CSLB General Building (B) Trade Practice Test
Frequently asked questions
How many PTCB Pharmacy Technician (PTCE) practice questions are here?+
A full bank of original PTCB Pharmacy Technician (PTCE) practice questions across the official content areas, weighted like the real exam, with explanations. Free, no signup.
What is the PTCB Pharmacy Technician (PTCE) exam like?+
About 90 questions, 110 minutes. Practice by topic here, then take the full timed mock exam to gauge readiness.
Are these the real exam questions?+
No. Every question is 100% original, written from public primary sources with explanations. We never copy real exam questions or paid prep material.
Can I study in Chinese or Spanish?+
PrepPass practice is in English, 中文 and Español. The official exam is in English — switch the question language to English any time to rehearse the exact terminology you'll see on test day.
Sample practice questions
A few real questions from this free bank, with full explanations. Use the practice tool above for the whole set.
- 1. Medications
Which brand name corresponds to the generic drug atorvastatin?
- a.Zocor
- b.Crestor
- c.Lipitor
- d.Pravachol
Answer: c
Explanation: Atorvastatin is marketed under the brand name Lipitor. Zocor is simvastatin, Crestor is rosuvastatin, and Pravachol is pravastatin; all four are statins, which is why the names are easily confused.
- 2. Medications
Alprazolam (Xanax) is a benzodiazepine. Under federal law, benzodiazepines such as alprazolam are placed in which DEA schedule?
- a.Schedule II
- b.Schedule IV
- c.Schedule III
- d.Schedule V
Answer: b
Explanation: Benzodiazepines, including alprazolam, are Schedule IV controlled substances. Schedule II includes drugs such as oxycodone and amphetamine, Schedule III includes products such as ketamine and some anabolic steroids, and Schedule V includes low-dose codeine cough preparations.
Source: 21 CFR 1308 (DEA schedules)
- 3. Medications
A patient is discharged after coronary stent placement with a prescription for clopidogrel (Plavix). What is the purpose of this medication?
- a.To lower LDL cholesterol
- b.To control blood glucose
- c.To lower heart rate and blood pressure
- d.To inhibit platelet aggregation and prevent clot formation
Answer: d
Explanation: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet agent that blocks the P2Y12 ADP receptor, reducing the risk of stent thrombosis, myocardial infarction, and stroke. LDL lowering is the role of statins, glucose control belongs to antidiabetic agents, and heart rate and blood pressure reduction is the role of beta blockers.
- 4. Medications
How should unopened vials of insulin glargine be stored in the pharmacy?
- a.In the freezer at -10 °C
- b.At room temperature only, discarded after 7 days
- c.In the refrigerator at 2-8 °C, protected from freezing
- d.In a warming cabinet at 30-35 °C
Answer: c
Explanation: Unopened insulin is stored in the refrigerator at 2-8 °C, where it remains stable until the manufacturer's expiration date. Freezing denatures insulin and makes the vial unusable, and prolonged storage at warm temperatures shortens potency well before the labeled expiration.
- 5. Federal Requirements
Which drug is placed in Schedule II (C-II), the schedule with an accepted medical use but the highest abuse potential of any prescribable controlled substance?
- a.Alprazolam
- b.Hydromorphone
- c.Pregabalin
- d.Ketamine
Answer: b
Explanation: Hydromorphone is a C-II opioid; other common C-II agents include oxycodone, fentanyl, methylphenidate, and amphetamine. Alprazolam is C-IV, pregabalin is C-V, and ketamine is C-III, so all three carry a lower federally assigned abuse potential. Schedule II drugs have accepted medical use but the greatest abuse and dependence risk among drugs that may still be prescribed.
Source: 21 CFR 1308 (DEA schedules)
- 6. Federal Requirements
A technician will compound a chemotherapy agent in a negative-pressure containment room while wearing a chemotherapy-rated gown and two pairs of chemotherapy-rated gloves. Which standard drives these requirements?
- a.USP <800>
- b.USP <795>
- c.USP <797>
- d.Drug Supply Chain Security Act (DSCSA)
Answer: a
Explanation: USP <800> governs the receipt, storage, compounding, and disposal of hazardous drugs in order to protect personnel, patients, and the environment, and it specifies containment engineering controls such as negative pressure rooms plus chemotherapy-rated PPE. Drugs subject to <800> are identified from the NIOSH hazardous drug list. USP <795> and <797> address nonsterile and sterile compounding quality rather than worker exposure, and the DSCSA deals with tracing product through the supply chain.
Source: USP <800>
- 7. Patient Safety & Quality Assurance
An order calls for potassium chloride 20 mEq to be added to 100 mL of diluent. The stock vial is labeled 2 mEq/mL. What volume should be withdrawn?
- a.2 mL
- b.10 mL
- c.20 mL
- d.40 mL
Answer: b
Explanation: 20 mEq divided by 2 mEq/mL equals 10 mL, which is then added to the 100 mL bag. Withdrawing 2 mL or 20 mL would deliver 4 mEq or 40 mEq, and 40 mL would give 80 mEq — four times the order. Concentrated potassium chloride is a high-alert product that must always be diluted before administration and never dispensed as an undiluted vial to a patient care area.
- 8. Patient Safety & Quality Assurance
While entering a prescription for cephalexin, a technician sees a system alert that the patient has a documented penicillin allergy. What is the appropriate action?
- a.Leave the alert unresolved and notify the pharmacist so it can be clinically evaluated
- b.Override the alert, since cephalexin is not a penicillin
- c.Remove the allergy from the profile if the patient says the reaction was mild
- d.Cancel the prescription and tell the patient to contact the prescriber
Answer: a
Explanation: Deciding whether a documented allergy contraindicates a related antibiotic is a clinical judgment reserved for the pharmacist, so the technician's job is to preserve the alert and escalate it. Overriding it, editing the allergy history based on a casual patient comment, or cancelling the prescription outright all substitute the technician's judgment for the pharmacist's and can delay needed therapy.
- 9. Order Entry & Processing
Amoxicillin 250 mg/5 mL oral suspension, sig: 1 teaspoonful by mouth three times daily. One 150 mL bottle is dispensed. What is the day supply?
- a.5 days
- b.7.5 days
- c.10 days
- d.30 days
Answer: c
Explanation: One teaspoonful = 5 mL, and 5 mL x 3 doses = 15 mL per day. 150 mL / 15 mL per day = 10 days. Answering 30 days comes from dividing 150 mL by a single 5 mL dose and forgetting that the patient takes three doses each day.
- 10. Order Entry & Processing
1000 mL is to infuse over 10 hours using an administration set calibrated at 15 gtt/mL. What is the drip rate in gtt/min?
- a.10 gtt/min
- b.15 gtt/min
- c.17 gtt/min
- d.25 gtt/min
Answer: d
Explanation: 1000 mL / 10 hr = 100 mL/hr, and 100 mL/hr / 60 min = 1.67 mL/min. Multiplying by the drop factor: 1.67 mL/min x 15 gtt/mL = 25 gtt/min. Answering 17 gtt/min comes from using a 10 gtt/mL set instead of the 15 gtt/mL set that was specified.