CompTIA Security+ — All Questions

Requiring a password plus a one-time code from a phone app is an example of:

• a.Role-based access
• b.Federation
• c.Multifactor authentication✓
• d.Single sign-on

Multifactor authentication combines two or more independent factor categories, here something you know and something you have. This greatly reduces the risk from a stolen password alone. An attacker would need to defeat both factors.

Which access control model grants permissions based on a user's assigned job function?

• a.Rule-based access control
• b.Mandatory access control
• c.Discretionary access control
• d.Role-based access control✓

Role-based access control (RBAC) assigns permissions to roles, and users inherit access by being placed in a role. It simplifies administration and enforces consistency. Changing a role updates access for everyone assigned to it.

Which model uses security labels and clearances, common in government, where the system enforces access centrally?

• a.Discretionary access control
• b.Attribute-based access control
• c.Mandatory access control✓
• d.Role-based access control

Mandatory access control (MAC) enforces access based on classification labels and clearances set by a central authority. Users cannot change permissions on resources they own. It is used where strict, non-discretionary control is required.

Which secure protocol replaces Telnet for encrypted remote command-line access?

• a.HTTP
• b.SNMPv1
• c.FTP
• d.SSH✓

Secure Shell (SSH) provides encrypted remote administration, replacing the plaintext Telnet protocol. It protects credentials and session data in transit. SSH also underpins secure file transfer and tunneling.

Which protocol secures web traffic by encrypting HTTP with TLS?

• a.SMTP
• b.LDAP
• c.SFTP
• d.HTTPS✓

HTTPS layers HTTP over TLS to encrypt web traffic, protecting confidentiality and integrity between browser and server. It also authenticates the server through its certificate. Modern sites should use TLS 1.2 or 1.3 with strong ciphers.

Which protocol provides secure file transfer by running over an SSH connection?

• a.TFTP
• b.FTPS
• c.SFTP✓
• d.HTTP

SFTP transfers files over an SSH channel, encrypting both credentials and data. It differs from FTPS, which is FTP secured with TLS. SFTP uses a single connection, simplifying firewall configuration.

Which technology creates an encrypted tunnel for remote users to access a private network over the internet?

• a.DMZ
• b.NAT
• c.VPN✓
• d.Proxy

A virtual private network (VPN) establishes an encrypted tunnel over an untrusted network, protecting traffic between the remote user and the corporate network. It preserves confidentiality and integrity in transit. IPsec and TLS are common VPN foundations.

Which single sign-on standard is widely used to exchange authentication data between identity providers and web applications?

• a.TACACS+
• b.SAML✓
• c.RADIUS
• d.Kerberos

Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) exchanges authentication and authorization assertions between an identity provider and service providers, enabling web single sign-on. The identity provider vouches for the user so each application does not manage passwords. It is common in enterprise federation.

Replacing sensitive data such as a credit card number with a non-sensitive substitute value is called:

• a.Tokenization✓
• b.Hashing
• c.Salting
• d.Compression

Tokenization swaps sensitive data for a meaningless token, keeping the real value in a secure vault. The token has no exploitable value if stolen. It is widely used to reduce the scope of payment card data handling.

A dedicated hardware device that securely generates and stores cryptographic keys is a:

• a.Proximity token
• b.TPM
• c.Smart card
• d.Hardware security module✓

A hardware security module (HSM) is a tamper-resistant device that generates, stores, and manages cryptographic keys and performs crypto operations. It keeps keys isolated from general-purpose systems. HSMs are common in PKI and high-assurance environments.

Which chip on a motherboard stores keys and supports features like full-disk encryption and secure boot?

• a.Smart card
• b.CPU cache
• c.HSM
• d.Trusted Platform Module✓

The Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a chip integrated into a device that securely stores keys and measurements for boot integrity and disk encryption. It binds encryption to specific hardware. It underpins features like BitLocker and secure boot.

Which property ensures a sender cannot later deny having sent a signed message?

• a.Availability
• b.Non-repudiation✓
• c.Anonymity
• d.Confidentiality

Non-repudiation prevents a party from convincingly denying an action, such as sending a digitally signed message. It relies on the private key being unique to the signer. Digital signatures and reliable logs provide non-repudiation.

Which is the correct order of the incident response process?

• a.Preparation, detection, containment, eradication, recovery, lessons learned✓
• b.Recovery, containment, detection, preparation, lessons learned
• c.Detection, preparation, recovery, containment, eradication
• d.Containment, detection, recovery, preparation, eradication

A standard incident response lifecycle proceeds through preparation, detection and analysis, containment, eradication, recovery, and lessons learned. Preparation comes first so the team is ready before an incident. Lessons learned closes the loop to improve future response.

During incident response, which step focuses on limiting the damage and preventing the threat from spreading?

• a.Containment✓
• b.Preparation
• c.Recovery
• d.Eradication

Containment isolates affected systems to stop the incident from spreading while preserving evidence. It buys time to plan eradication without further loss. Short-term and long-term containment strategies balance disruption and safety.

