Lean Six Sigma Green Belt Practice Exam — All Questions

In the Define phase, what is the primary purpose of a project charter?

• a.To document the final control plan
• b.To perform hypothesis testing on the data
• c.To formally authorize the project and align the team on problem, scope, goal, and business case✓
• d.To calculate the process sigma level

The charter is the foundational Define deliverable: it states the problem, scope, goal, business case, team, and timeline so the project is authorized and everyone shares the same objective. Sigma calculations, control plans, and hypothesis tests come in later DMAIC phases.

A SIPOC diagram is used to define which of the following?

• a.The high-level process: Suppliers, Inputs, Process, Outputs, and Customers✓
• b.The financial return on the project
• c.The statistical distribution of a critical output
• d.The root cause of every defect

SIPOC gives a high-level map of Suppliers, Inputs, Process, Outputs, and Customers to bound the process under study. It is a scoping tool, not a statistical, financial, or root-cause analysis tool.

"Critical to Quality" (CTQ) characteristics are best described as:

• a.Measurable product or process features that translate the customer's needs into requirements✓
• b.The control limits on a process behavior chart
• c.Non-value-added steps in the value stream
• d.The team members assigned to the project

CTQs convert the Voice of the Customer into specific, measurable requirements the process must meet. They are derived from customer needs, not from team rosters, control charts, or waste categories.

Which tool helps a Green Belt prioritize which projects or problems to work on by weighting customer requirements against options?

• a.Ishikawa (fishbone) diagram
• b.Histogram
• c.Pugh matrix or prioritization matrix✓
• d.Control chart

A prioritization or Pugh matrix scores options against weighted criteria to guide selection. Fishbone diagrams find causes, control charts monitor stability, and histograms show distribution shape.

Which of the following is the best-written problem statement for a Define-phase charter?

• a.Over the last 6 months, 14% of orders shipped after their promised date, versus a 2% target, costing about $80K in expedite fees✓
• b.Because the warehouse crew keeps mishandling orders, the team should buy new routing software this quarter to stop the delivery complaints
• c.The team should install a new scheduling system to fix late shipments
• d.Late shipments are caused by the packaging department and must be corrected

A sound problem statement is specific, measurable, and neutral: it states what is wrong, where, when, and the magnitude (baseline vs target), without naming a cause or a solution. Options that pre-assign a cause ('packaging department') or a solution ('install a system') violate that rule.

A goal statement in a project charter should be:

• a.A list of every stakeholder affected by the project
• b.Broad and open-ended so the team is not constrained
• c.Focused on the suspected root cause of the defect
• d.SMART — Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, and Time-bound✓

Goal statements follow the SMART criteria so success is unambiguous and time-bound (e.g., 'reduce late shipments from 14% to 2% by Q4'). Vague or open-ended goals cannot be verified, and root-cause identification belongs to Analyze.

The business case section of a project charter primarily answers which question?

• a.Which appraiser measured the parts
• b.What the control limits of the process are
• c.Why the organization should invest resources in this project now✓
• d.Which statistical test should be run on the data

The business case links the project to strategy and finances, explaining the value and urgency of doing the work now. It justifies the investment; statistical tests, control limits, and appraisers are downstream execution details.

Defining what is 'in scope' and 'out of scope' on a charter is important mainly because it:

• a.Replaces the need for a control plan
• b.Sets clear process boundaries and helps prevent scope creep✓
• c.Guarantees the project will finish under budget
• d.Calculates the process sigma level

Scope boundaries bound the process being improved and protect the team from scope creep — the uncontrolled expansion of work. They do not compute capability or guarantee budget outcomes.

'Voice of the Customer' (VOC) refers to:

• a.The collected needs, expectations, and preferences of customers, in their own terms✓
• b.The internal cost targets set by the finance department
• c.The upper and lower control limits of a process
• d.The regulatory limits imposed by a government agency

VOC captures what customers need and expect, expressed in their language, and is later translated into measurable CTQ requirements. Internal cost targets are the Voice of the Business, and control/regulatory limits are separate concepts.

Which of these is a REACTIVE source of Voice of the Customer data?

