AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) Practice Test
Frequently asked questions
How many AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) practice questions are here?+
A full bank of original AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) practice questions across the official content areas, weighted like the real exam, with explanations. Free, no signup.
What is the AAPC Certified Professional Coder (CPC) exam like?+
About 100 questions, 240 minutes, and you need 70% to pass. Practice by topic here, then take the full timed mock exam to gauge readiness.
Are these the real exam questions?+
No. Every question is 100% original, written from public primary sources with explanations. We never copy real exam questions or paid prep material.
Can I study in Chinese or Spanish?+
PrepPass practice is in English, 中文 and Español. The official exam is in English — switch the question language to English any time to rehearse the exact terminology you'll see on test day.
Sample practice questions
A few real questions from this free bank, with full explanations. Use the practice tool above for the whole set.
- 1. Surgery & Anatomy (CPT 10000-60000)
The same surgeon performs several distinct surgical procedures through separate incisions during one operative session. Which modifier identifies the second and subsequent procedures so the payer can apply the multiple-procedure fee reduction?
- a.Modifier -51 (Multiple procedures)
- b.Modifier -50 (Bilateral procedure)
- c.Modifier -59 (Distinct procedural service)
- d.Modifier -22 (Increased procedural services)
Answer: a
Explanation: Modifier -51 tells the payer that more than one procedure was performed in the same session by the same provider, so payment ranking (100% for the highest-valued, reduced for the rest) can be applied. -50 is only for mirror-image bilateral procedures, -59 unbundles services that are normally packaged together, and -22 signals substantially greater work than usual. Do not confuse the multiple-procedure concept (-51) with unbundling (-59).
- 2. Surgery & Anatomy (CPT 10000-60000)
A CPT surgical code carries the parenthetical designation '(separate procedure).' What does this tell the coder?
- a.The procedure is always billed separately in addition to any other service
- b.It is bundled when performed as an integral part of a larger procedure, but may be reported when it is the only service or is unrelated/distinct
- c.It always requires modifier -50
- d.It is never reimbursable under any circumstance
Answer: b
Explanation: 'Separate procedure' means the service is considered an inherent component of a more comprehensive procedure and is not billed when performed at the same site/session as that larger procedure. It becomes reportable only when performed alone or on a different site/session — often supported by modifier -59 or an appropriate X{EPSU} modifier.
- 3. E/M Services
Under the current (2021 and later) office/outpatient E/M guidelines, how is the level of service selected?
- a.By counting history bullets and examination elements
- b.By either the total time spent on the date of the encounter OR the level of medical decision making (MDM)
- c.By the number of organ systems reviewed in the ROS
- d.By the severity of the chief complaint alone
Answer: b
Explanation: The 2021 overhaul removed history and exam as the drivers of office/outpatient visit level. Coders now choose based on MDM or on total time on the date of service (face-to-face plus non-face-to-face work by the physician/QHP). History and exam are still documented for clinical care but no longer determine the code.
- 4. E/M Services
When is modifier -25 correctly appended to an E/M service?
- a.When a significant, separately identifiable E/M is performed by the same provider on the same day as a minor procedure or other service with a global period
- b.When the E/M is the only service billed that day
- c.When a physician requests a consultation from a specialist
- d.When reporting a preventive medicine (wellness) visit
Answer: a
Explanation: Modifier -25 unbundles an E/M that stands on its own from a same-day procedure that carries its own inherent pre/post work. The E/M must be above and beyond the usual work associated with the procedure and supported by separate documentation. It is never used simply to get an office visit paid when no other service was performed.
- 5. Anesthesia
The anesthesia physical status modifier P3 describes which patient?
- a.A normal, healthy patient
- b.A patient with mild systemic disease
- c.A patient with severe systemic disease
- d.A moribund patient not expected to survive without the operation
Answer: c
Explanation: Physical status modifiers P1-P6 grade the patient's condition: P1 normal healthy, P2 mild systemic disease, P3 severe systemic disease, P4 severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life, P5 moribund, P6 brain-dead organ donor. P3, P4, and P5 typically add modifying units because they reflect increased anesthesia risk and complexity.
- 6. Radiology
A CPT code describes a 'complete' ultrasound of the abdomen. What must the documentation support to use the complete study code rather than a limited study?
- a.Imaging of a single organ of interest
- b.Evaluation and documentation of all required elements for that complete exam (for the complete abdomen: liver, gallbladder, common bile duct, pancreas, spleen, kidneys, and the upper abdominal aorta and inferior vena cava)
- c.Only the kidneys, because they are the largest structures imaged
- d.Only the clinical indication for the study
Answer: b
Explanation: 'Complete' ultrasound codes require that every anatomic element listed in the CPT guidelines be examined and documented. If the study images fewer than all required structures, or targets a single organ/quadrant, it is a 'limited' study. Coding a complete exam without the full documented survey is an overcode.
- 7. Pathology & Laboratory
When may an organ- or disease-oriented laboratory panel (for example, a basic metabolic panel) be reported with its panel code?
- a.When at least one component test in the panel is performed
- b.Only when every component test listed in that panel is performed
- c.Whenever the physician orders it by name, regardless of which tests are run
- d.When any two of the component tests are performed
Answer: b
Explanation: Panels are all-or-nothing: the panel code may be reported only if ALL of its defined component tests are performed. If only some components are done, you report the individual test codes instead. Reporting a panel when a component was not performed is unbundling in reverse and is inaccurate coding.
- 8. Pathology & Laboratory
A clinician orders serial potassium levels drawn several hours apart on the same date to monitor a patient. Which modifier is appended to the repeat laboratory tests?
- a.Modifier -91 (repeat clinical diagnostic laboratory test)
- b.Modifier -76 (repeat procedure by the same physician)
- c.Modifier -59 (distinct procedural service)
- d.Modifier -26 (professional component)
Answer: a
Explanation: Modifier -91 is specific to laboratory tests intentionally repeated on the same day to obtain successive (serial) results — a medically necessary trend, not a re-run of a bad specimen. -76 applies to repeated procedures/services (e.g., imaging), not to clinical lab. Using -91 correctly distinguishes legitimate serial testing from duplicate billing.
- 9. Medicine
A psychiatrist provides both a medical E/M service and psychotherapy to the same patient during one encounter. How is this reported?
- a.Report the E/M based on MDM and the psychotherapy add-on based on its own separately documented time, with the two work efforts kept distinct
- b.Report a single combined code that covers both
- c.Report only the E/M service and disregard the psychotherapy
- d.Append modifier -50 to the psychotherapy code
Answer: a
Explanation: Psychotherapy add-on codes are used with an E/M when both services are provided. The E/M is leveled by MDM (time cannot be used because the psychotherapy time is carved out), and the psychotherapy is chosen by its own documented time. The clinician must be able to separate the medical and therapy work in the note.
- 10. Medical Terminology, ICD-10-CM, HCPCS, Compliance
In ICD-10-CM inpatient coding, the principal diagnosis is defined as:
- a.The condition established after study to be chiefly responsible for occasioning the admission
- b.Any chronic condition the patient carries
- c.Whichever diagnosis is easiest to assign a code to
- d.The comorbidity with the highest severity of illness
Answer: a
Explanation: The principal diagnosis is the condition determined, after study, to be chiefly responsible for the admission. In the outpatient setting the parallel concept is the 'first-listed' diagnosis — the reason chiefly responsible for the visit. Accurate sequencing drives reimbursement and data integrity, so this definition is foundational to ICD-10-CM.