FAA Part 107 Drone (Remote Pilot) — All Questions

A survey site falls inside an area outlined on the sectional with a blue hatched border and labeled R-2508. The chart panel lists the area as active during daylight hours with a using agency shown. What governs the planned Part 107 flight?

• a.The flight is allowed below 400 ft AGL because restricted areas apply only to manned aircraft
• b.The flight may not enter the area unless permission of the controlling or using agency is obtained✓
• c.The flight is allowed as long as the aircraft remains at least 3 NM outside the boundary
• d.The flight is allowed once LAANC authorization for the underlying airspace is approved

Section 107.45 forbids operating a small UAS in a prohibited or restricted area unless the remote pilot has permission from the using or controlling agency, and the R prefix identifies a restricted area. Restricted areas contain hazards such as artillery or guided missiles and apply to unmanned as well as manned aircraft, so low altitude does not exempt the flight. Staying outside the boundary would be legal, but the question places the site inside, and LAANC addresses controlled airspace rather than special use areas.14 CFR §107.45

A remote pilot notices an area on the sectional outlined in blue hatching and labeled with a P prefix followed by a number. Which statement correctly describes how Part 107 treats this airspace?

• a.The area is closed only during the published hours printed in the chart margin panel
• b.The restriction takes effect only above 18,000 ft MSL, so low flights are unaffected
• c.Flight there is prohibited unless the remote pilot has permission from the using agency✓
• d.Transiting the area is allowed while below 400 ft AGL and within visual line of sight

A P prefix identifies a prohibited area established for security or national welfare reasons, and §107.45 bars small UAS operations in prohibited and restricted areas without permission from the using or controlling agency. Prohibited areas extend from the surface upward, so a low altitude or a visual line of sight operation gains no exemption. Unlike some restricted areas and MOAs, prohibited areas are continuously in effect rather than limited to published hours.14 CFR §107.45

A remote pilot is asked to shoot promotional footage outside a college football stadium that seats about 55,000 spectators. Which set of dimensions and times describes the standing sporting event flight restriction?

• a.3 NM radius, surface to 1,000 ft AGL, beginning 30 minutes before the scheduled start
• b.3 NM radius, surface to 3,000 ft AGL, from 1 hour before until 1 hour after the event✓
• c.5 NM radius, surface to 5,000 ft AGL, beginning 2 hours before the scheduled start
• d.1 NM radius, surface to 1,000 ft AGL, in effect only while the game is being played

The standing sporting event restriction covers a 3 NM radius from the center of a stadium seating 30,000 or more people, from the surface to 3,000 ft AGL, starting one hour before the scheduled event time and ending one hour after it ends. Section 107.47 requires remote pilots to comply with these notice-to-airmen flight restrictions. The other choices misstate the radius, the vertical limit, or the effective window, and none of them reflects the published restriction.14 CFR §107.47

A sectional shows a large area outlined with a magenta hatched border and labeled with a name followed by the letters MOA. What does this depiction mean for a Part 107 operation planned inside its lateral boundaries?

• a.The label identifies a Class E surface area that requires an ATC authorization
• b.Flight is not prohibited, but military training may bring fast aircraft into the area✓
• c.Civil aircraft including small UAS are barred from the area whenever it is active
• d.Entry requires an ATC authorization request under §107.41 before the flight begins

A Military Operations Area separates certain nonhazardous military training activities from IFR traffic, and Part 107 does not prohibit small UAS flight inside one, so no §107.41 authorization is triggered by the MOA itself. Because military aircraft may be maneuvering at high speed and low altitude, a remote pilot should check the chart panel for hours of use and stay especially alert. An MOA is special use airspace, not a Class E surface area.

A gray line on a sectional passes near a planned operating site and is labeled VR1207. What should a remote pilot understand from this label?

• a.It is a VFR military training route whose four-digit number means segments at or below 1,500 ft AGL✓
• b.It is a published Victor airway used by civil aircraft navigating between VOR stations
• c.It is an instrument route flown exclusively in instrument meteorological conditions
• d.It is a visual route used only by aircraft operating above 18,000 ft MSL

VR identifies a VFR military training route, and a four-digit identifier means the route has no segment above 1,500 ft AGL, which places fast military traffic squarely in the altitude band used by small UAS. A three-digit or shorter number would indicate one or more segments above 1,500 ft AGL. IR routes are the instrument version of the same program, and Victor airways are drawn as blue-tinted corridors labeled with a V and a number.

A news crew wants footage of a brush fire. A temporary flight restriction is in effect over the fire area with a 5 NM radius from the surface to 5,000 ft AGL for firefighting aircraft. The remote pilot proposes flying at 200 ft AGL inside the ring. Is the flight permitted?