• a.Warranty claims and customer complaints✓
• b.A designed customer interview
• c.A market-research survey sent before launch
• d.A proactively scheduled focus group

Reactive VOC arrives without you asking — complaints, returns, and warranty claims come to you after a problem. Surveys, interviews, and focus groups are proactive methods you initiate to gather customer input.

Interviews, surveys, and focus groups are examples of what kind of VOC gathering?

• a.Measurement system analyses
• b.Statistical process control tools
• c.Reactive methods that wait for feedback to arrive
• d.Proactive methods the team deliberately initiates✓

Proactive VOC methods actively solicit input from customers before problems escalate. Reactive methods (complaints, returns) wait for feedback; SPC and MSA are Measure/Control analytical tools.

In the Kano model, a 'must-be' (basic) requirement is one that:

• a.Causes dissatisfaction when absent but is simply expected when present✓
• b.Increases satisfaction linearly as performance improves
• c.Delights customers when present because they never expected it
• d.Has no effect on customer satisfaction either way

Kano basic (must-be) needs are taken for granted: their absence angers customers, but their presence earns no extra credit. Delighters exceed expectations, and performance (one-dimensional) needs scale satisfaction with performance.

A Kano 'delighter' (exciter/attractive) feature is characterized by the fact that:

• a.Its absence makes customers very angry
• b.Customers explicitly ask for it in every survey
• c.Satisfaction rises in direct proportion to how much is delivered
• d.Its presence delights customers, but its absence does not dissatisfy them✓

Delighters are unexpected features that surprise and please; because customers do not expect them, their absence causes no dissatisfaction. Must-be needs anger customers when missing, and performance needs scale linearly.

A Kano 'performance' (one-dimensional) requirement is one where:

• a.More is better — satisfaction increases roughly linearly with the level delivered✓
• b.The requirement is impossible to measure
• c.Presence or absence has no effect on satisfaction
• d.The feature only ever dissatisfies, never satisfies

Performance (one-dimensional) needs — like fuel economy or battery life — track satisfaction linearly: the more you deliver, the happier the customer. They contrast with basic (must-be) and delighter needs.

The primary purpose of a CTQ tree (critical-to-quality tree) is to:

• a.Break a broad customer need down into specific, measurable requirements✓
• b.Estimate the standard deviation of the process
• c.Plot data points over time to detect special causes
• d.Rank defects from most to least frequent

A CTQ tree drills a general need (e.g., 'fast service') into drivers and then into measurable CTQs (e.g., 'answer within 30 seconds'). Pareto charts rank defects, and control charts monitor time-ordered data.

A customer says, 'I want my coffee hot.' Which of the following best translates this VOC into a CTQ?

• a.Coffee quality is important to the business
• b.The barista should try harder to keep coffee warm
• c.Serving temperature must be between 155 and 175 degrees Fahrenheit✓
• d.Customers value hot coffee

A CTQ converts a subjective need into a specific, measurable requirement with a target and limits (temperature 155-175 F). Restating the need or an intention ('try harder') is not measurable and cannot be verified.

In a SIPOC, what does the 'I' stand for, and what does it represent?

• a.Issues — the known problems to be solved
• b.Inspection — the quality checks within the process
• c.Indicators — the key performance metrics
• d.Inputs — the materials, information, and resources entering the process✓

SIPOC = Suppliers, Inputs, Process, Outputs, Customers. Inputs are what suppliers provide into the process (materials, data, resources). It is a scoping tool, not an inspection or metrics list.

In a SIPOC diagram, the 'Outputs' column captures:

• a.The people who supply raw materials
• b.The root causes of process defects
• c.The equipment used inside the process
• d.The products, services, or information the process delivers to customers✓

Outputs are what the process produces and hands to the customers (goods, services, information). Suppliers provide inputs, and root causes are found later in Analyze.

When building a SIPOC, the team typically defines the process as a high-level flow of how many major steps?

• a.Every micro-step, often 50 or more
• b.About 4 to 7 high-level steps with a clear start and stop point✓
• c.Only the final inspection step
• d.Exactly two steps in all cases

SIPOC keeps the process at a high level — roughly 4-7 major steps with defined start and stop boundaries — to scope the effort. Detailed process mapping with many micro-steps comes later in Measure.

