CSLB General Building (B) — All Questions

A remote pilot is hired to photograph damage near the top of a 700-ft radio tower. What is the highest altitude the small unmanned aircraft may legally reach during this inspection?

• a.400 ft AGL, because the 400-ft ceiling has no exceptions
• b.700 ft AGL, matching the exact height of the tower
• c.1,100 ft AGL, as long as the aircraft stays within a 400-ft radius of the tower✓
• d.800 ft AGL, which is twice the standard 400-ft limit

Correct answer: 1,100 ft AGL. Under §107.51 the aircraft may fly higher than 400 ft AGL if it remains within a 400-ft radius of a structure and does not climb more than 400 ft above that structure's uppermost limit, so 700 + 400 = 1,100 ft. The 400-ft-only answer ignores the structure exception, and the 700-ft and 800-ft answers apply the wrong math to the rule.14 CFR §107.51

During a rooftop survey a small unmanned aircraft loses power, falls, and strikes a parked car. Nobody is hurt, but the body shop estimates $900 to repair the vehicle. What must the remote pilot in command do?

• a.File a report with the FAA within 10 calendar days of the accident✓
• b.Take no action, because no person was injured in the event
• c.File a report with the FAA within 24 hours of the accident
• d.Take no action, because damage under $1,000 is exempt

Correct answer: report to the FAA within 10 calendar days. Section 107.9 requires a report when property damage other than to the small unmanned aircraft exceeds $500 to repair or replace, and $900 clears that threshold. Injury is not the only trigger, the deadline is 10 days rather than 24 hours, and the reporting threshold is $500, not $1,000.14 CFR §107.9

What is the minimum flight visibility required for small unmanned aircraft operations under Part 107, and from where is it measured?

• a.1 SM measured from the small unmanned aircraft
• b.3 SM measured from the control station✓
• c.3 SM measured from the nearest weather reporting station
• d.5 SM measured from the control station

Correct answer: 3 statute miles measured from the control station. Section 107.51 sets minimum flight visibility at 3 SM and specifies the control station as the reference point, not the aircraft or an airport observation site. The 1 SM and 5 SM figures come from manned-aircraft airspace rules and do not apply here.14 CFR §107.51

A remote pilot is flying beneath a broken cloud layer whose bases are reported at 900 ft AGL. What is the highest altitude the flight may use and still satisfy the Part 107 cloud clearance requirement?

• a.900 ft AGL, since the aircraft only has to stay out of the clouds
• b.500 ft AGL, because that is half of the reported ceiling
• c.700 ft AGL, leaving 200 ft of vertical separation
• d.400 ft AGL, which keeps the aircraft 500 ft below the bases✓

Correct answer: 400 ft AGL. Section 107.51 requires the small unmanned aircraft to remain at least 500 ft below the clouds and 2,000 ft horizontally from them, so with bases at 900 ft the highest usable altitude is 400 ft AGL, which also happens to match the general ceiling. Simply staying visually clear of the clouds or leaving only 200 ft of separation violates the vertical minimum, and there is no half-the-ceiling rule.14 CFR §107.51

What is the minimum age at which a person may be issued a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating?

• a.16 years old✓
• b.14 years old
• c.17 years old
• d.18 years old

Correct answer: 16 years old. Section 107.61 requires an applicant to be at least 16 years of age, and also to be able to read, speak, write, and understand English. Ages 14, 17, and 18 are minimums associated with other certificates such as student, private, or commercial pilot rules, not Part 107.14 CFR §107.61

A remote pilot passed the initial aeronautical knowledge test in March 2024 and has flown regularly since. To keep exercising the privileges of the certificate, what must this pilot do?

• a.Retake the initial knowledge test at a testing center every 12 months
• b.Complete a flight review with an authorized instructor every 24 months
• c.Complete recurrent training within the previous 24 calendar months✓
• d.Apply for a new remote pilot certificate every 36 calendar months

Correct answer: complete recurrent training within the previous 24 calendar months. Section 107.65 requires currency through recurrent training, which certificated remote pilots may satisfy with the free online FAA course. There is no 12-month retest, no flight review requirement for Part 107, and the certificate itself does not expire on a 36-month cycle.14 CFR §107.65

What is the maximum groundspeed permitted for a small unmanned aircraft operated under Part 107?

• a.70 knots, which equals about 80 mph
• b.87 knots, which equals about 100 mph✓
• c.100 knots, which equals about 115 mph
• d.55 knots, which equals about 63 mph

Correct answer: 87 knots, or about 100 mph. Section 107.51 caps groundspeed at 87 knots (100 mph), and note that the limit is groundspeed, so a tailwind can push a slow-flying aircraft over the limit. The other values are not tied to any Part 107 speed restriction.14 CFR §107.51

A remote pilot finishes two beers at a company lunch at 12:30 p.m. and is asked to fly a mapping mission that afternoon. Assuming the pilot feels completely normal, when is the earliest the pilot may act as remote pilot in command?

• a.Immediately, since Part 107 has no alcohol timing rule
• b.At 2:30 p.m., which is 2 hours after the last drink
• c.At 4:30 p.m., which is 4 hours after the last drink
• d.At 8:30 p.m., which is 8 hours after the last drink✓

Correct answer: 8:30 p.m. Section 107.27 applies the §91.17 alcohol rules to remote pilots, prohibiting operation within 8 hours of consuming alcohol, with a blood alcohol concentration of 0.04 percent or more, or while under the influence. Feeling normal does not shorten the 8-hour window, and 2- or 4-hour intervals do not exist in the regulation.14 CFR §107.27

A client insists that a remote pilot launch immediately even though gusty winds exceed the manufacturer's published limits for the aircraft. Who has the final decision on whether the flight takes place?

• a.The remote pilot in command, who is directly responsible for and has final authority over the operation✓
• b.The client, because the client is paying for the commercial service
• c.The aircraft manufacturer, through the operating limitations in the manual
• d.The visual observer, who has the clearest view of the flight conditions

Correct answer: the remote pilot in command. Section 107.19 makes the RPIC directly responsible for, and the final authority over, the operation of the small unmanned aircraft system. A paying client cannot override that authority, the manufacturer only publishes limits, and the visual observer assists the RPIC but does not command the flight.14 CFR §107.19

A certificated remote pilot brings a trainee to a job site and lets the trainee fly the controls for part of the mission. Which statement describes a legal arrangement?

• a.The trainee must hold at least a student pilot certificate before touching the controls
• b.The trainee may manipulate the controls under the direct supervision of the RPIC, who can immediately take control✓
• c.The trainee may fly alone as long as the RPIC watches from inside a nearby vehicle
• d.The trainee may fly only if a second certificated remote pilot also observes the flight

Correct answer: the trainee may manipulate the controls under the direct supervision of the remote pilot in command, who must have the ability to immediately take direct control. Section 107.12 allows this without the trainee holding any certificate, so a student pilot certificate is not required. Supervising from inside a vehicle without the ability to take over, or adding a second certificated pilot, are not the standards in the rule.14 CFR §107.12

A new 4.2-lb quadcopter will be used for paid real estate photography. Which statement about registration and marking is correct?

• a.Registration is optional because the aircraft weighs less than 5 lbs
• b.The registration number may be kept inside a sealed battery compartment
• c.Registration is required only if the aircraft is flown in controlled airspace
• d.The aircraft must be registered and the registration number must be readable on its exterior surface✓

Correct answer: the aircraft must be registered and marked so the registration number is legible on an exterior surface. Section 107.13 requires a small unmanned aircraft operated under Part 107 to be registered under Part 47 or Part 48, and the marking must be readable without tools or disassembly. Weight below 5 lbs, hiding the number inside a sealed compartment, and airspace class have no bearing on the requirement.14 CFR §107.13

Which of the following describes an acceptable way to comply with the Remote ID rule?

• a.Filing a flight plan with the nearest air traffic control facility before each flight
• b.Placing a printed placard with the registration number on the top of the airframe
• c.Attaching an FAA-accepted broadcast module and flying within visual line of sight✓
• d.Carrying a handheld radio tuned to the local common traffic advisory frequency

Correct answer: attaching an FAA-accepted broadcast module and keeping the aircraft within visual line of sight. Part 89 offers three paths: a standard Remote ID aircraft, a broadcast module with the flight kept within visual line of sight, or operating at an FAA-recognized identification area (FRIA). Flight plans, placards, and radios do not broadcast the required identification and location data.14 CFR Part 89

During an inspection flight the small unmanned aircraft drifts behind a large grain silo and the remote pilot can no longer see it, although the video downlink is still clear. What does Part 107 require?

• a.The pilot must maneuver to regain unaided visual contact, because the video feed does not satisfy the requirement✓
• b.The pilot may continue as long as the live video feed remains uninterrupted
• c.The pilot may continue for up to 3 minutes before regaining sight of the aircraft
• d.The pilot may continue if the aircraft stays below 200 ft AGL while out of sight

Correct answer: the pilot must maneuver to regain unaided visual contact. Section 107.31 requires the remote pilot or visual observer to keep the aircraft in sight throughout flight using vision unaided by any device other than corrective lenses, so a camera feed does not count. There is no grace period of a few minutes and no low-altitude exemption in the rule.14 CFR §107.31

When a visual observer is used during a Part 107 operation, which requirement applies?