• a.Yes, because 200 ft AGL keeps the aircraft well beneath the firefighting airplanes
• b.Yes, provided the operation is coordinated with the local fire department in advance
• c.No, because no operation may take place inside the TFR unless the notice authorizes it✓
• d.Yes, if the remote pilot holds a current waiver of the altitude limit in §107.51

Section 107.47 requires remote pilots to comply with temporary flight restrictions, so no small UAS may operate inside the described ring unless the notice to air missions itself authorizes that operation. A firefighting TFR starts at the surface, so a low altitude places the aircraft squarely inside the restricted volume rather than beneath it. Local agency permission and a §107.51 altitude waiver are unrelated to TFR compliance, and drones near wildfires routinely ground aerial firefighting.14 CFR §107.47

A client asks a remote pilot to photograph a rooftop located roughly 10 NM from Reagan National Airport, well inside the innermost ring of the Washington DC Special Flight Rules Area. What is the correct assessment?

• a.The flight is allowed if the remote pilot obtains a waiver of the daylight rule in §107.29
• b.The restriction covers only aircraft weighing more than 55 lb, so the flight may proceed
• c.The site lies in the Flight Restricted Zone, where UAS flight is banned without specific authorization✓
• d.The flight is allowed under 400 ft AGL once LAANC issues an automated authorization

The inner roughly 15 NM ring of the Washington DC Special Flight Rules Area is the Flight Restricted Zone, and unmanned aircraft may not fly there without specific FAA and security agency authorization, which is rarely granted. LAANC does not process requests inside the FRZ, so an automated approval is not available. A §107.29 waiver concerns night operations and has nothing to do with national security restrictions, and the FRZ applies regardless of aircraft weight.

Before a commercial mapping flight, a remote pilot must confirm that no temporary flight restriction or airspace closure affects the operating area. Which source should be consulted for this information?

• a.The airport data block and Chart Supplement entry for the nearest airport
• b.The legend printed in the margin of the current sectional aeronautical chart
• c.The UAS Facility Map grid values published for the surrounding airspace
• d.Current notices to air missions obtained through official FAA notice sources✓

Temporary flight restrictions, airspace closures, and other short-notice changes are distributed as notices to air missions, so the remote pilot must check current FAA notice sources before every flight. A sectional legend explains chart symbols and a Chart Supplement entry lists permanent field data, but neither reflects a restriction issued yesterday. UAS Facility Maps show pre-approved altitude ceilings for LAANC and do not publish temporary restrictions.

On a sectional chart a horizontal line is labeled 47 degrees 00 minutes N, and tick marks along the adjacent meridian each represent 1 minute of latitude. An airport symbol sits four tick marks north of that labeled line. What is the airport's latitude?

• a.47 degrees 40 minutes N, because four ticks represent ten minutes each
• b.47 degrees 00 minutes N, since the airport sits on the labeled parallel itself
• c.46 degrees 56 minutes N, four minutes south of the labeled parallel of latitude
• d.47 degrees 04 minutes N, four minutes north of the labeled parallel of latitude✓

Each tick mark along a meridian equals one minute of latitude, so counting four ticks north of the 47 degrees 00 minutes N parallel places the airport at 47 degrees 04 minutes N. Latitude increases toward the north in the Northern Hemisphere, which rules out the value south of the labeled line. Ticks on sectionals are one-minute increments, not ten, and the airport is clearly offset from the labeled parallel.

A remote pilot plans an operation near a non-towered airport whose Chart Supplement entry shows no RP notation for any runway. What traffic pattern should the pilot expect arriving airplanes to fly?

• a.Right-hand turns, with arriving airplanes joining directly on a straight-in final
• b.Right-hand turns, with arriving airplanes joining the downwind leg at a 45 degree angle
• c.Left-hand turns, with arriving airplanes joining the base leg at a 90 degree angle
• d.Left-hand turns, with arriving airplanes joining the downwind leg at a 45 degree angle✓

The standard traffic pattern uses left-hand turns, and the recommended entry is a 45 degree intercept to the downwind leg at pattern altitude. An RP notation, meaning right pattern, is published only where terrain or noise abatement requires right-hand turns, and none appears here. Knowing where arriving airplanes will be helps the remote pilot avoid interfering with airport operations and remain ready to yield the right of way.

A METAR reads: KRDU 141753Z 21014G24KT 10SM FEW040 26/17 A3002. How should you interpret the wind group?

• a.From 210 degrees true at 14 knots, with gusts to 24 knots✓
• b.From 240 degrees true at 21 knots, with gusts to 14 knots
• c.From 140 degrees true at 21 knots, with gusts to 24 knots
• d.From 210 degrees magnetic at 24 knots, with lulls to 14 knots

In a METAR wind group the first three digits are the direction the wind is blowing from, the next two are the sustained speed, and the digits after the G are the peak gust, so 21014G24KT is 210 degrees at 14 knots gusting 24 knots. METAR and TAF wind directions are referenced to true north, not magnetic north, which rules out the magnetic option. The other choices scramble the direction and speed digits or reverse the gust value, which is always higher than the sustained speed.

