AHIMA RHIT (Registered Health Information Technician) Practice Test
Frequently asked questions
How many AHIMA RHIT (Registered Health Information Technician) practice questions are here?+
A full bank of original AHIMA RHIT (Registered Health Information Technician) practice questions across the official content areas, weighted like the real exam, with explanations. Free, no signup.
What is the AHIMA RHIT (Registered Health Information Technician) exam like?+
About 150 questions, 210 minutes. Practice by topic here, then take the full timed mock exam to gauge readiness.
Are these the real exam questions?+
No. Every question is 100% original, written from public primary sources with explanations. We never copy real exam questions or paid prep material.
Can I study in Chinese or Spanish?+
PrepPass practice is in English, 中文 and Español. The official exam is in English — switch the question language to English any time to rehearse the exact terminology you'll see on test day.
Sample practice questions
A few real questions from this free bank, with full explanations. Use the practice tool above for the whole set.
- 1. Data Content, Structure & Governance
A facility's master patient index (MPI) shows that one patient has been assigned two different medical record numbers within the same hospital. This error is best described as:
- a.An overlay
- b.An overlap
- c.A duplicate
- d.A merge
Answer: c
Explanation: A duplicate exists when one patient is assigned two or more medical record numbers within the same facility, so the patient has two separate records. An overlay is the opposite and more dangerous error: two different patients share one medical record number, mixing their data. An overlap is one patient having different numbers across facilities in an enterprise MPI. A merge is the corrective action, not the error. MPI integrity is central to patient safety and data governance.
- 2. Data Content, Structure & Governance
Under the Medicare Conditions of Participation and Joint Commission standards, a history and physical (H&P) for an inpatient must be documented:
- a.Within 24 hours of admission
- b.Within 48 hours of admission
- c.Within 72 hours of admission
- d.Within 7 days of admission
Answer: a
Explanation: CMS Conditions of Participation and Joint Commission require the H&P to be completed and placed in the record within 24 hours of inpatient admission (and before surgery). An H&P completed within 30 days prior to admission may be used if an updated note confirms no changes. Monitoring H&P timeliness is a core HIM record-completion function.
- 3. Data Content, Structure & Governance
A nurse transcribes a verbal order given by a physician during an emergency. To properly authenticate that order, the ordering provider must:
- a.Date, time, and sign (countersign) the order within the timeframe set by CMS and facility policy
- b.Do nothing, because the nurse's signature makes it valid
- c.Write a new order at the patient's next admission
- d.Have the pharmacist co-sign it instead
Answer: a
Explanation: Authentication of a verbal order requires the responsible provider to date, time, and sign it within the timeframe defined by CMS Conditions of Participation, state law, and facility policy. The nurse's transcription documents the order but does not authenticate it. Verbal orders should be limited to true necessity, and HIM monitors timely provider countersignature as part of documentation compliance.
- 4. Data Analytics & Use
A hospital discharged 500 patients during the month, and 15 of those patients died before discharge. The gross death (mortality) rate for the month is:
- a.1.5%
- b.3%
- c.5%
- d.30%
Answer: b
Explanation: Gross death rate = (number of inpatient deaths ÷ number of discharges, including deaths) × 100. Here 15 ÷ 500 = 0.03, or 3%. The gross death rate counts all inpatient deaths, whereas the net death rate excludes deaths occurring within 48 hours of admission. Accurate rate computation is a core HIM statistics skill.
- 5. Data Analytics & Use
During the month, 300 patients were discharged and the total length of stay (discharge days) for all of them was 1,200 days. The average length of stay (ALOS) is:
- a.3 days
- b.4 days
- c.5 days
- d.12 days
Answer: b
Explanation: ALOS = total length of stay (discharge days) ÷ number of discharges = 1,200 ÷ 300 = 4 days. Note that ALOS uses discharges, not admissions, and the median LOS may be reported instead when outliers skew the mean. Length-of-stay statistics support utilization review and benchmarking.
- 6. Revenue Cycle Management
A clinical documentation integrity (CDI) specialist needs clarification because the record shows clinical signs of a condition that is not clearly documented. A compliant physician query should:
- a.Present the relevant clinical indicators and remain non-leading
- b.Suggest the specific diagnosis that yields the highest payment
- c.Instruct the physician to document sepsis to raise the DRG
- d.Be sent only when it will increase the reimbursement
Answer: a
Explanation: A compliant query is non-leading: it states the clinical indicators found in the record (labs, vitals, treatments) and asks the provider to clarify, without suggesting a specific answer or being driven by reimbursement. Leading queries or queries generated only when they raise revenue violate AHIMA/ACDIS query-practice standards and can constitute fraud. The goal is accurate documentation, not a higher DRG.
- 7. Revenue Cycle Management
A Medicare outpatient service is likely to be denied as not medically necessary. Before providing it, the facility should have the patient sign a(n):
- a.Advance Beneficiary Notice of Noncoverage (ABN)
- b.Authorization to release information
- c.Notice of Privacy Practices
- d.General consent to treat
Answer: a
Explanation: An Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN) informs a Medicare beneficiary in advance that a service may not be covered and that they may be financially responsible, giving them the choice to proceed and pay. Without a valid ABN, the provider generally cannot bill the patient for a denied non-covered service. The other documents serve privacy and consent purposes, not financial-liability notice.
- 8. Compliance
The Office of Inspector General (OIG) framework for an effective corporate compliance program is built around how many core elements?
- a.Three
- b.Five
- c.Seven
- d.Ten
Answer: c
Explanation: The OIG describes seven elements of an effective compliance program: written standards/policies, a designated compliance officer/committee, effective training and education, open lines of communication, internal monitoring and auditing, enforcement through disciplinary guidelines, and prompt response and corrective action. These seven elements are a frequent RHIT exam topic and the backbone of healthcare compliance.
- 9. Access, Disclosure, Privacy & Security
Under the HIPAA Privacy Rule, a patient's written authorization is generally NOT required to use or disclose PHI for:
- a.Treatment, payment, and health care operations (TPO)
- b.Marketing communications paid for by a third party
- c.The sale of PHI
- d.Most research uses without a waiver
Answer: a
Explanation: The Privacy Rule permits use and disclosure of PHI for treatment, payment, and health care operations (TPO) without patient authorization. Marketing that is paid for by a third party, the sale of PHI, and most research disclosures do require a valid authorization (or an IRB/Privacy Board waiver for research). Knowing what falls inside TPO is essential to correct release-of-information decisions.
- 10. Leadership
When calculating staffing needs, one full-time equivalent (FTE) employee is generally considered equal to how many paid hours per year?
- a.1,040
- b.1,560
- c.2,080
- d.2,600
Answer: c
Explanation: One FTE equals 2,080 paid hours per year (40 hours/week × 52 weeks). Managers convert workload and productivity data into FTE requirements to justify staffing. Note that productive hours are lower than 2,080 once paid time off, holidays, and orientation are subtracted, which is why productive-hour adjustments matter in real scheduling.