• a.The visual observer must hold a remote pilot certificate with a small UAS rating
• b.The RPIC, person manipulating the controls, and visual observer must be able to communicate effectively at all times✓
• c.The visual observer must be positioned at least 500 ft from the control station
• d.The visual observer assumes responsibility for the flight once the aircraft is airborne

Correct answer: the crew must maintain effective communication at all times. Section 107.33 requires the RPIC, any person manipulating the controls, and the visual observer to coordinate and communicate so the aircraft can be seen and hazards avoided. A visual observer needs no certificate, has no minimum separation distance, and never takes over responsibility from the RPIC.14 CFR §107.33

A survey company wants one certificated remote pilot to launch three identical mapping drones and run them simultaneously from a single tablet. Is this permitted under Part 107?

• a.Yes, as long as a visual observer watches each aircraft
• b.Yes, provided all three aircraft stay below 200 ft AGL
• c.No, a person may not operate or act as RPIC for more than one aircraft at a time✓
• d.No, unless each aircraft weighs less than 2 lbs including payload

Correct answer: no, because §107.35 prohibits a person from operating or acting as remote pilot in command for more than one small unmanned aircraft at the same time. Adding visual observers or lowering the altitude does not change this, and there is no small-aircraft weight exception. Swarm or multi-aircraft operations require a waiver.14 CFR §107.35

A remote pilot plans a legal night operation under Part 107. What equipment requirement applies to the small unmanned aircraft?

• a.Position lights that are visible for at least 1 SM
• b.A strobe light that flashes at least 60 times per minute
• c.Landing lights bright enough to illuminate the takeoff area
• d.Lighted anti-collision lighting visible for at least 3 SM✓

Correct answer: anti-collision lighting visible for at least 3 statute miles. Section 107.29 permits night operations without a waiver if the aircraft has anti-collision lighting visible for 3 SM with a flash rate sufficient to avoid a collision, and the remote pilot has completed the updated training or test. Position lights visible for 1 SM, a specific 60-per-minute flash rate, and landing lights are not the standard.14 CFR §107.29

Which small unmanned aircraft would qualify for Category 1 operations over human beings?

• a.A 0.5-lb aircraft including everything on board, with no exposed rotating parts that could lacerate skin✓
• b.A 1.2-lb aircraft that has passed a manufacturer drop test
• c.A 0.5-lb aircraft with exposed propellers but a certified parachute installed
• d.Any aircraft under 55 lbs that carries current liability insurance

Correct answer: the 0.5-lb aircraft with no exposed rotating parts that could lacerate human skin. Section 107.110 defines Category 1 as an aircraft weighing 0.55 lb or less including everything on board or otherwise attached, plus that laceration criterion. Weight alone, a drop test, a parachute, or insurance coverage do not create Category 1 eligibility.14 CFR §107.110

A remote pilot operating a Category 2 eligible aircraft wants to fly over cars moving on a public highway. Which statement is correct?

• a.Sustained flight over the moving cars is allowed for up to 5 minutes
• b.The aircraft may transit over the moving cars but may not maintain sustained flight over them✓
• c.Flight over moving vehicles is prohibited for every category of operation
• d.Sustained flight is allowed if the highway speed limit is 45 mph or lower

Correct answer: the aircraft may transit over the moving vehicles but may not remain in sustained flight over them. Section 107.145 allows Category 1 and 2 aircraft to fly over moving vehicles only while transiting, unless the operation is within a closed or restricted-access site. There is no 5-minute allowance, no blanket prohibition for all categories, and posted speed limits are irrelevant.14 CFR §107.145

A film crew needs a drone to fly beyond visual line of sight along a canyon rim. What is the correct way to make this operation legal?

• a.Post a public notice of the flight at least 48 hours in advance
• b.Add two visual observers along the route and proceed without paperwork
• c.Apply for a certificate of waiver from the FAA and comply with any conditions it contains✓
• d.Notify the nearest air traffic control facility by phone before takeoff

Correct answer: apply for a certificate of waiver. Section 107.200 lets the FAA issue a waiver for certain Part 107 rules, including §107.31 visual line of sight, when the applicant shows the operation can be conducted safely. Public notices, extra observers, and phone calls to ATC do not by themselves authorize deviating from a Part 107 rule.14 CFR §107.200

A remote pilot wants to fly at 150 ft AGL over a parking lot that lies inside the surface area of Class D airspace. What is required before the flight?

• a.Prior authorization from ATC, which is commonly obtained through LAANC✓
• b.Nothing extra, because the flight stays below 400 ft AGL
• c.A filed VFR flight plan naming the departure and recovery points
• d.Only a phone call to the airport manager on the day of the flight

Correct answer: prior ATC authorization, typically obtained through LAANC or the FAA DroneZone portal. Section 107.41 prohibits operating in Class B, C, D, or the surface area of Class E airspace without that authorization, regardless of how low the flight is. Flight plans and courtesy calls to an airport manager are not substitutes for the authorization.14 CFR §107.41

A remote pilot buzzes a group of hikers at low altitude to get a dramatic shot, startling several of them. Nobody is injured and the aircraft never touches anyone. How would the FAA most likely view this flight?

• a.Acceptable, because no injury or property damage resulted
• b.Acceptable, because artistic flights are exempt from operating rules
• c.A violation only if the hikers file a written complaint
• d.A careless or reckless operation that endangered the life or property of another✓

Correct answer: a careless or reckless operation. Section 107.23 prohibits operating a small unmanned aircraft system in a careless or reckless manner that endangers the life or property of another, and endangerment alone is enough without an actual injury. Artistic purpose is not an exemption, and enforcement does not depend on someone filing a complaint.14 CFR §107.23

A farmer asks a remote pilot to release seed packets from a drone over an open field. Which statement about dropping objects is correct?

• a.Dropping any object from a small unmanned aircraft is prohibited under Part 107
• b.Dropping is allowed if it does not create an undue hazard to persons or property✓
• c.Dropping is allowed only after the pilot obtains a certificate of waiver
• d.Dropping is allowed only if the released item weighs less than 1 lb

Correct answer: dropping is allowed as long as it creates no undue hazard to persons or property. Section 107.23 prohibits allowing an object to be dropped from a small unmanned aircraft in a manner that creates such a hazard, which means careful releases are permitted. There is no blanket ban, no waiver requirement for ordinary drops, and no 1-lb limit on the item released.14 CFR §107.23

To avoid a sudden midair conflict with a low-flying medical helicopter, a remote pilot climbs the drone above 400 ft AGL and briefly loses required cloud clearance. What does Part 107 say about this deviation?

• a.The deviation is never permitted because §107.51 contains no exceptions
• b.The deviation is permitted only if a visual observer approved it beforehand
• c.The deviation is permitted to the extent needed to meet the emergency, and the pilot must send a written report if the FAA requests one✓
• d.The deviation is permitted but the pilot must self-report it to the FAA within 24 hours

Correct answer: the deviation is permitted to the extent needed to meet the emergency, with a written report due upon FAA request. Section 107.21 gives the remote pilot in command in-flight emergency authority to deviate from any rule of Part 107. No prior approval from a visual observer is required, and a report is triggered by an FAA request rather than an automatic 24-hour deadline.14 CFR §107.21

A courier asks a remote pilot to deliver a small can of paint thinner across a construction site by drone. What does Part 107 require?

• a.The flight is prohibited, because a small unmanned aircraft may not carry hazardous material✓
• b.The flight is allowed if the container weighs less than 2 lbs
• c.The flight is allowed if the drone remains below 100 ft AGL
• d.The flight is allowed if the pilot carries the shipping papers at the control station

Correct answer: the flight is prohibited. Section 107.36 states that a small unmanned aircraft may not carry hazardous material, and flammable solvents such as paint thinner fall in that category. Weight of the container, low altitude, and paperwork at the control station do not create an exception to the prohibition.14 CFR §107.36

A pipeline patrol team wants to operate a drone from the bed of a pickup truck driving slowly along a remote desert access road. Under Part 107, is this allowed?

• a.No, operating from any moving vehicle is prohibited without exception
• b.Yes, but only if the truck stays below 25 mph
• c.Yes, but only if a visual observer rides in the truck cab
• d.Yes, because the operation is over a sparsely populated area and no property is carried for compensation✓

Correct answer: yes, because §107.25 permits operating from a moving land or water-borne vehicle when the flight is over a sparsely populated area, and prohibits carrying another person's property for compensation or hire from a moving vehicle. Operation from a moving aircraft is never allowed. The rule sets no vehicle speed limit and does not require an observer in the cab.14 CFR §107.25

Which action is specifically required of the remote pilot in command before beginning a flight under Part 107?

• a.Obtaining a weather briefing from an FAA flight service specialist by telephone
• b.Assessing the operating environment and inspecting the sUAS to ensure all control links and systems work properly✓
• c.Filing the aircraft registration number with the local law enforcement agency
• d.Recording engine run time and battery cycles in a maintenance logbook

Correct answer: assess the operating environment and inspect the small unmanned aircraft system before flight. Section 107.49 requires the RPIC to consider local weather, airspace and flight restrictions, hazards, and to verify sufficient power and that all control links and systems are functioning. A telephone briefing, police notification, and a formal maintenance log are not mandated by that section.14 CFR §107.49

A local police officer and an FAA inspector approach a remote pilot during a job and ask to see documentation. What is the pilot required to do?