A METAR reads: KBOI 091853Z 30008KT 5SM HZ SCT007 BKN013 OVC025 19/12 A2988. What is the reported ceiling?

• a.700 ft AGL, because SCT007 is the lowest reported layer
• b.2,500 ft AGL, because OVC025 is the only solid overcast layer
• c.1,900 ft AGL, the average height of the three reported layers
• d.1,300 ft AGL, because BKN013 is the lowest broken or overcast layer✓

Ceiling is defined as the height above ground of the lowest layer reported as broken or overcast, so BKN013 gives a 1,300 ft AGL ceiling. Cloud heights in a METAR are given in hundreds of feet above the reporting station, so 013 means 1,300 ft. Scattered layers such as SCT007 are not ceilings, the overcast at 2,500 ft is above the broken layer, and averaging the layers is not a recognized method.

A METAR reads: KMEM 231553Z 09006KT 2SM BR OVC004 08/08 A3010. What do the elements 2SM BR tell you?

• a.Visibility of 2 statute miles restricted by mist✓
• b.A 2,000 ft ceiling with a broken layer above it
• c.Visibility of 2 nautical miles restricted by drizzle
• d.Visibility of 2 statute miles restricted by blowing rain

Surface visibility in a US METAR is always given in statute miles, and BR is the code for mist, so 2SM BR means 2 SM visibility in mist. The temperature and dew point of 08/08 show a zero-degree spread, which is exactly why the air is saturated and mist plus a 400 ft overcast are present. BR is not blowing rain, visibility is never reported in nautical miles, and cloud amounts are reported separately in the OVC004 group.

A TAF reads: KOKC 121120Z 1212/1318 14008KT P6SM SCT030 FM121800 18015G25KT 4SM -RA BKN015. What does the FM121800 group forecast?

• a.The end of the valid forecast period at 1800Z on the 12th
• b.A rapid change at 1800Z to 18015G25KT, 4SM in light rain, BKN015✓
• c.That 14008KT and more than 6 SM visibility will persist all day
• d.Conditions expected only briefly, for less than one hour after 1800Z

FM means "from" and marks a rapid, sustained change that begins at the stated day and time, so from 1800Z on the 12th the forecast is wind 180 degrees at 15 knots gusting 25, 4 SM visibility in light rain, and a broken layer at 1,500 ft. Brief, temporary fluctuations would be coded TEMPO, and a gradual transition would be BECMG. The validity period 1212/1318 runs from 1200Z on the 12th to 1800Z on the 13th, so 1800Z on the 12th is not the end of the forecast, and the earlier conditions do not persist.

The airport nearest your job site reports OVC012. What is the highest altitude you may operate your small UAS under Part 107?

• a.700 ft AGL, since staying 500 ft below the 1,200 ft ceiling is the only limit
• b.1,200 ft AGL, since you may operate right up to the reported cloud base
• c.200 ft AGL, since you must remain 1,000 ft below any overcast layer
• d.400 ft AGL, since 500 ft below the clouds allows 700 ft but 400 ft still applies✓

OVC012 is an overcast base at 1,200 ft AGL, and the required 500 ft of clearance below clouds would permit 700 ft AGL, but Part 107 separately caps routine operations at 400 ft AGL, so 400 ft is the controlling limit. When two rules apply, the more restrictive one governs. Flying at 700 ft would bust the altitude limit, flying at the cloud base violates cloud clearance, and there is no 1,000 ft below-cloud requirement for Part 107.14 CFR §107.51

What is the minimum flight visibility, as observed from the control station, required for small UAS operations under Part 107?

• a.3 nautical miles
• b.5 statute miles
• c.3 statute miles✓
• d.1 statute mile

Part 107 requires a minimum flight visibility of 3 statute miles measured from the location of the control station, which is what lets the remote pilot see and avoid other aircraft and obstacles. One statute mile is the special VFR figure used by manned aircraft, not the Part 107 minimum. Five statute miles applies to certain manned operations in Class E above 10,000 ft, and Part 107 visibility is stated in statute miles rather than nautical miles.14 CFR §107.51

You are flying at 300 ft AGL with 4 SM flight visibility, and a cloud bank sits about 1,200 ft horizontally from your aircraft. Is this operation legal?

• a.Yes, because 4 SM already exceeds the 3 SM visibility minimum
• b.No, because flight visibility must be at least 5 SM when near clouds
• c.No, because you must remain at least 2,000 ft horizontally from clouds✓
• d.Yes, because 300 ft AGL keeps the aircraft below the 400 ft limit

Part 107 requires the small UAS to stay at least 500 ft below and 2,000 ft horizontally away from clouds, so a cloud only 1,200 ft laterally makes the flight illegal even though visibility and altitude are fine. Meeting one requirement does not excuse violating another, so the two "yes" answers fail. The visibility minimum is 3 SM, not 5 SM, so the 4 SM reported here is legal and is not the reason the operation must stop.14 CFR §107.51

Which combination of conditions produces the highest density altitude at a given airport?