Which system aggregates and correlates log data from many sources to detect security events in near real time?

• a.IDS
• b.DLP
• c.SIEM✓
• d.VPN

A security information and event management (SIEM) system centralizes logs from across the environment and correlates them to surface incidents. It supports alerting, dashboards, and investigation. Effective tuning reduces alert fatigue and false positives.

Which control monitors network traffic and actively blocks detected malicious activity inline?

• a.IPS✓
• b.IDS
• c.Honeypot
• d.SIEM

An intrusion prevention system (IPS) sits inline and can automatically block or drop malicious traffic it detects. Unlike an IDS, which only alerts, an IPS takes preventive action. Tuning is important to avoid blocking legitimate traffic.

Which technology inspects data in motion and at rest to prevent unauthorized exfiltration of sensitive information?

• a.Firewall
• b.VPN
• c.Data loss prevention✓
• d.Load balancer

Data loss prevention (DLP) detects and blocks sensitive data from leaving the organization through email, uploads, or removable media. It uses content inspection and policy rules. DLP helps enforce compliance and protect intellectual property.

Which process applies vendor updates to fix known software vulnerabilities?

• a.Hardening
• b.Patch management✓
• c.Baselining
• d.Tokenization

Patch management is the disciplined process of testing and deploying vendor updates to remediate vulnerabilities. Timely patching closes known exploit paths. A formal cycle balances speed with stability testing.

Reducing a system's attack surface by disabling unneeded services and applying secure configurations is called:

• a.Segmentation
• b.Failover
• c.Federation
• d.Hardening✓

Hardening strengthens a system by removing unnecessary services, closing ports, and applying secure settings and baselines. It reduces the attack surface before deployment. Configuration benchmarks guide consistent hardening.

Which practice ensures evidence remains admissible by documenting who handled it and when?

• a.Legal hold
• b.Chain of custody✓
• c.Data retention
• d.Nondisclosure

Chain of custody documents every person who handled evidence and each transfer, preserving integrity for legal proceedings. Gaps can render evidence inadmissible. It is essential in digital forensics and investigations.

During forensic acquisition, why is a cryptographic hash taken of a disk image?

• a.To compress the image
• b.To encrypt the evidence
• c.To prove the copy was not altered✓
• d.To speed up analysis

Hashing the original and the forensic image proves they are identical and that the evidence was not modified. Matching hashes demonstrate integrity throughout the investigation. Any change to the data would produce a different hash.

Which type of backup captures only the data changed since the last full backup and does not clear the archive bit each time?

• a.Incremental
• b.Full
• c.Differential✓
• d.Snapshot

A differential backup copies all data changed since the last full backup, growing larger each day until the next full. Restores require the last full plus the latest differential. Incremental backups, by contrast, capture changes since the last backup of any type.

Which metric defines the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time?

• a.RTO
• b.MTTR
• c.MTBF
• d.RPO✓

The recovery point objective (RPO) is the maximum tolerable data loss expressed as a time window, guiding backup frequency. An RPO of one hour means backups must occur at least hourly. It differs from RTO, which addresses restoration time.

Which metric defines the maximum acceptable time to restore a service after an outage?

• a.MTBF
• b.MTTF
• c.RPO
• d.RTO✓

The recovery time objective (RTO) is the target duration within which a service must be restored after disruption. It drives decisions about redundancy and recovery capability. Meeting the RTO limits business impact from downtime.

Which recovery site is fully equipped and can take over operations almost immediately?

• a.Hot site✓
• b.Cold site
• c.Mobile site
• d.Warm site

A hot site is fully provisioned with hardware, data, and connectivity so it can assume operations quickly. It offers the fastest recovery but the highest cost. Cold sites are cheaper but require significant setup time.

Which scan identifies known weaknesses in systems without actively exploiting them?

• a.Fuzzing
• b.Penetration test
• c.Red team exercise
• d.Vulnerability scan✓

A vulnerability scan enumerates known weaknesses using signatures and checks without exploiting them. It is broad and repeatable for routine assessment. A penetration test goes further by attempting actual exploitation.

An authorized simulated attack that attempts to exploit vulnerabilities to test defenses is a:

• a.Penetration test✓
• b.Tabletop exercise
• c.Vulnerability scan
• d.Compliance audit

A penetration test authorizes ethical hackers to actively exploit weaknesses to demonstrate real-world risk. It validates whether vulnerabilities are truly exploitable and how far an attacker could get. Rules of engagement define scope and limits.

Which detection method flags activity that deviates from an established normal pattern?

• a.Signature-based
• b.Anomaly-based✓
• c.Rule-based
• d.Whitelist-based

Anomaly-based detection builds a baseline of normal behavior and alerts on deviations, enabling detection of novel attacks. It can catch previously unseen threats but may produce more false positives. Signature-based detection, by contrast, matches known patterns.

Which endpoint solution continuously records activity and enables investigation and automated response to threats on hosts?