• a.Refuse until a written request arrives from the FAA regional office
• b.Provide the documents to the FAA inspector but not to the police officer
• c.Present the remote pilot certificate and make it available for inspection upon request✓
• d.Provide only a photograph of the certificate sent by email within 10 days

Correct answer: present the remote pilot certificate and make it available for inspection on request. Section 107.7 requires a remote pilot in command to present the certificate and any related documents or records for inspection by the FAA, NTSB, TSA, or any federal, state, or local law enforcement officer. Refusing, limiting access to the FAA alone, or promising a later email does not satisfy the rule.14 CFR §107.7

A drone airframe weighs 48 lbs empty. The operator wants to add a 6-lb sensor pod and a 3-lb battery pack. May the aircraft still be flown under Part 107?

• a.No, because the total weight at takeoff would be 57 lbs, above the 55-lb limit✓
• b.Yes, because only the empty airframe weight counts toward the limit
• c.Yes, because payload weight is exempt when the mission is for inspection
• d.No, because Part 107 limits the airframe alone to 45 lbs

Correct answer: no, the aircraft would weigh 57 lbs. Part 107 applies to a small unmanned aircraft weighing less than 55 lbs on takeoff, including everything that is on board or otherwise attached to the aircraft. Empty weight is not the measure, mission type creates no exemption, and there is no 45-lb airframe limit.14 CFR §107.3

Midway through a mapping flight the remote pilot notices one motor running unusually hot and hears an intermittent buzzing from that arm. What does Part 107 require?

• a.Continue the mission but reduce groundspeed to 30 knots for the remainder
• b.Discontinue the flight, because the aircraft is no longer in a condition for safe operation✓
• c.Continue the mission and note the discrepancy in a post-flight report
• d.Continue only if a visual observer confirms the aircraft still appears stable

Correct answer: discontinue the flight. Section 107.15 requires the RPIC to verify before flight that the sUAS is in a condition for safe operation and to discontinue the flight when a condition arises that would endanger persons or property. Slowing down, logging the problem later, or relying on an observer does not correct an unairworthy condition.14 CFR §107.15

Besides meeting the minimum age and passing the knowledge test, what language-related condition must an applicant satisfy to be eligible for a remote pilot certificate?

• a.Pass an oral interview conducted in English by an FAA inspector
• b.Hold a certified translation of the study guide in the applicant's native language
• c.Demonstrate fluency in English and one additional language used in aviation
• d.Be able to read, speak, write, and understand the English language✓

Correct answer: be able to read, speak, write, and understand English. Section 107.61 lists that ability as an eligibility requirement, with a possible accommodation issued with an operating limitation if a medical condition affects the applicant's speech. There is no oral interview requirement, no translated study guide requirement, and no second-language requirement.14 CFR §107.61

While filming a shoreline, a remote pilot spots a seaplane on final approach to the water roughly a half mile away and converging with the drone's flight path. What must the remote pilot do?

• a.Hold altitude and heading so the seaplane pilot can predict the drone's path
• b.Climb above the seaplane to keep it in sight during the pass
• c.Yield the right of way and maneuver so the drone does not pass close to the seaplane✓
• d.Descend to 50 ft AGL and hover until the seaplane lands

Correct answer: yield the right of way. Section 107.37 requires the small unmanned aircraft to give way to all aircraft, airborne vehicles, and launch or reentry vehicles, and prohibits operating so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard. Holding a predictable path or climbing toward the traffic does not satisfy that duty, and a fixed descent altitude is not what the rule requires.14 CFR §107.37

A delivery startup plans paid drone deliveries of small packages for customers. Which statement reflects a limitation on carrying another person's property for compensation under Part 107?

• a.The flight must stay within the boundaries of a single State and total weight must remain under 55 lbs✓
• b.Deliveries are allowed across State lines if each package weighs under 5 lbs
• c.Deliveries for compensation are prohibited entirely under Part 107
• d.Deliveries are allowed only between sunrise and sunset regardless of aircraft lighting

Correct answer: the operation must remain within the boundaries of a single State, and the aircraft plus payload must stay under 55 lbs. Part 107 permits carrying another person's property for compensation or hire subject to these limits, and such flights may not be conducted from a moving vehicle or aircraft. Interstate delivery, an outright ban, and a daylight-only restriction are not accurate statements of the rule.

Before conducting a Category 2 operation over people, what must the remote pilot in command have available?

• a.A copy of the airport facility directory for the nearest towered field
• b.The operating manual and any labeling indicating the aircraft meets Category 2 requirements✓
• c.A signed release form from every person who will be overflown
• d.A special airworthiness certificate issued by an FAA flight standards office

Correct answer: the operating manual and the labeling showing the aircraft meets Category 2 requirements. Section 107.115 conditions Category 2 operations on the aircraft carrying the required label from an accepted declaration of compliance and on the RPIC operating in accordance with the manufacturer's operating manual. Facility directories, individual releases, and special airworthiness certificates are not part of the requirement.14 CFR §107.115

A remote pilot holds a Category 3 eligible aircraft and is asked to hover above a crowd gathered in an open-air stadium during a concert. Which statement is correct?

• a.The operation is legal because Category 3 aircraft are approved for any crowd
• b.The operation is legal if the pilot first notifies the stadium operator in writing
• c.The operation is legal if the drone stays at least 100 ft above the highest person
• d.The operation is prohibited, since Category 3 does not permit flight over an open-air assembly of people✓

Correct answer: prohibited. Section 107.120 bars Category 3 operations over open-air assemblies of human beings and limits flight over people to closed or restricted-access sites where those present have been notified, or to transiting rather than sustained flight over people not directly participating. Crowd approval, written notice to a venue, and a 100-ft buffer do not create authority for this flight.14 CFR §107.120

A remote pilot is asked by a law enforcement officer to submit to a test for alcohol after an incident, and the pilot refuses without a valid reason. What is the likely consequence for the pilot's certificate?

• a.A written warning is placed in the pilot's file with no further action
• b.The certificate is automatically converted to a student pilot certificate
• c.Refusal is grounds for denial of an application for one year and for suspension or revocation of the certificate✓
• d.The pilot must simply retake the aeronautical knowledge test before flying again

Correct answer: refusal is grounds for denial of a certificate application for up to one year and for suspension or revocation of an existing remote pilot certificate. Section 107.59 covers refusal to submit to an alcohol test or to furnish drug or alcohol test results requested by the FAA or law enforcement. A warning letter, downgrading the certificate, and retesting are not the consequences described in the rule.14 CFR §107.59

A remote pilot plans to fly a small UAS at 250 ft AGL over open farmland. The sectional chart shows the site is not enclosed by any solid blue, segmented blue, segmented magenta, or dashed magenta line, and no shaded band covers the area. What airspace authorization does this operation require?

• a.A written waiver issued by an FAA Flight Standards District Office
• b.LAANC authorization obtained through an approved UAS service supplier
• c.Verbal approval from the overlying Air Route Traffic Control Center
• d.None, because the operation is in Class G airspace, which needs no ATC authorization✓

The absence of any airspace boundary line or shaded band means the surface airspace is Class G, and §107.41 requires prior ATC authorization only for Class B, C, D, and the lateral boundaries of surface-area Class E. LAANC and DroneZone requests apply to those controlled surface areas, not to Class G. A waiver is needed only to deviate from an operating rule such as §107.31 or §107.51, and ARTCC does not issue Part 107 authorizations.14 CFR §107.41

A sectional chart shows an airport enclosed by a segmented (dashed) blue line with a boxed number nearby. A remote pilot wants to operate at 200 ft AGL from a park located 1.5 SM inside that dashed blue boundary. What is required before the flight?

• a.Only a radio call to the control tower on the published CTAF before takeoff
• b.Prior authorization from ATC, obtained through LAANC or FAA DroneZone✓
• c.Nothing, because operations below 400 ft AGL are exempt from authorization
• d.Relocation of the operation to a point at least 3 NM from the airport

A segmented blue line depicts Class D airspace, and §107.41 requires prior ATC authorization before operating in Class D. That authorization is requested electronically through LAANC or through FAA DroneZone, not by making a radio call. There is no blanket exemption for flights below 400 ft AGL, and moving 3 NM away would not by itself guarantee the site is outside the Class D boundary.14 CFR §107.41

A remote pilot studying a sectional finds the intended launch site inside a dashed magenta line that surrounds a small non-towered airport. What does this depiction mean for the planned Part 107 flight?

• a.Class E airspace begins at the surface there, so prior ATC authorization is required✓
• b.The area is Class G to 1,200 ft AGL, so the flight may proceed without authorization
• c.Class E begins at 700 ft AGL, so no authorization is needed below that altitude
• d.The airport lies inside Class D airspace, so only a CTAF broadcast is required

A dashed magenta line marks a Class E surface area, which is controlled airspace from the ground up, so §107.41 requires ATC authorization before operating within its lateral boundaries. A magenta shaded band, not a dashed line, is what indicates Class E beginning at 700 ft AGL. Class D is drawn with a segmented blue line, and no radio call substitutes for an authorization.14 CFR §107.41

On a sectional chart, a rural area is covered by a wide faded magenta shaded band, and no dashed or segmented lines cross the site. At what altitude does controlled Class E airspace begin over this location?

• a.At the surface, because any magenta shading indicates a surface area
• b.At 1,200 ft AGL, the standard floor used across most of the country
• c.At 700 ft AGL, which is what the faded magenta shaded band depicts✓
• d.At 14,500 ft MSL, the floor of Class E over unmapped terrain

The soft magenta vignette on a sectional shows that the floor of Class E airspace is lowered to 700 ft AGL, usually to protect instrument approaches. A blue vignette is what marks a Class E floor of 1,200 ft AGL, and a dashed magenta line marks a Class E surface area. Because the Class E floor here is 700 ft AGL, the airspace below it is Class G and needs no authorization under §107.41.