• a.Low field elevation, low temperature, and low humidity
• b.High field elevation, low temperature, and low humidity
• c.High field elevation, high temperature, and high humidity✓
• d.Low field elevation, high temperature, and high pressure

Density altitude rises whenever the air becomes less dense, and heat, moisture, high elevation, and low pressure all thin the air, so a hot, humid day at a high-elevation site gives the highest density altitude. Water vapor is lighter than dry air, so high humidity lowers density rather than raising it. Cold air and high pressure both increase density, which lowers density altitude, so the remaining combinations all produce better performance.

You launch a multirotor from a 6,500 ft mountain site on a 95 °F afternoon. What performance change should you expect?

• a.Propeller efficiency improves because thin air offers less resistance
• b.Lift increases because the warm air rising around the aircraft helps it climb
• c.Propellers produce less thrust, reducing climb rate and shortening flight time✓
• d.Battery voltage rises in thin air, giving noticeably longer endurance

High elevation plus high temperature means high density altitude, so the propellers move fewer air molecules per revolution and generate less thrust, which slows the climb, lengthens the takeoff run for fixed-wing UAS, and drains the battery faster for a shorter flight. Thin air does reduce drag slightly, but the loss of thrust dominates, so efficiency drops rather than improves. Density altitude has no effect on battery voltage, and localized warm air does not reliably add lift to a small UAS.

What are the standard atmospheric conditions used as the reference for aircraft performance at sea level?

• a.0 °C (32 °F) and 30.00 inHg
• b.15 °C (59 °F) and 28.92 inHg
• c.15 °C (59 °F) and 29.92 inHg✓
• d.20 °C (68 °F) and 29.92 inHg

The standard atmosphere at sea level is defined as 15 °C, which equals 59 °F, with a pressure of 29.92 inHg, and performance charts are built around that baseline. Density altitude is simply pressure altitude corrected for how far the actual temperature differs from this standard. The other options misstate either the standard temperature or the standard pressure, and a setting of 28.92 inHg would represent a very deep low-pressure system.

Your sUAS has a maximum airspeed of 30 knots. You fly straight out directly into a steady 12-knot wind, then return on the reciprocal course. What are your groundspeeds?

• a.42 knots outbound and 18 knots inbound
• b.30 knots outbound and 30 knots inbound, since wind does not change groundspeed
• c.18 knots outbound and 42 knots inbound✓
• d.12 knots outbound and 30 knots inbound

Groundspeed is airspeed adjusted for wind, so flying into a 12-knot headwind gives 30 minus 12, or 18 knots, and returning with that wind as a tailwind gives 30 plus 12, or 42 knots. This is why the outbound leg eats far more battery per mile and why you should turn back well before the halfway point of your endurance. Wind clearly does affect groundspeed, and the reversed option applies the headwind on the wrong leg.

The surface wind is 18 knots and you must launch from a ramp immediately downwind of a large metal hangar. What should you expect there?

• a.A dependable updraft off the roof that improves your climb performance
• b.A wind gradient that reverses the wind direction above the roofline
• c.Smooth, steady air because the hangar blocks the wind completely
• d.Mechanical turbulence and rolling eddies on the lee side of the hangar✓

Wind flowing over and around a building breaks into rolling eddies and downdrafts on the downwind, or lee, side, and this mechanical turbulence can flip or slam a light sUAS during launch and landing. The stronger the wind and the larger the obstruction, the more violent and further downwind the turbulence extends. An obstruction does not create a wind shadow of truly calm air, and there is no reliable updraft or reversal you could count on for performance.

Which set of conditions is most characteristic of a stable air mass?

• a.Cumuliform clouds, showery precipitation, and excellent visibility
• b.Towering cumulus, gusty surface winds, and rapid temperature drops
• c.Stratiform clouds, steady precipitation, haze, and smooth flying air✓
• d.Clear skies, strong vertical currents, and unrestricted visibility

Stable air resists vertical motion, so moisture and pollutants stay trapped near the surface, producing flat stratiform layers, steady drizzle or rain, haze that cuts visibility, and generally smooth flight conditions. That poor visibility is the main hazard for a remote pilot, since it can quickly drop below the 3 SM minimum. Cumuliform clouds, showers, gusts, and turbulence are all signatures of unstable air, not stable air.

During a morning survey you notice building cumulus clouds, gusty winds, and unusually crisp visibility. What does this suggest?