Stakeholder analysis in the Define phase is used to:

• a.Determine the sample size for data collection
• b.Calculate the DPMO and the corresponding long-term sigma level of the current process baseline
• c.Identify who is affected by or can influence the project, and plan how to engage them✓
• d.Set the upper and lower specification limits

Stakeholder analysis maps the people affected by or influential over the project and how to gain their support or manage resistance. It is a change-management tool, not a statistical or specification-setting one.

In a RACI matrix, the 'R' identifies the person who is:

• a.Reviewing — the one who audits the results
• b.Responsible — the one who actually does the work✓
• c.Removed — the one with no involvement
• d.Reporting — the one who publishes status

In RACI (Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed), the Responsible party performs the task. Accountable owns the outcome, Consulted gives input, and Informed is kept up to date.

A best practice for the 'Accountable' role in a RACI chart is that:

• a.Accountability rotates daily among team members
• b.Every task should have at least three accountable people
• c.Exactly one person is accountable for each task or deliverable✓
• d.The accountable person must also do all the hands-on work

RACI assigns a single Accountable owner per task so ownership is unambiguous ('the one throat to choke'). Multiple accountable parties dilute ownership; the Responsible person does the hands-on work.

The Champion of a Six Sigma project is typically:

• a.The frontline operator who collects the data
• b.A senior leader who removes barriers, secures resources, and aligns the project with strategy✓
• c.An outside auditor who independently certifies the final results and formally signs off on the reported savings
• d.The full-time technical expert who runs the statistics

The Champion is a senior sponsor who provides resources, clears organizational roadblocks, and ties the project to business goals. Technical execution belongs to Belts, and data collection to team members.

Which role is generally responsible for deploying Six Sigma across the organization and mentoring Black Belts?

• a.Yellow Belt
• b.Green Belt
• c.Process operator
• d.Master Black Belt✓

The Master Black Belt is a full-time expert who trains and coaches Black and Green Belts and helps drive deployment strategy. Green and Yellow Belts work on projects part-time with less depth.

A Black Belt is best described as:

• a.The person who signs the final financial audit
• b.The senior executive who funds the entire Six Sigma program and also sets its overall deployment strategy
• c.A full-time project leader with advanced statistical training who leads complex improvement projects✓
• d.A part-time team member who supports data collection only

Black Belts lead cross-functional projects full-time and have deep DMAIC and statistical expertise. Champions/executives fund the program, and part-time support with narrower training describes Green or Yellow Belts.

A Green Belt most commonly:

• a.Has no meaningful role on improvement projects and merely reviews the finished results at the very end
• b.Provides executive sponsorship and funding
• c.Leads smaller projects and supports Black Belts while keeping their regular job duties✓
• d.Works full-time on Six Sigma and mentors Black Belts

Green Belts apply Six Sigma part-time, leading smaller-scope projects and assisting Black Belts, while still performing their normal job. Mentoring Belts is a Master Black Belt duty; funding is the Champion's.

The 'process owner' in a Six Sigma project is the person who:

• a.Sets the corporate Six Sigma strategy
• b.Certifies Black Belts across the company
• c.Performs all of the hypothesis testing and statistical analysis for the entire project team on a full-time basis
• d.Is responsible for the day-to-day operation of the process and will sustain the improvements after handoff✓

The process owner manages the process in daily operations and inherits the control plan to sustain gains once the project closes. Strategy is executive-level, and hypothesis testing is a Belt task.

In Tuckman's model of team development, which stage is characterized by conflict as members jockey for position and challenge ideas?

• a.Norming
• b.Forming
• c.Performing
• d.Storming✓

Tuckman's stages are Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing. Storming is the conflict stage where disagreements surface. Forming is polite orientation, Norming settles into cooperation, and Performing is high productivity.

In Tuckman's team-development model, the 'Forming' stage is best described as:

• a.The stage of open conflict and competition
• b.The final adjourning stage where the team disbands and celebrates once all the project deliverables are complete
• c.The stage of peak, self-directed productivity
• d.The initial stage where members are polite, orient to the task, and depend on the leader for direction✓

Forming is the polite orientation phase where the team gets acquainted and looks to the leader for structure. Conflict is Storming, high output is Performing, and disbanding is the later Adjourning stage.

A team that has resolved its conflicts and established shared norms, roles, and trust is in which Tuckman stage?

