
Where to focus first
Time-Temperature Control (cooking, cooling, holding) and Foodborne Illness (the Big 6 pathogens) — together the largest share of the exam.

Frequently asked questions

How many ServSafe Manager practice questions are here?+

320 original practice questions across all 8 exam domains — foodborne illness, contamination & allergens, personal hygiene, receiving & storage, preparation & cooking, holding & service, management & HACCP, and facilities, cleaning & pests. In English and Español, with an FDA Food Code citation on every answer.

Is this ServSafe Manager practice test free?+

Yes — completely free, no signup. Unlimited rounds, a full 90-question timed mock exam, and explanations all included. The official ServSafe exam itself (about $99, up to ~$179 with the course) is separate; PrepPass is a free study aid, not the certification.

Are these real ServSafe exam questions?+

No. All 320 questions are original prose written from the public-domain FDA Food Code 2022. We never copy from ServSafe, the National Restaurant Association, or any exam provider.

How many questions is the real ServSafe Manager exam and what's the passing score?+

90 multiple-choice questions (80 scored + 10 unscored pilot), 2-hour limit, and 70% to pass — at least 56 of the 80 scored questions correct. It is proctored and closed-book.

How long is the ServSafe Manager certification valid?+

5 years in most jurisdictions (some recognize 3 years). ServSafe Manager is ANAB-CFP accredited and satisfies the Certified Food Protection Manager (CFPM) requirement in nearly every US state and county.

What languages is the ServSafe Manager exam available in?+

The official exam is offered in English, Spanish, French Canadian, and Simplified Chinese. PrepPass practice is available in English and Español, with more languages coming.

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