• a.A surface temperature inversion that will keep the air calm all day
• b.Unstable air, so expect turbulence and possible afternoon showers✓
• c.Stable air, so expect drizzle, smooth flight, and hazy conditions
• d.A stationary front that will hold conditions unchanged for many hours

Cumuliform cloud growth, gusty surface winds, and sharp visibility are the classic signature of unstable air, where rising currents mix out the haze but also create turbulence and can build into showers or thunderstorms later in the day. A remote pilot should plan for rough handling and a shrinking weather window. Drizzle, smooth air, and haze belong to stable conditions, and an inversion actually caps vertical motion and traps haze near the ground.

The surface temperature is 20 °C. Using the standard lapse rate, what temperature would you expect at 3,000 ft AGL?

• a.20 °C
• b.11 °C
• c.17 °C
• d.14 °C✓

The standard lapse rate is a decrease of about 2 °C for every 1,000 ft of altitude gain, so 3,000 ft produces roughly a 6 °C drop and 20 minus 6 leaves about 14 °C. Answering 17 °C applies only 1 °C per 1,000 ft, and 11 °C applies 3 °C per 1,000 ft. Temperature does not stay constant with height unless an inversion is present, which is an exception rather than the standard model.

An evening METAR reports the temperature and dew point as 14/12. What does this small spread tell the remote pilot?

• a.A strong temperature inversion has formed just above the airport
• b.Humidity is high and fog or low clouds are likely as cooling continues✓
• c.The air is very dry, so visibility should improve through the night
• d.The altimeter setting will fall rapidly over the next several hours

A 2 °C spread between temperature and dew point means the air is nearly saturated, and as the surface keeps cooling overnight the temperature can reach the dew point and produce fog or a low cloud deck. That directly threatens the 3 SM visibility and cloud clearance requirements for a dawn flight. A narrow spread indicates moist rather than dry air, and it says nothing by itself about inversions or the trend in the altimeter setting.

After a clear, calm night over damp farmland, a shallow layer of fog appears around sunrise. What type of fog is this?

• a.Advection fog, formed when warm moist air moves over a colder surface
• b.Radiation fog, formed when the ground cools under a clear, calm night sky✓
• c.Steam fog, formed when cold air moves across much warmer open water
• d.Upslope fog, formed when moist air is pushed up gradually rising terrain

Radiation fog forms on clear, nearly calm nights when the ground radiates its heat away, chills the moist air just above it to the dew point, and leaves a shallow ground fog that is usually thickest near sunrise. It typically burns off within a few hours after the sun warms the surface. Advection fog requires horizontal movement of warm moist air over a cold surface, upslope fog requires terrain and wind, and steam fog requires a warm water surface under cold air.

Which thunderstorm stage is the most hazardous, and what defines it?

• a.The cumulus stage, with heavy rain already reaching the surface
• b.The cumulus stage, with continuous downdrafts and a well-developed gust front
• c.The mature stage, with strong updrafts and downdrafts and heavy precipitation✓
• d.The dissipating stage, with the strongest hail, lightning, and wind shear

A thunderstorm is most dangerous in the mature stage, which begins when precipitation reaches the ground and updrafts and downdrafts coexist inside the cell, producing severe turbulence, wind shear, hail, lightning, and a gust front that can race far ahead of the storm. The cumulus stage is dominated by updrafts only, with no rain yet at the surface, and the dissipating stage is dominated by weakening downdrafts. Remote pilots should stay at least 20 NM away from any thunderstorm.

What best describes a microburst?

• a.A gradual change of wind direction with altitude over several thousand feet
• b.A steady sea breeze front that pushes inland during the warmest afternoon hours
• c.An intense localized downdraft causing severe wind shear for about 15 minutes✓
• d.A slow, wide column of rising air that can lift an sUAS above 400 ft AGL

A microburst is a small but extremely strong downdraft that slams into the ground and spreads outward, generating severe wind shear with horizontal winds that can exceed 100 knots, and an individual microburst typically lasts only about 15 minutes. That short life and small size make it hard to see coming, which is exactly why remote pilots avoid the area near any convective cell. It is a downdraft rather than an updraft, and it is far more violent and abrupt than a normal wind gradient or a sea breeze.

On a cold morning you find a thin coat of frost on your aircraft's arms and propeller blades. What is the correct action?

• a.Polish the frost smooth so that airflow stays attached to the blades
• b.Remove all frost before flight, since it disrupts airflow and adds weight✓
• c.Hover briefly at low power and let the rotor wash blow the frost away
• d.Launch as planned, since frost is harmless at the low speeds a UAS flies

Frost roughens the surfaces that generate lift, disrupting smooth airflow over the propeller blades and airframe while also adding weight, which reduces thrust and can prevent a normal takeoff. The only acceptable action is to remove all of it before flight. Polishing frost smooth is specifically not acceptable, low airspeed does not make contamination harmless, and attempting to hover it off means the aircraft is already flying in a degraded condition.