While operating a small UAS at 300 ft AGL over an open field, the remote PIC and the visual observer see a crop-dusting airplane maneuvering toward the operating area at roughly the same altitude. What action is required?

• a.Hold the current altitude and heading, since manned aircraft must give way to a UAS
• b.Climb the aircraft above the airplane so that its pilot can see it more easily
• c.Broadcast the UAS position on the local CTAF and continue the planned flight
• d.Yield the right of way by maneuvering clear, descending, or landing so no collision hazard exists✓

Section 107.37 requires the small UAS to yield the right of way to all aircraft and prohibits operating so close to another aircraft as to create a collision hazard. Manned aircraft are never required to give way to a small UAS, so holding course is both unsafe and non-compliant. Climbing toward the airplane increases the hazard, and a radio broadcast does not relieve the remote PIC of the duty to yield.14 CFR §107.37

A remote pilot applicant is reviewing the vertical structure of the National Airspace System. Which statement correctly describes the vertical limits of Class A airspace?

• a.It extends from the surface up to and including 10,000 ft MSL nationwide
• b.It extends from 18,000 ft MSL up to and including FL600 over the contiguous states✓
• c.It extends from 14,500 ft MSL up to but not including 18,000 ft MSL
• d.It extends from 700 ft AGL up to but not including 18,000 ft MSL

Class A airspace begins at 18,000 ft MSL and continues up to and including FL600, and every operation inside it is flown under instrument flight rules. The block from 14,500 ft MSL to 18,000 ft MSL is generally Class E, not Class A. The 700 ft AGL and surface figures describe Class E floors and surface areas, and no airspace class uses a nationwide 10,000 ft MSL ceiling.

A remote pilot needs to fly inside Class D airspace tomorrow morning and wants the fastest lawful way to obtain approval. Which statement best describes the Low Altitude Authorization and Notification Capability (LAANC)?

• a.It provides near real-time automated ATC authorization up to the UAS Facility Map grid ceilings✓
• b.It files an instrument flight plan with ATC on behalf of the remote pilot in command
• c.It grants an automatic waiver of the visual line of sight requirement found in §107.31
• d.It publishes temporary flight restrictions and national security notices to remote pilots

LAANC is an automated system reached through FAA-approved UAS service suppliers that issues ATC authorization for controlled airspace within seconds when the request is at or below the published UAS Facility Map grid ceiling. It does not file flight plans, because Part 107 flights are conducted under visual rules and need none. Waivers of operating rules such as §107.31 come only from the FAA through the waiver process, and TFRs are distributed through the NOTAM system.

A remote pilot checks the UAS Facility Map for a job site inside Class C airspace and finds that the grid square covering the site is marked 0, while the neighboring squares show 100, 200, and 400. What does the 0 mean for this operation?

• a.The site may be flown up to 400 ft AGL, since facility maps are advisory only
• b.The site may be flown up to 100 ft AGL by matching the nearest adjacent grid value
• c.No altitude is pre-approved there, so further coordination through FAA DroneZone is needed✓
• d.The site is actually Class G airspace, so no authorization request is required at all

A grid ceiling of 0 means the FAA has pre-approved no altitude for automatic LAANC authorization in that square, so an automated request will be denied and the pilot must apply for further coordination through FAA DroneZone. Facility map values are not advisory suggestions; they are the ceilings ATC has agreed to approve automatically. A pilot may not borrow a neighboring square's value, and the presence of a facility map grid confirms the airspace is controlled, not Class G.

Near a busy airport a sectional chart shows a solid magenta circle marking the outer shelf of Class C airspace, with a small boxed notation reading 45 above a line and 12 below it. How should a remote pilot interpret those two numbers?

• a.The ceiling is 4,500 ft AGL and the floor is 1,200 ft AGL above the reporting point
• b.The ceiling is 4,500 ft MSL and the floor of that airspace segment is 1,200 ft MSL✓
• c.The ceiling is 45,000 ft MSL and the floor of that airspace segment is 12,000 ft MSL
• d.The ceiling is 4,500 ft MSL and the airspace segment extends down to the surface

Numbers in an airspace box on a sectional are expressed in hundreds of feet MSL, so 45 over 12 means a ceiling of 4,500 ft MSL over a floor of 1,200 ft MSL for that outer shelf. The values are MSL, not AGL, so a pilot must add field or terrain elevation reasoning when comparing them to altitude above the ground. A floor reaching the ground would be printed as SFC rather than a number, and 45,000 ft would appear as 450.

A sectional chart shows a towered airport ringed by a segmented blue line, with a boxed bracketed notation printed as 25 next to the ring. What does that notation tell the remote pilot?

• a.The airport control tower remains in operation until 2,500 local time each day
• b.The controlled airspace around the airport tops out at 25,000 ft MSL
• c.The floor of the airspace is 2,500 ft MSL, with uncontrolled airspace below it
• d.The Class D airspace extends from the surface up to and including 2,500 ft MSL✓

A bracketed number beside a Class D ring is the ceiling of that airspace in hundreds of feet MSL, so 25 means the Class D extends from the surface up to and including 2,500 ft MSL. Class D areas always begin at the surface, so the notation cannot be describing a floor. It is an altitude, not a time of day, and 25,000 ft would be printed as 250.

A sectional shows a large airport surrounded by several solid blue rings of increasing radius, forming an upside-down wedding cake. The innermost ring is labeled 70 above SFC. A remote pilot wants to fly at 150 ft AGL from a rooftop inside that innermost ring. What applies?

• a.The site is in Class B surface airspace, so ATC authorization is required before flight✓
• b.No authorization is needed because the operation stays below 400 ft AGL
• c.Authorization is needed only if the aircraft will climb above 1,200 ft AGL
• d.Part 107 operations are permanently prohibited anywhere inside Class B airspace

An inner segment labeled 70 over SFC is Class B airspace extending from the surface up to 7,000 ft MSL, so §107.41 requires ATC authorization before any Part 107 flight there. Staying low does not exempt the flight, because the controlled airspace reaches all the way to the ground in that ring. Class B is not closed to Part 107; authorization is routinely granted through LAANC or DroneZone where facility maps allow it.14 CFR §107.41

While comparing two airports on the same sectional chart, a remote pilot notices that one airport symbol is printed in blue and the other in magenta. What does the color difference indicate?

• a.Magenta airports have an operating control tower while blue airports do not
• b.Blue airports are restricted to military traffic and magenta airports to civil traffic
• c.Blue means the airport has an operating control tower and magenta means it does not✓
• d.The color shows whether fuel and maintenance services are available at the field

Sectional charts print airports with an operating control tower in blue and non-towered airports in magenta, which tells a remote pilot at a glance whether the field is likely to sit inside Class B, C, or D airspace. The convention is not reversed, and it says nothing about military versus civil use, which is shown by the airport name and other symbols. Fuel and services are indicated by tick marks and the airport data block, not by color.

The airport data block on a sectional lists the frequency 122.9 followed by a solid circle containing the letter C. What does that symbol tell a remote pilot planning to monitor local traffic?

• a.The listed frequency is the automated terminal information service broadcast
• b.The listed frequency is the common traffic advisory frequency, or CTAF✓
• c.The listed frequency is a control tower frequency staffed around the clock
• d.The listed frequency is the air route traffic control center frequency for the area

A solid circle enclosing the letter C marks the published CTAF, the frequency pilots use to self-announce position and intentions at a non-towered field or when a tower is closed. ATIS, tower, and center frequencies are each labeled separately in the data block or on the chart by name. Monitoring the CTAF helps a remote pilot build awareness of arriving and departing traffic, though listening does not replace the duty to yield the right of way.

An airport data block on a sectional chart reads: 1246 L 52. How should a remote pilot planning an operation nearby interpret this line?

• a.Field elevation 1,246 ft MSL, lighting available, longest runway 5,200 ft✓
• b.Field elevation 1,246 ft AGL, lighting available, longest runway 52 ft
• c.Field elevation 1,246 ft MSL, lighting available, and 52 aircraft based there
• d.Runway heading 124 degrees, lighting available, and pattern altitude 5,200 ft

In an airport data block the first figure is field elevation in feet MSL, the letter L means runway lighting is available at least part of the night, and the last figure is the length of the longest runway in hundreds of feet, so 52 is 5,200 ft. Field elevation is always given in MSL, never AGL, which matters when converting a planned MSL altitude to height above the ground. The number of based aircraft and the traffic pattern altitude are published in the Chart Supplement, not in this line.

A remote pilot is inspecting a roof about half a mile from the end of the only runway at a non-towered airport in Class G airspace, and light aircraft are actively flying the traffic pattern. What does Part 107 require in this situation?

• a.Nothing further, provided the small UAS remains below 400 ft AGL at all times
• b.A position report broadcast on the CTAF at least once every two minutes during the flight
• c.A NOTAM filed with the FAA at least 24 hours before the inspection begins
• d.That the operation not interfere with operations and traffic patterns at the airport✓

Section 107.43 prohibits operating a small UAS in a manner that interferes with operations and traffic patterns at any airport, heliport, or seaplane base, and that duty applies even in Class G airspace where no authorization is needed. Remaining below 400 ft AGL satisfies §107.51 but does not by itself satisfy §107.43 if the aircraft sits under the approach path. Part 107 does not require remote pilots to file NOTAMs or to make periodic CTAF broadcasts.14 CFR §107.43

A survey site falls inside an area outlined on the sectional with a blue hatched border and labeled R-2508. The chart panel lists the area as active during daylight hours with a using agency shown. What governs the planned Part 107 flight?