• a.Performing
• b.Storming
• c.Norming✓
• d.Forming

Norming is when the team settles disagreements and agrees on how it will work together, building cohesion and trust. It precedes Performing, the high-productivity stage, and follows Storming.

Which Tuckman stage is marked by high cohesion, autonomy, and the team delivering results with minimal friction?

• a.Forming
• b.Performing✓
• c.Norming
• d.Storming

Performing is the mature, high-output stage where a cohesive team operates with little supervision. Forming and Storming are earlier, less productive stages, and Norming is the transition into cooperation.

When selecting Six Sigma projects, a strong candidate project generally has:

• a.A predetermined solution that only needs implementing
• b.No connection to business goals or customer needs
• c.An unknown, undefined problem with no data available
• d.A clear gap between current and desired performance, customer impact, and a feasible scope✓

Good projects target a measurable performance gap, matter to customers or the business, and are appropriately scoped and solvable with DMAIC. Projects with known solutions ('just do it') or no data are poor fits.

Cost of Poor Quality (COPQ) refers to:

• a.The salaries of the executive team
• b.The purchase price of new production equipment
• c.The costs that would disappear if products and processes were defect-free✓
• d.The revenue generated by the best-selling product

COPQ is the total cost incurred because things are not done right the first time — scrap, rework, warranty, inspection, and lost goodwill. It is the money a defect-free operation would save, not capital or payroll costs.

The four classic categories of quality cost are prevention, appraisal, internal failure, and:

• a.Marketing cost
• b.Depreciation
• c.External failure✓
• d.Overhead

Quality costs split into prevention (avoiding defects), appraisal (inspection/testing), internal failure (defects caught before shipment), and external failure (defects reaching the customer). External failure is typically the most costly.

Warranty claims, returns, and product recalls are examples of which quality-cost category?

• a.External failure costs✓
• b.Internal failure costs
• c.Appraisal costs
• d.Prevention costs

External failure costs occur when a defect escapes to the customer (warranty, returns, recalls, lost goodwill). Internal failures are caught before shipment, appraisal is inspection, and prevention avoids defects up front.

DMADV (Define, Measure, Analyze, Design, Verify) rather than DMAIC is generally used when:

• a.You are designing a new product or process, or completely redesigning one, to meet requirements✓
• b.You are simply auditing an existing control plan
• c.An existing process needs incremental improvement
• d.You only want to build a control chart to keep monitoring an already well-performing existing process

DMADV (a Design for Six Sigma roadmap) is for creating a new process/product or a ground-up redesign. DMAIC improves an existing process that already produces output but underperforms.

The Six Sigma expression Y = f(X) conveys the idea that:

• a.The customer is always right
• b.An output (Y) is a function of one or more process inputs (Xs)✓
• c.Every project must use factorial designs
• d.Yield always equals the number of defects

Y = f(X) frames the output/result (the Y) as driven by the process inputs/causes (the Xs); improvement means finding and controlling the vital few Xs. It is the core cause-and-effect logic of DMAIC, not a yield formula.

In the context of Y = f(X), the project's 'Big Y' is:

• a.The appraiser performing the gage study
• b.The primary output metric the project is trying to improve, tied to the business/customer✓
• c.The least important process input
• d.A random measurement error introduced by the gage or appraiser during the data-collection step

The Big Y is the high-level outcome (e.g., on-time delivery, defect rate) the project aims to move; the Xs are the process factors influencing it. Identifying the Big Y keeps the team focused on what matters to the customer.

An affinity diagram is most useful for:

• a.Detecting special-cause variation over time
• b.Setting the sample size for a study
• c.Computing process capability indices
• d.Organizing a large number of ideas or VOC items into natural groupings✓

An affinity diagram sorts many brainstormed ideas or customer statements into logical themes, making a large qualitative dataset manageable. It is an organizing tool, not a statistical or control-charting method.

Benchmarking, as used to support a Six Sigma project, means:

• a.Setting control limits three sigma from the mean
• b.Multiplying the total number of defects by one million to report a single headline quality figure
• c.Comparing your process or performance against best-in-class organizations or standards✓
• d.Randomly sampling parts for inspection

Benchmarking compares your metrics and practices to leaders (internal or external) to set realistic, ambitious targets and learn better methods. It informs goal-setting, not control-limit or DPMO calculations.