A quadcopter has an empty airframe weight of 6.8 lbs. You plan to fly it with two batteries weighing 1.9 lbs each and a gimbal camera weighing 1.4 lbs. The manufacturer lists a maximum takeoff weight of 13.2 lbs. How much additional payload may you add?

• a.2.6 lbs
• b.0.6 lbs
• c.3.1 lbs
• d.1.2 lbs✓

Count every item that leaves the ground: 6.8 + 1.9 + 1.9 + 1.4 = 12.0 lbs, which leaves 13.2 - 12.0 = 1.2 lbs of margin. The 2.6 lbs answer comes from forgetting the camera, and 3.1 lbs comes from counting only one battery. 0.6 lbs would apply only if the loaded aircraft already weighed 12.6 lbs.

Under Part 107, what does the 55 lb (25 kg) weight limit for a small unmanned aircraft refer to?

• a.The weight of the airframe and motors only, with no batteries installed
• b.The weight of the aircraft measured after the batteries are fully discharged
• c.The weight of the aircraft at takeoff, including everything on board or attached✓
• d.The weight of the aircraft plus the remote pilot's control station gear

The limit applies to the total weight at takeoff, so batteries, cameras, mounts, and any cargo all count. Weighing only the bare airframe, or weighing it with dead batteries, understates the real takeoff weight. Equipment that stays on the ground, such as the control station, is not part of the aircraft's weight.14 CFR §107.3

You bolt a 2 lb sensor onto one arm of a quadcopter instead of mounting it on the centerline. What is the most likely result?

• a.The motors on the loaded side must work harder, reducing stability and endurance✓
• b.The aircraft becomes more stable because the extra mass dampens every input
• c.The aircraft climbs faster because the offset mass adds downward momentum
• d.The flight controller physically shifts the center of gravity back to the center

An off-center payload moves the center of gravity away from the manufacturer's limits, so the motors nearest the load must run at higher power just to hold the aircraft level. That constant correction burns battery faster and leaves less control authority for wind or maneuvering. A flight controller can trim for a small imbalance electronically, but it cannot move mass, and extra weight never improves climb performance or stability.

Your quadcopter normally flies about 24 minutes on a full battery at 70 °F. You are launching on a 25 °F morning, and the manufacturer warns that cold can reduce usable battery capacity by roughly 25%. About how much flight time should you plan for?

• a.About 18 minutes✓
• b.About 21 minutes
• c.About 6 minutes
• d.About 24 minutes

A 25% reduction leaves 75% of the normal endurance: 24 x 0.75 = 18 minutes. The 6-minute answer is the amount lost rather than the amount remaining, and 21 minutes reflects only a 12.5% loss. Planning for the full 24 minutes ignores the cold entirely and invites a low-voltage failsafe far from the landing site.

How does loading a small UAS close to its maximum takeoff weight affect its performance?

• a.It shortens the stopping distance and lowers the minimum controllable speed
• b.It leaves endurance unchanged while improving the rate of climb
• c.It increases endurance and sharpens the response to control inputs
• d.It reduces endurance and slows the rate of climb✓

Extra weight requires more power just to stay airborne, so the battery drains sooner and the aircraft climbs more slowly. Heavier aircraft are also less responsive, need more distance to stop, and, for fixed-wing designs, fly at a higher minimum controllable speed. None of the benefits listed in the other options occur when weight goes up.

You are launching a fully loaded multirotor from a mountain meadow at 7,500 ft MSL on a hot afternoon. How does the high density altitude affect performance?

• a.Battery voltage rises with altitude, which offsets any loss of propeller efficiency
• b.Thrust increases because the thinner air produces less drag on the propellers
• c.The propellers produce less thrust, so climbs are slower and endurance is reduced✓
• d.Performance is unaffected because electric motors do not need air to burn fuel

Propellers generate lift from the air they move, so thin, hot air yields less thrust for the same motor RPM. The aircraft must draw more current to hover, which slows climbs and cuts flight time, and a heavy payload makes this worse. Electric motors do not need air for combustion, but their propellers absolutely do, and altitude does not raise battery voltage.

A fixed-wing sUAS has an empty airframe weight of 38.5 lbs. You install a 9.2 lb battery pack, a 5.4 lb sensor pod, and 1.3 lbs of mounting hardware. May this aircraft be flown under Part 107?

• a.Yes; the takeoff weight of 54.4 lbs is under the 55 lb limit✓
• b.No; the sensor pod must be removed to stay under the 55 lb limit
• c.No; the takeoff weight of 55.4 lbs is over the 55 lb limit
• d.Yes; only the 45.2 lbs without the battery counts toward the limit

Adding every installed item gives 38.5 + 9.2 + 5.4 + 1.3 = 54.4 lbs, which is below the 55 lb ceiling, so the flight is legal with 0.6 lbs to spare. The 55.4 lbs figure is an arithmetic slip, and the battery can never be excluded because it is on board at takeoff. Nothing has to be removed, although the small margin means any added camera or cargo must be re-checked.14 CFR §107.3

During preflight you notice that one of your lithium-polymer battery packs has a slight bulge in its case. What should you do?