• a.The flight is allowed below 400 ft AGL because restricted areas apply only to manned aircraft
• b.The flight is allowed as long as the aircraft remains at least 3 NM outside the boundary
• c.The flight may not enter the area unless permission of the controlling or using agency is obtained✓
• d.The flight is allowed once LAANC authorization for the underlying airspace is approved

Section 107.45 forbids operating a small UAS in a prohibited or restricted area unless the remote pilot has permission from the using or controlling agency, and the R prefix identifies a restricted area. Restricted areas contain hazards such as artillery or guided missiles and apply to unmanned as well as manned aircraft, so low altitude does not exempt the flight. Staying outside the boundary would be legal, but the question places the site inside, and LAANC addresses controlled airspace rather than special use areas.14 CFR §107.45

A remote pilot notices an area on the sectional outlined in blue hatching and labeled with a P prefix followed by a number. Which statement correctly describes how Part 107 treats this airspace?

• a.Flight there is prohibited unless the remote pilot has permission from the using agency✓
• b.The restriction takes effect only above 18,000 ft MSL, so low flights are unaffected
• c.Transiting the area is allowed while below 400 ft AGL and within visual line of sight
• d.The area is closed only during the published hours printed in the chart margin panel

A P prefix identifies a prohibited area established for security or national welfare reasons, and §107.45 bars small UAS operations in prohibited and restricted areas without permission from the using or controlling agency. Prohibited areas extend from the surface upward, so a low altitude or a visual line of sight operation gains no exemption. Unlike some restricted areas and MOAs, prohibited areas are continuously in effect rather than limited to published hours.14 CFR §107.45

A remote pilot is asked to shoot promotional footage outside a college football stadium that seats about 55,000 spectators. Which set of dimensions and times describes the standing sporting event flight restriction?

• a.1 NM radius, surface to 1,000 ft AGL, in effect only while the game is being played
• b.5 NM radius, surface to 5,000 ft AGL, beginning 2 hours before the scheduled start
• c.3 NM radius, surface to 1,000 ft AGL, beginning 30 minutes before the scheduled start
• d.3 NM radius, surface to 3,000 ft AGL, from 1 hour before until 1 hour after the event✓

The standing sporting event restriction covers a 3 NM radius from the center of a stadium seating 30,000 or more people, from the surface to 3,000 ft AGL, starting one hour before the scheduled event time and ending one hour after it ends. Section 107.47 requires remote pilots to comply with these notice-to-airmen flight restrictions. The other choices misstate the radius, the vertical limit, or the effective window, and none of them reflects the published restriction.14 CFR §107.47

A sectional shows a large area outlined with a magenta hatched border and labeled with a name followed by the letters MOA. What does this depiction mean for a Part 107 operation planned inside its lateral boundaries?

• a.Entry requires an ATC authorization request under §107.41 before the flight begins
• b.Flight is not prohibited, but military training may bring fast aircraft into the area✓
• c.Civil aircraft including small UAS are barred from the area whenever it is active
• d.The label identifies a Class E surface area that requires an ATC authorization

A Military Operations Area separates certain nonhazardous military training activities from IFR traffic, and Part 107 does not prohibit small UAS flight inside one, so no §107.41 authorization is triggered by the MOA itself. Because military aircraft may be maneuvering at high speed and low altitude, a remote pilot should check the chart panel for hours of use and stay especially alert. An MOA is special use airspace, not a Class E surface area.

A gray line on a sectional passes near a planned operating site and is labeled VR1207. What should a remote pilot understand from this label?

• a.It is a visual route used only by aircraft operating above 18,000 ft MSL
• b.It is an instrument route flown exclusively in instrument meteorological conditions
• c.It is a VFR military training route whose four-digit number means segments at or below 1,500 ft AGL✓
• d.It is a published Victor airway used by civil aircraft navigating between VOR stations

VR identifies a VFR military training route, and a four-digit identifier means the route has no segment above 1,500 ft AGL, which places fast military traffic squarely in the altitude band used by small UAS. A three-digit or shorter number would indicate one or more segments above 1,500 ft AGL. IR routes are the instrument version of the same program, and Victor airways are drawn as blue-tinted corridors labeled with a V and a number.

A news crew wants footage of a brush fire. A temporary flight restriction is in effect over the fire area with a 5 NM radius from the surface to 5,000 ft AGL for firefighting aircraft. The remote pilot proposes flying at 200 ft AGL inside the ring. Is the flight permitted?

• a.Yes, because 200 ft AGL keeps the aircraft well beneath the firefighting airplanes
• b.Yes, provided the operation is coordinated with the local fire department in advance
• c.Yes, if the remote pilot holds a current waiver of the altitude limit in §107.51
• d.No, because no operation may take place inside the TFR unless the notice authorizes it✓

Section 107.47 requires remote pilots to comply with temporary flight restrictions, so no small UAS may operate inside the described ring unless the notice to air missions itself authorizes that operation. A firefighting TFR starts at the surface, so a low altitude places the aircraft squarely inside the restricted volume rather than beneath it. Local agency permission and a §107.51 altitude waiver are unrelated to TFR compliance, and drones near wildfires routinely ground aerial firefighting.14 CFR §107.47

A client asks a remote pilot to photograph a rooftop located roughly 10 NM from Reagan National Airport, well inside the innermost ring of the Washington DC Special Flight Rules Area. What is the correct assessment?

• a.The site lies in the Flight Restricted Zone, where UAS flight is banned without specific authorization✓
• b.The flight is allowed under 400 ft AGL once LAANC issues an automated authorization
• c.The flight is allowed if the remote pilot obtains a waiver of the daylight rule in §107.29
• d.The restriction covers only aircraft weighing more than 55 lb, so the flight may proceed

The inner roughly 15 NM ring of the Washington DC Special Flight Rules Area is the Flight Restricted Zone, and unmanned aircraft may not fly there without specific FAA and security agency authorization, which is rarely granted. LAANC does not process requests inside the FRZ, so an automated approval is not available. A §107.29 waiver concerns night operations and has nothing to do with national security restrictions, and the FRZ applies regardless of aircraft weight.

Before a commercial mapping flight, a remote pilot must confirm that no temporary flight restriction or airspace closure affects the operating area. Which source should be consulted for this information?

• a.The legend printed in the margin of the current sectional aeronautical chart
• b.The UAS Facility Map grid values published for the surrounding airspace
• c.Current notices to air missions obtained through official FAA notice sources✓
• d.The airport data block and Chart Supplement entry for the nearest airport

Temporary flight restrictions, airspace closures, and other short-notice changes are distributed as notices to air missions, so the remote pilot must check current FAA notice sources before every flight. A sectional legend explains chart symbols and a Chart Supplement entry lists permanent field data, but neither reflects a restriction issued yesterday. UAS Facility Maps show pre-approved altitude ceilings for LAANC and do not publish temporary restrictions.

On a sectional chart a horizontal line is labeled 47 degrees 00 minutes N, and tick marks along the adjacent meridian each represent 1 minute of latitude. An airport symbol sits four tick marks north of that labeled line. What is the airport's latitude?

• a.47 degrees 00 minutes N, since the airport sits on the labeled parallel itself
• b.47 degrees 04 minutes N, four minutes north of the labeled parallel of latitude✓
• c.47 degrees 40 minutes N, because four ticks represent ten minutes each
• d.46 degrees 56 minutes N, four minutes south of the labeled parallel of latitude

Each tick mark along a meridian equals one minute of latitude, so counting four ticks north of the 47 degrees 00 minutes N parallel places the airport at 47 degrees 04 minutes N. Latitude increases toward the north in the Northern Hemisphere, which rules out the value south of the labeled line. Ticks on sectionals are one-minute increments, not ten, and the airport is clearly offset from the labeled parallel.

A remote pilot plans an operation near a non-towered airport whose Chart Supplement entry shows no RP notation for any runway. What traffic pattern should the pilot expect arriving airplanes to fly?

• a.Right-hand turns, with arriving airplanes joining directly on a straight-in final
• b.Left-hand turns, with arriving airplanes joining the base leg at a 90 degree angle
• c.Right-hand turns, with arriving airplanes joining the downwind leg at a 45 degree angle
• d.Left-hand turns, with arriving airplanes joining the downwind leg at a 45 degree angle✓

The standard traffic pattern uses left-hand turns, and the recommended entry is a 45 degree intercept to the downwind leg at pattern altitude. An RP notation, meaning right pattern, is published only where terrain or noise abatement requires right-hand turns, and none appears here. Knowing where arriving airplanes will be helps the remote pilot avoid interfering with airport operations and remain ready to yield the right of way.

A METAR reads: KRDU 141753Z 21014G24KT 10SM FEW040 26/17 A3002. How should you interpret the wind group?

• a.From 140 degrees true at 21 knots, with gusts to 24 knots
• b.From 210 degrees true at 14 knots, with gusts to 24 knots✓
• c.From 210 degrees magnetic at 24 knots, with lulls to 14 knots
• d.From 240 degrees true at 21 knots, with gusts to 14 knots

In a METAR wind group the first three digits are the direction the wind is blowing from, the next two are the sustained speed, and the digits after the G are the peak gust, so 21014G24KT is 210 degrees at 14 knots gusting 24 knots. METAR and TAF wind directions are referenced to true north, not magnetic north, which rules out the magnetic option. The other choices scramble the direction and speed digits or reverse the gust value, which is always higher than the sustained speed.