• a.Fly one short mission with it, then retire the pack after landing
• b.Use the pack but raise the low-voltage warning to end the flight sooner
• c.Charge the pack to full capacity so the cells reseat before flight
• d.Remove the pack from service and follow the manufacturer's disposal guidance✓

A swollen case indicates internal cell damage, and such a pack can lose power without warning or catch fire, so it must be taken out of service and disposed of as the manufacturer directs. Flying it briefly, charging it, or changing the failsafe setting does nothing to repair the damaged cells. Charging a swollen pack is especially hazardous because it adds energy to a failing cell.

A remote pilot launches a small UAS loaded above the manufacturer's maximum gross weight, and a sudden gust pushes it off the intended path. What should the pilot expect?

• a.The overloaded aircraft has little reserve power, so recovery is slower and harder✓
• b.Recovery is quicker because a heavier aircraft cuts through wind more effectively
• c.The aircraft holds altitude easily because the payload acts as steadying ballast
• d.The flight controller compensates automatically, so handling remains unaffected

At or above maximum gross weight the motors are already near full output just to hold the aircraft up, leaving almost no reserve thrust to arrest a gust-induced deviation. The result is sluggish, incomplete recovery and a real risk of losing control or striking an obstacle. Extra weight does not steady the aircraft, and no flight controller can create thrust that the overloaded powerplant cannot deliver.

Before flying a new payload on a windy day, where should a remote pilot find the aircraft's weight limits and performance data?

• a.In the chart supplement entry for the nearest towered airport
• b.In the figures published in the knowledge test supplement booklet
• c.In the legend printed on the current VFR sectional chart
• d.In the manufacturer's operating limitations and load charts✓

Weight limits, center of gravity range, and endurance data are specific to the model, so the manufacturer's operating limitations and load charts are the authoritative source. Strong wind raises the power needed to hold position, which shrinks the endurance those charts predict, so the pilot should plan conservatively. Chart supplements, sectional legends, and test supplement figures describe airspace and airport information, not the performance of a particular aircraft.

A remote pilot decides to skip the preflight inspection, reasoning, 'This aircraft has flown 200 times without a single problem, so nothing will go wrong today.' Which hazardous attitude is this, and what is its antidote?

• a.Macho — 'Taking chances is foolish.'
• b.Resignation — 'I'm not helpless. I can make a difference.'
• c.Impulsivity — 'Not so fast. Think first.'
• d.Invulnerability — 'It could happen to me.'✓

Believing that trouble only happens to other people is the hazardous attitude of invulnerability, and its standard antidote is 'It could happen to me.' Impulsivity is acting before thinking, which is not the reasoning stated here. Macho is taking risks to prove ability, and resignation is feeling that outcomes are outside your control — neither matches a pilot who assumes the aircraft cannot fail.

Before a rooftop mapping flight, the RPIC holds a short briefing that covers the flight plan, each person's role, the exact phrases the VO will use to call traffic, and the plan if the control link is lost. This practice is the essence of:

• a.Automation management of the flight controller software
• b.Crew resource management (CRM) using all available resources✓
• c.Airspace authorization coordination with ATC
• d.The manufacturer's scheduled maintenance program

CRM is the effective use of every available resource — people, hardware, and information — and a preflight crew briefing that assigns roles and standardizes VO calls is a core CRM technique. Automation management concerns how the pilot supervises the aircraft's automatic modes, not crew coordination. Maintenance programs and airspace authorizations are separate tasks that a briefing may mention but does not define.

In the 3P model of aeronautical decision making (ADM), what does the remote pilot do during the 'Process' step?

• a.Evaluate how the identified hazards affect the safety of the flight✓
• b.Scan the operating area to detect hazards and gather information
• c.Log the flight time and battery cycles after the aircraft lands
• d.Carry out the chosen course of action and review the result

The 3P model is Perceive, Process, Perform: Process is the middle step, where the pilot analyzes the hazards already perceived and judges their effect on the flight. Perceiving is the information-gathering step, and performing is acting on the decision and then re-evaluating. Recording flight time is recordkeeping, not part of the ADM model.

During a long summer survey in direct sun, the visual observer reports a headache, dizziness, and muscle cramps. What is the most likely cause and the best immediate response?