A METAR reads: KBOI 091853Z 30008KT 5SM HZ SCT007 BKN013 OVC025 19/12 A2988. What is the reported ceiling?

• a.700 ft AGL, because SCT007 is the lowest reported layer
• b.2,500 ft AGL, because OVC025 is the only solid overcast layer
• c.1,300 ft AGL, because BKN013 is the lowest broken or overcast layer✓
• d.1,900 ft AGL, the average height of the three reported layers

Ceiling is defined as the height above ground of the lowest layer reported as broken or overcast, so BKN013 gives a 1,300 ft AGL ceiling. Cloud heights in a METAR are given in hundreds of feet above the reporting station, so 013 means 1,300 ft. Scattered layers such as SCT007 are not ceilings, the overcast at 2,500 ft is above the broken layer, and averaging the layers is not a recognized method.

A METAR reads: KMEM 231553Z 09006KT 2SM BR OVC004 08/08 A3010. What do the elements 2SM BR tell you?

• a.Visibility of 2 statute miles restricted by mist✓
• b.Visibility of 2 statute miles restricted by blowing rain
• c.A 2,000 ft ceiling with a broken layer above it
• d.Visibility of 2 nautical miles restricted by drizzle

Surface visibility in a US METAR is always given in statute miles, and BR is the code for mist, so 2SM BR means 2 SM visibility in mist. The temperature and dew point of 08/08 show a zero-degree spread, which is exactly why the air is saturated and mist plus a 400 ft overcast are present. BR is not blowing rain, visibility is never reported in nautical miles, and cloud amounts are reported separately in the OVC004 group.

A TAF reads: KOKC 121120Z 1212/1318 14008KT P6SM SCT030 FM121800 18015G25KT 4SM -RA BKN015. What does the FM121800 group forecast?

• a.Conditions expected only briefly, for less than one hour after 1800Z
• b.The end of the valid forecast period at 1800Z on the 12th
• c.That 14008KT and more than 6 SM visibility will persist all day
• d.A rapid change at 1800Z to 18015G25KT, 4SM in light rain, BKN015✓

FM means "from" and marks a rapid, sustained change that begins at the stated day and time, so from 1800Z on the 12th the forecast is wind 180 degrees at 15 knots gusting 25, 4 SM visibility in light rain, and a broken layer at 1,500 ft. Brief, temporary fluctuations would be coded TEMPO, and a gradual transition would be BECMG. The validity period 1212/1318 runs from 1200Z on the 12th to 1800Z on the 13th, so 1800Z on the 12th is not the end of the forecast, and the earlier conditions do not persist.

The airport nearest your job site reports OVC012. What is the highest altitude you may operate your small UAS under Part 107?

• a.700 ft AGL, since staying 500 ft below the 1,200 ft ceiling is the only limit
• b.1,200 ft AGL, since you may operate right up to the reported cloud base
• c.400 ft AGL, since 500 ft below the clouds allows 700 ft but 400 ft still applies✓
• d.200 ft AGL, since you must remain 1,000 ft below any overcast layer

OVC012 is an overcast base at 1,200 ft AGL, and the required 500 ft of clearance below clouds would permit 700 ft AGL, but Part 107 separately caps routine operations at 400 ft AGL, so 400 ft is the controlling limit. When two rules apply, the more restrictive one governs. Flying at 700 ft would bust the altitude limit, flying at the cloud base violates cloud clearance, and there is no 1,000 ft below-cloud requirement for Part 107.14 CFR §107.51

What is the minimum flight visibility, as observed from the control station, required for small UAS operations under Part 107?

• a.3 statute miles✓
• b.1 statute mile
• c.5 statute miles
• d.3 nautical miles

Part 107 requires a minimum flight visibility of 3 statute miles measured from the location of the control station, which is what lets the remote pilot see and avoid other aircraft and obstacles. One statute mile is the special VFR figure used by manned aircraft, not the Part 107 minimum. Five statute miles applies to certain manned operations in Class E above 10,000 ft, and Part 107 visibility is stated in statute miles rather than nautical miles.14 CFR §107.51

You are flying at 300 ft AGL with 4 SM flight visibility, and a cloud bank sits about 1,200 ft horizontally from your aircraft. Is this operation legal?

• a.Yes, because 4 SM already exceeds the 3 SM visibility minimum
• b.Yes, because 300 ft AGL keeps the aircraft below the 400 ft limit
• c.No, because flight visibility must be at least 5 SM when near clouds
• d.No, because you must remain at least 2,000 ft horizontally from clouds✓

Part 107 requires the small UAS to stay at least 500 ft below and 2,000 ft horizontally away from clouds, so a cloud only 1,200 ft laterally makes the flight illegal even though visibility and altitude are fine. Meeting one requirement does not excuse violating another, so the two "yes" answers fail. The visibility minimum is 3 SM, not 5 SM, so the 4 SM reported here is legal and is not the reason the operation must stop.14 CFR §107.51

Which combination of conditions produces the highest density altitude at a given airport?

• a.Low field elevation, low temperature, and low humidity
• b.High field elevation, high temperature, and high humidity✓
• c.High field elevation, low temperature, and low humidity
• d.Low field elevation, high temperature, and high pressure

Density altitude rises whenever the air becomes less dense, and heat, moisture, high elevation, and low pressure all thin the air, so a hot, humid day at a high-elevation site gives the highest density altitude. Water vapor is lighter than dry air, so high humidity lowers density rather than raising it. Cold air and high pressure both increase density, which lowers density altitude, so the remaining combinations all produce better performance.

You launch a multirotor from a 6,500 ft mountain site on a 95 °F afternoon. What performance change should you expect?

• a.Propeller efficiency improves because thin air offers less resistance
• b.Battery voltage rises in thin air, giving noticeably longer endurance
• c.Lift increases because the warm air rising around the aircraft helps it climb
• d.Propellers produce less thrust, reducing climb rate and shortening flight time✓

High elevation plus high temperature means high density altitude, so the propellers move fewer air molecules per revolution and generate less thrust, which slows the climb, lengthens the takeoff run for fixed-wing UAS, and drains the battery faster for a shorter flight. Thin air does reduce drag slightly, but the loss of thrust dominates, so efficiency drops rather than improves. Density altitude has no effect on battery voltage, and localized warm air does not reliably add lift to a small UAS.

What are the standard atmospheric conditions used as the reference for aircraft performance at sea level?

• a.15 °C (59 °F) and 29.92 inHg✓
• b.0 °C (32 °F) and 30.00 inHg
• c.20 °C (68 °F) and 29.92 inHg
• d.15 °C (59 °F) and 28.92 inHg

The standard atmosphere at sea level is defined as 15 °C, which equals 59 °F, with a pressure of 29.92 inHg, and performance charts are built around that baseline. Density altitude is simply pressure altitude corrected for how far the actual temperature differs from this standard. The other options misstate either the standard temperature or the standard pressure, and a setting of 28.92 inHg would represent a very deep low-pressure system.

Your sUAS has a maximum airspeed of 30 knots. You fly straight out directly into a steady 12-knot wind, then return on the reciprocal course. What are your groundspeeds?

• a.30 knots outbound and 30 knots inbound, since wind does not change groundspeed
• b.42 knots outbound and 18 knots inbound
• c.18 knots outbound and 42 knots inbound✓
• d.12 knots outbound and 30 knots inbound

Groundspeed is airspeed adjusted for wind, so flying into a 12-knot headwind gives 30 minus 12, or 18 knots, and returning with that wind as a tailwind gives 30 plus 12, or 42 knots. This is why the outbound leg eats far more battery per mile and why you should turn back well before the halfway point of your endurance. Wind clearly does affect groundspeed, and the reversed option applies the headwind on the wrong leg.

The surface wind is 18 knots and you must launch from a ramp immediately downwind of a large metal hangar. What should you expect there?

• a.Smooth, steady air because the hangar blocks the wind completely
• b.Mechanical turbulence and rolling eddies on the lee side of the hangar✓
• c.A dependable updraft off the roof that improves your climb performance
• d.A wind gradient that reverses the wind direction above the roofline

Wind flowing over and around a building breaks into rolling eddies and downdrafts on the downwind, or lee, side, and this mechanical turbulence can flip or slam a light sUAS during launch and landing. The stronger the wind and the larger the obstruction, the more violent and further downwind the turbulence extends. An obstruction does not create a wind shadow of truly calm air, and there is no reliable updraft or reversal you could count on for performance.

Which set of conditions is most characteristic of a stable air mass?

• a.Cumuliform clouds, showery precipitation, and excellent visibility
• b.Clear skies, strong vertical currents, and unrestricted visibility
• c.Towering cumulus, gusty surface winds, and rapid temperature drops
• d.Stratiform clouds, steady precipitation, haze, and smooth flying air✓

Stable air resists vertical motion, so moisture and pollutants stay trapped near the surface, producing flat stratiform layers, steady drizzle or rain, haze that cuts visibility, and generally smooth flight conditions. That poor visibility is the main hazard for a remote pilot, since it can quickly drop below the 3 SM minimum. Cumuliform clouds, showers, gusts, and turbulence are all signatures of unstable air, not stable air.

During a morning survey you notice building cumulus clouds, gusty winds, and unusually crisp visibility. What does this suggest?