• a.Dehydration and heat stress; rest in shade and drink fluids✓
• b.Normal eye strain; issue polarized sunglasses and keep flying
• c.Night vision loss; wait about 30 minutes for the eyes to adapt
• d.Carbon monoxide exposure; move the control station upwind

Headache, fatigue, dizziness, and cramps during hot outdoor work are classic signs of dehydration and heat stress, and the response is to stop, get out of the sun, and rehydrate. Dark adaptation applies to night vision, not to symptoms in bright sun. Carbon monoxide is a cabin hazard for manned aircraft, and treating the symptoms as ordinary eye strain ignores a condition that degrades the crew's judgment.

An in-flight emergency forces an RPIC to climb above 400 ft AGL to avoid colliding with a low-flying helicopter. Under Part 107, which statement is correct?

• a.The RPIC may deviate as needed and must report in writing if the FAA asks✓
• b.The deviation is prohibited unless a written waiver was obtained first
• c.The RPIC must report the deviation to the local law enforcement agency
• d.The RPIC may deviate only after receiving verbal approval from ATC

Section 107.21 lets the RPIC deviate from most Part 107 rules to the extent necessary to meet an in-flight emergency, and a written report is required only if the Administrator requests one. No advance waiver or ATC clearance is needed, because an emergency by definition cannot wait for paperwork. Local law enforcement is not the reporting authority for a Part 107 deviation.14 CFR §107.21

While inspecting a cell tower, the RPIC loses the control link and the aircraft stops responding to inputs. Which item, known before launch, is most useful for managing this situation?

• a.The end of civil twilight computed for the day of the operation
• b.The programmed lost-link behavior, such as return-to-home, hover, or land✓
• c.The registration number and expiration date shown on the certificate
• d.The maximum takeoff weight published by the aircraft manufacturer

Knowing how the aircraft is programmed to behave when the link drops lets the RPIC predict where it will go and keep people and property clear of that path. Takeoff weight, registration data, and twilight times matter for other Part 107 requirements, but none of them tells the pilot what the aircraft will do after a lost link. Reviewing the failsafe setting is part of a normal preflight.

Which visual technique best helps a remote pilot and VO see the aircraft and other traffic during a night operation?

• a.Sweep the sky with a bright white flashlight every few minutes
• b.Stare steadily at the aircraft's position light without shifting the eyes
• c.Wear dark sunglasses so that nearby ground lighting cannot cause glare
• d.Look slightly off-center of an object and allow about 30 minutes to adapt✓

At night the center of the eye is least sensitive, so off-center (peripheral) viewing plus roughly 30 minutes of dark adaptation gives the best chance of seeing dim objects. Staring at one point causes the image to fade, and a bright flashlight or any white light destroys the adaptation you spent 30 minutes building. Dark sunglasses reduce the light reaching the eye and make night detection worse, not better.

On the morning of a job, an RPIC takes an over-the-counter antihistamine whose label warns that it may cause drowsiness. What does Part 107 require?

• a.Fly only if a visual observer is present to watch the aircraft
• b.Do not act as RPIC while the medication would affect safe operation✓
• c.Fly only during the first 30 minutes after taking the dose, then land
• d.Obtain a medical certificate from an aviation medical examiner first

Section 107.17 prohibits acting as RPIC, VO, or direct participant when you know or have reason to know of a physical or mental condition — including the effects of medication — that would interfere with safe operation. Adding a VO does not cure the pilot's own impairment, and there is no rule that legalizes flying inside a short window after a dose. Part 107 requires no medical certificate at all, so option d states a requirement that does not exist.14 CFR §107.17

Which statement best describes the difference between scheduled and unscheduled maintenance on a small UAS?

• a.Scheduled requires a waiver in advance; unscheduled requires a written accident report
• b.Scheduled applies only to firmware; unscheduled applies only to airframe parts
• c.Scheduled follows the manufacturer's stated interval; unscheduled corrects a discovered problem✓
• d.Scheduled is performed by the FAA; unscheduled is performed by the remote pilot

Scheduled maintenance is done at the intervals the manufacturer publishes, such as replacing propellers or servicing motors after a set number of hours or cycles, while unscheduled maintenance addresses a defect found during an inspection or flight, such as a cracked arm or a swollen battery. Either way the operator should keep records of what was done and when. The FAA does not perform maintenance, and the scheduled/unscheduled split has nothing to do with waivers or with a firmware-versus-hardware division.

Arriving at a city park to fly, the RPIC walks the area and notes overhead power lines, a soccer game in progress, and a hospital heliport two blocks away. This site survey directly supports which required action?

• a.Calibrating the aircraft's compass after every battery change
• b.Completing recurrent training every 24 calendar months
• c.Registering the small unmanned aircraft before its first flight
• d.Assessing the operating area and its local hazards before flight✓

Section 107.49 requires the RPIC to assess the operating area and surrounding conditions, including risks to persons and property, before every flight — exactly what a walk-around site survey accomplishes. Registration and recurrent training are periodic administrative duties, not part of the preflight assessment of a specific site. Compass calibration is a manufacturer procedure and is not tied to changing batteries.14 CFR §107.49