• a.Unstable air, so expect turbulence and possible afternoon showers✓
• b.Stable air, so expect drizzle, smooth flight, and hazy conditions
• c.A surface temperature inversion that will keep the air calm all day
• d.A stationary front that will hold conditions unchanged for many hours

Cumuliform cloud growth, gusty surface winds, and sharp visibility are the classic signature of unstable air, where rising currents mix out the haze but also create turbulence and can build into showers or thunderstorms later in the day. A remote pilot should plan for rough handling and a shrinking weather window. Drizzle, smooth air, and haze belong to stable conditions, and an inversion actually caps vertical motion and traps haze near the ground.

The surface temperature is 20 °C. Using the standard lapse rate, what temperature would you expect at 3,000 ft AGL?

• a.17 °C
• b.14 °C✓
• c.11 °C
• d.20 °C

The standard lapse rate is a decrease of about 2 °C for every 1,000 ft of altitude gain, so 3,000 ft produces roughly a 6 °C drop and 20 minus 6 leaves about 14 °C. Answering 17 °C applies only 1 °C per 1,000 ft, and 11 °C applies 3 °C per 1,000 ft. Temperature does not stay constant with height unless an inversion is present, which is an exception rather than the standard model.

An evening METAR reports the temperature and dew point as 14/12. What does this small spread tell the remote pilot?

• a.The air is very dry, so visibility should improve through the night
• b.A strong temperature inversion has formed just above the airport
• c.Humidity is high and fog or low clouds are likely as cooling continues✓
• d.The altimeter setting will fall rapidly over the next several hours

A 2 °C spread between temperature and dew point means the air is nearly saturated, and as the surface keeps cooling overnight the temperature can reach the dew point and produce fog or a low cloud deck. That directly threatens the 3 SM visibility and cloud clearance requirements for a dawn flight. A narrow spread indicates moist rather than dry air, and it says nothing by itself about inversions or the trend in the altimeter setting.

After a clear, calm night over damp farmland, a shallow layer of fog appears around sunrise. What type of fog is this?

• a.Advection fog, formed when warm moist air moves over a colder surface
• b.Radiation fog, formed when the ground cools under a clear, calm night sky✓
• c.Upslope fog, formed when moist air is pushed up gradually rising terrain
• d.Steam fog, formed when cold air moves across much warmer open water

Radiation fog forms on clear, nearly calm nights when the ground radiates its heat away, chills the moist air just above it to the dew point, and leaves a shallow ground fog that is usually thickest near sunrise. It typically burns off within a few hours after the sun warms the surface. Advection fog requires horizontal movement of warm moist air over a cold surface, upslope fog requires terrain and wind, and steam fog requires a warm water surface under cold air.

Which thunderstorm stage is the most hazardous, and what defines it?

• a.The mature stage, with strong updrafts and downdrafts and heavy precipitation✓
• b.The cumulus stage, with continuous downdrafts and a well-developed gust front
• c.The dissipating stage, with the strongest hail, lightning, and wind shear
• d.The cumulus stage, with heavy rain already reaching the surface

A thunderstorm is most dangerous in the mature stage, which begins when precipitation reaches the ground and updrafts and downdrafts coexist inside the cell, producing severe turbulence, wind shear, hail, lightning, and a gust front that can race far ahead of the storm. The cumulus stage is dominated by updrafts only, with no rain yet at the surface, and the dissipating stage is dominated by weakening downdrafts. Remote pilots should stay at least 20 NM away from any thunderstorm.

What best describes a microburst?

• a.A slow, wide column of rising air that can lift an sUAS above 400 ft AGL
• b.A gradual change of wind direction with altitude over several thousand feet
• c.An intense localized downdraft causing severe wind shear for about 15 minutes✓
• d.A steady sea breeze front that pushes inland during the warmest afternoon hours

A microburst is a small but extremely strong downdraft that slams into the ground and spreads outward, generating severe wind shear with horizontal winds that can exceed 100 knots, and an individual microburst typically lasts only about 15 minutes. That short life and small size make it hard to see coming, which is exactly why remote pilots avoid the area near any convective cell. It is a downdraft rather than an updraft, and it is far more violent and abrupt than a normal wind gradient or a sea breeze.

On a cold morning you find a thin coat of frost on your aircraft's arms and propeller blades. What is the correct action?

• a.Polish the frost smooth so that airflow stays attached to the blades
• b.Launch as planned, since frost is harmless at the low speeds a UAS flies
• c.Hover briefly at low power and let the rotor wash blow the frost away
• d.Remove all frost before flight, since it disrupts airflow and adds weight✓

Frost roughens the surfaces that generate lift, disrupting smooth airflow over the propeller blades and airframe while also adding weight, which reduces thrust and can prevent a normal takeoff. The only acceptable action is to remove all of it before flight. Polishing frost smooth is specifically not acceptable, low airspeed does not make contamination harmless, and attempting to hover it off means the aircraft is already flying in a degraded condition.

A quadcopter has an empty airframe weight of 6.8 lbs. You plan to fly it with two batteries weighing 1.9 lbs each and a gimbal camera weighing 1.4 lbs. The manufacturer lists a maximum takeoff weight of 13.2 lbs. How much additional payload may you add?

• a.0.6 lbs
• b.1.2 lbs✓
• c.2.6 lbs
• d.3.1 lbs

Count every item that leaves the ground: 6.8 + 1.9 + 1.9 + 1.4 = 12.0 lbs, which leaves 13.2 - 12.0 = 1.2 lbs of margin. The 2.6 lbs answer comes from forgetting the camera, and 3.1 lbs comes from counting only one battery. 0.6 lbs would apply only if the loaded aircraft already weighed 12.6 lbs.

Under Part 107, what does the 55 lb (25 kg) weight limit for a small unmanned aircraft refer to?

• a.The weight of the airframe and motors only, with no batteries installed
• b.The weight of the aircraft plus the remote pilot's control station gear
• c.The weight of the aircraft at takeoff, including everything on board or attached✓
• d.The weight of the aircraft measured after the batteries are fully discharged

The limit applies to the total weight at takeoff, so batteries, cameras, mounts, and any cargo all count. Weighing only the bare airframe, or weighing it with dead batteries, understates the real takeoff weight. Equipment that stays on the ground, such as the control station, is not part of the aircraft's weight.14 CFR §107.3

You bolt a 2 lb sensor onto one arm of a quadcopter instead of mounting it on the centerline. What is the most likely result?

• a.The motors on the loaded side must work harder, reducing stability and endurance✓
• b.The flight controller physically shifts the center of gravity back to the center
• c.The aircraft climbs faster because the offset mass adds downward momentum
• d.The aircraft becomes more stable because the extra mass dampens every input

An off-center payload moves the center of gravity away from the manufacturer's limits, so the motors nearest the load must run at higher power just to hold the aircraft level. That constant correction burns battery faster and leaves less control authority for wind or maneuvering. A flight controller can trim for a small imbalance electronically, but it cannot move mass, and extra weight never improves climb performance or stability.

Your quadcopter normally flies about 24 minutes on a full battery at 70 °F. You are launching on a 25 °F morning, and the manufacturer warns that cold can reduce usable battery capacity by roughly 25%. About how much flight time should you plan for?

• a.About 6 minutes
• b.About 18 minutes✓
• c.About 21 minutes
• d.About 24 minutes

A 25% reduction leaves 75% of the normal endurance: 24 x 0.75 = 18 minutes. The 6-minute answer is the amount lost rather than the amount remaining, and 21 minutes reflects only a 12.5% loss. Planning for the full 24 minutes ignores the cold entirely and invites a low-voltage failsafe far from the landing site.

How does loading a small UAS close to its maximum takeoff weight affect its performance?

• a.It increases endurance and sharpens the response to control inputs
• b.It leaves endurance unchanged while improving the rate of climb
• c.It shortens the stopping distance and lowers the minimum controllable speed
• d.It reduces endurance and slows the rate of climb✓

Extra weight requires more power just to stay airborne, so the battery drains sooner and the aircraft climbs more slowly. Heavier aircraft are also less responsive, need more distance to stop, and, for fixed-wing designs, fly at a higher minimum controllable speed. None of the benefits listed in the other options occur when weight goes up.

You are launching a fully loaded multirotor from a mountain meadow at 7,500 ft MSL on a hot afternoon. How does the high density altitude affect performance?

• a.Thrust increases because the thinner air produces less drag on the propellers
• b.Performance is unaffected because electric motors do not need air to burn fuel
• c.The propellers produce less thrust, so climbs are slower and endurance is reduced✓
• d.Battery voltage rises with altitude, which offsets any loss of propeller efficiency

Propellers generate lift from the air they move, so thin, hot air yields less thrust for the same motor RPM. The aircraft must draw more current to hover, which slows climbs and cuts flight time, and a heavy payload makes this worse. Electric motors do not need air for combustion, but their propellers absolutely do, and altitude does not raise battery voltage.

A fixed-wing sUAS has an empty airframe weight of 38.5 lbs. You install a 9.2 lb battery pack, a 5.4 lb sensor pod, and 1.3 lbs of mounting hardware. May this aircraft be flown under Part 107?

• a.Yes; the takeoff weight of 54.4 lbs is under the 55 lb limit✓
• b.No; the takeoff weight of 55.4 lbs is over the 55 lb limit
• c.Yes; only the 45.2 lbs without the battery counts toward the limit
• d.No; the sensor pod must be removed to stay under the 55 lb limit

Adding every installed item gives 38.5 + 9.2 + 5.4 + 1.3 = 54.4 lbs, which is below the 55 lb ceiling, so the flight is legal with 0.6 lbs to spare. The 55.4 lbs figure is an arithmetic slip, and the battery can never be excluded because it is on board at takeoff. Nothing has to be removed, although the small margin means any added camera or cargo must be re-checked.14 CFR §107.3

During preflight you notice that one of your lithium-polymer battery packs has a slight bulge in its case. What should you do?

• a.Fly one short mission with it, then retire the pack after landing
• b.Charge the pack to full capacity so the cells reseat before flight
• c.Remove the pack from service and follow the manufacturer's disposal guidance✓
• d.Use the pack but raise the low-voltage warning to end the flight sooner

A swollen case indicates internal cell damage, and such a pack can lose power without warning or catch fire, so it must be taken out of service and disposed of as the manufacturer directs. Flying it briefly, charging it, or changing the failsafe setting does nothing to repair the damaged cells. Charging a swollen pack is especially hazardous because it adds energy to a failing cell.

A remote pilot launches a small UAS loaded above the manufacturer's maximum gross weight, and a sudden gust pushes it off the intended path. What should the pilot expect?

• a.The aircraft holds altitude easily because the payload acts as steadying ballast
• b.The overloaded aircraft has little reserve power, so recovery is slower and harder✓
• c.Recovery is quicker because a heavier aircraft cuts through wind more effectively
• d.The flight controller compensates automatically, so handling remains unaffected

At or above maximum gross weight the motors are already near full output just to hold the aircraft up, leaving almost no reserve thrust to arrest a gust-induced deviation. The result is sluggish, incomplete recovery and a real risk of losing control or striking an obstacle. Extra weight does not steady the aircraft, and no flight controller can create thrust that the overloaded powerplant cannot deliver.

Before flying a new payload on a windy day, where should a remote pilot find the aircraft's weight limits and performance data?

• a.In the chart supplement entry for the nearest towered airport
• b.In the legend printed on the current VFR sectional chart
• c.In the figures published in the knowledge test supplement booklet
• d.In the manufacturer's operating limitations and load charts✓

Weight limits, center of gravity range, and endurance data are specific to the model, so the manufacturer's operating limitations and load charts are the authoritative source. Strong wind raises the power needed to hold position, which shrinks the endurance those charts predict, so the pilot should plan conservatively. Chart supplements, sectional legends, and test supplement figures describe airspace and airport information, not the performance of a particular aircraft.

A remote pilot decides to skip the preflight inspection, reasoning, 'This aircraft has flown 200 times without a single problem, so nothing will go wrong today.' Which hazardous attitude is this, and what is its antidote?

• a.Invulnerability — 'It could happen to me.'✓
• b.Impulsivity — 'Not so fast. Think first.'
• c.Macho — 'Taking chances is foolish.'
• d.Resignation — 'I'm not helpless. I can make a difference.'

Believing that trouble only happens to other people is the hazardous attitude of invulnerability, and its standard antidote is 'It could happen to me.' Impulsivity is acting before thinking, which is not the reasoning stated here. Macho is taking risks to prove ability, and resignation is feeling that outcomes are outside your control — neither matches a pilot who assumes the aircraft cannot fail.

Before a rooftop mapping flight, the RPIC holds a short briefing that covers the flight plan, each person's role, the exact phrases the VO will use to call traffic, and the plan if the control link is lost. This practice is the essence of:

• a.Automation management of the flight controller software
• b.The manufacturer's scheduled maintenance program
• c.Airspace authorization coordination with ATC
• d.Crew resource management (CRM) using all available resources✓

CRM is the effective use of every available resource — people, hardware, and information — and a preflight crew briefing that assigns roles and standardizes VO calls is a core CRM technique. Automation management concerns how the pilot supervises the aircraft's automatic modes, not crew coordination. Maintenance programs and airspace authorizations are separate tasks that a briefing may mention but does not define.

In the 3P model of aeronautical decision making (ADM), what does the remote pilot do during the 'Process' step?

• a.Scan the operating area to detect hazards and gather information
• b.Evaluate how the identified hazards affect the safety of the flight✓
• c.Carry out the chosen course of action and review the result
• d.Log the flight time and battery cycles after the aircraft lands

The 3P model is Perceive, Process, Perform: Process is the middle step, where the pilot analyzes the hazards already perceived and judges their effect on the flight. Perceiving is the information-gathering step, and performing is acting on the decision and then re-evaluating. Recording flight time is recordkeeping, not part of the ADM model.

During a long summer survey in direct sun, the visual observer reports a headache, dizziness, and muscle cramps. What is the most likely cause and the best immediate response?

• a.Night vision loss; wait about 30 minutes for the eyes to adapt
• b.Carbon monoxide exposure; move the control station upwind
• c.Dehydration and heat stress; rest in shade and drink fluids✓
• d.Normal eye strain; issue polarized sunglasses and keep flying

Headache, fatigue, dizziness, and cramps during hot outdoor work are classic signs of dehydration and heat stress, and the response is to stop, get out of the sun, and rehydrate. Dark adaptation applies to night vision, not to symptoms in bright sun. Carbon monoxide is a cabin hazard for manned aircraft, and treating the symptoms as ordinary eye strain ignores a condition that degrades the crew's judgment.

An in-flight emergency forces an RPIC to climb above 400 ft AGL to avoid colliding with a low-flying helicopter. Under Part 107, which statement is correct?

• a.The deviation is prohibited unless a written waiver was obtained first
• b.The RPIC must report the deviation to the local law enforcement agency
• c.The RPIC may deviate only after receiving verbal approval from ATC
• d.The RPIC may deviate as needed and must report in writing if the FAA asks✓

Section 107.21 lets the RPIC deviate from most Part 107 rules to the extent necessary to meet an in-flight emergency, and a written report is required only if the Administrator requests one. No advance waiver or ATC clearance is needed, because an emergency by definition cannot wait for paperwork. Local law enforcement is not the reporting authority for a Part 107 deviation.14 CFR §107.21

While inspecting a cell tower, the RPIC loses the control link and the aircraft stops responding to inputs. Which item, known before launch, is most useful for managing this situation?

• a.The programmed lost-link behavior, such as return-to-home, hover, or land✓
• b.The maximum takeoff weight published by the aircraft manufacturer
• c.The registration number and expiration date shown on the certificate
• d.The end of civil twilight computed for the day of the operation

Knowing how the aircraft is programmed to behave when the link drops lets the RPIC predict where it will go and keep people and property clear of that path. Takeoff weight, registration data, and twilight times matter for other Part 107 requirements, but none of them tells the pilot what the aircraft will do after a lost link. Reviewing the failsafe setting is part of a normal preflight.

Which visual technique best helps a remote pilot and VO see the aircraft and other traffic during a night operation?

• a.Stare steadily at the aircraft's position light without shifting the eyes
• b.Sweep the sky with a bright white flashlight every few minutes
• c.Look slightly off-center of an object and allow about 30 minutes to adapt✓
• d.Wear dark sunglasses so that nearby ground lighting cannot cause glare

At night the center of the eye is least sensitive, so off-center (peripheral) viewing plus roughly 30 minutes of dark adaptation gives the best chance of seeing dim objects. Staring at one point causes the image to fade, and a bright flashlight or any white light destroys the adaptation you spent 30 minutes building. Dark sunglasses reduce the light reaching the eye and make night detection worse, not better.

On the morning of a job, an RPIC takes an over-the-counter antihistamine whose label warns that it may cause drowsiness. What does Part 107 require?

• a.Fly only if a visual observer is present to watch the aircraft
• b.Do not act as RPIC while the medication would affect safe operation✓
• c.Fly only during the first 30 minutes after taking the dose, then land
• d.Obtain a medical certificate from an aviation medical examiner first

Section 107.17 prohibits acting as RPIC, VO, or direct participant when you know or have reason to know of a physical or mental condition — including the effects of medication — that would interfere with safe operation. Adding a VO does not cure the pilot's own impairment, and there is no rule that legalizes flying inside a short window after a dose. Part 107 requires no medical certificate at all, so option d states a requirement that does not exist.14 CFR §107.17

Which statement best describes the difference between scheduled and unscheduled maintenance on a small UAS?

• a.Scheduled follows the manufacturer's stated interval; unscheduled corrects a discovered problem✓
• b.Scheduled is performed by the FAA; unscheduled is performed by the remote pilot
• c.Scheduled applies only to firmware; unscheduled applies only to airframe parts
• d.Scheduled requires a waiver in advance; unscheduled requires a written accident report

Scheduled maintenance is done at the intervals the manufacturer publishes, such as replacing propellers or servicing motors after a set number of hours or cycles, while unscheduled maintenance addresses a defect found during an inspection or flight, such as a cracked arm or a swollen battery. Either way the operator should keep records of what was done and when. The FAA does not perform maintenance, and the scheduled/unscheduled split has nothing to do with waivers or with a firmware-versus-hardware division.

Arriving at a city park to fly, the RPIC walks the area and notes overhead power lines, a soccer game in progress, and a hospital heliport two blocks away. This site survey directly supports which required action?

• a.Registering the small unmanned aircraft before its first flight
• b.Completing recurrent training every 24 calendar months
• c.Calibrating the aircraft's compass after every battery change
• d.Assessing the operating area and its local hazards before flight✓

Section 107.49 requires the RPIC to assess the operating area and surrounding conditions, including risks to persons and property, before every flight — exactly what a walk-around site survey accomplishes. Registration and recurrent training are periodic administrative duties, not part of the preflight assessment of a specific site. Compass calibration is a manufacturer procedure and is not tied to changing batteries.14 CFR §107.49