• a.Screen lock policy
• b.Antivirus signature file
• c.Host firewall
• d.EDR✓

Endpoint detection and response (EDR) continuously monitors endpoint behavior, records telemetry, and supports rapid investigation and automated containment. It goes beyond signature antivirus by detecting suspicious behavior. It is central to modern threat hunting and response.

Which practice ensures logs cannot be tampered with by centralizing them on a protected, write-once server?

• a.Log rotation
• b.Log integrity and centralization✓
• c.Log compression
• d.Log sampling

Centralizing logs on a hardened, tamper-resistant server preserves their integrity for investigations. Attackers often try to delete local logs to hide activity, so protected central storage defeats this. Techniques like write-once media and hashing further ensure integrity.

A discussion-based session where a team walks through their response to a hypothetical incident is called a:

• a.Vulnerability assessment
• b.Full interruption test
• c.Penetration test
• d.Tabletop exercise✓

A tabletop exercise is a discussion-based walkthrough of a scenario to validate plans and roles without touching production. It reveals gaps in the incident response or continuity plan at low cost. It complements more disruptive technical tests.

Which automation approach uses playbooks to coordinate tools and streamline security operations tasks?

• a.DLP
• b.SIEM
• c.SOAR✓
• d.EDR

Security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR) uses playbooks to automate and coordinate actions across security tools. It accelerates repetitive response tasks and reduces analyst workload. It often works alongside a SIEM to act on alerts.

Which principle requires that two people perform a sensitive action together to prevent fraud?

• a.Mandatory vacation
• b.Least privilege
• c.Separation of duties✓
• d.Job rotation

Separation of duties splits a critical task so no single person controls it end to end, reducing fraud and error. For example, one person requests a payment and another approves it. It is a key internal control in security and finance.

Rotating employees through different roles helps detect fraud and reduce dependence on any one person. This control is:

• a.Least privilege
• b.Separation of duties
• c.Job rotation✓
• d.Onboarding

Job rotation moves staff through different duties, which can expose irregularities hidden by a single long-tenured employee. It also reduces single points of knowledge. Mandatory vacations serve a similar detective purpose.

Which secure disposal method makes data on a drive unrecoverable by destroying the media physically?

• a.Deletion
• b.Defragmentation
• c.Formatting
• d.Physical destruction✓

Physical destruction, such as shredding or degaussing, renders storage media and its data unrecoverable. Simple formatting or deletion can leave data recoverable. Destruction is preferred for highly sensitive media at end of life.

Which threat intelligence source consists of shared indicators of compromise that defenders can ingest to detect attacks?

• a.Firmware feed
• b.Marketing feed
• c.Threat feed✓
• d.Social media feed

A threat intelligence feed supplies indicators of compromise such as malicious IPs, domains, and file hashes. Ingesting these into detection tools helps identify known threats quickly. Feeds should be evaluated for relevance and timeliness to be useful.

Which document outlines acceptable and prohibited uses of an organization's IT systems by employees?

• a.Memorandum of understanding
• b.Acceptable use policy✓
• c.Business impact analysis
• d.Service level agreement

An acceptable use policy (AUP) defines how employees may and may not use company systems and data. It sets expectations and provides grounds for enforcement. Users typically acknowledge it as a condition of access.

Which risk response involves purchasing insurance to shift financial impact to a third party?

• a.Risk acceptance
• b.Risk transference✓
• c.Risk mitigation
• d.Risk avoidance

Risk transference shifts the financial consequences of a risk to another party, commonly through insurance or contracts. The risk still exists, but its impact is borne elsewhere. It is chosen when handling the risk directly is impractical or costly.

Choosing to take no action and knowingly bear a low-level risk is called:

• a.Risk acceptance✓
• b.Risk transference
• c.Risk avoidance
• d.Risk mitigation

Risk acceptance is a conscious decision to tolerate a risk, usually when the cost of controls exceeds the potential loss. It should be formally documented and approved. Acceptance is appropriate for low-impact or low-likelihood risks.

Eliminating a risky activity entirely so the risk no longer applies is known as:

• a.Risk mitigation
• b.Risk avoidance✓
• c.Risk acceptance
• d.Risk transference

Risk avoidance removes the risk by discontinuing the activity that causes it. For example, not deploying a feature that would expose sensitive data. It fully eliminates that risk but may sacrifice a business opportunity.

Which regulation governs the protection of personal data for individuals in the European Union?

• a.SOX
• b.PCI DSS
• c.HIPAA
• d.GDPR✓

The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) sets strict requirements for handling the personal data of EU residents. It mandates consent, breach notification, and data subject rights. Non-compliance can result in substantial fines.

Which standard governs the secure handling of payment card data?

• a.HIPAA
• b.PCI DSS✓
• c.FERPA
• d.GDPR

The Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS) defines controls for organizations that store, process, or transmit cardholder data. It is a contractual requirement rather than a law. Compliance reduces the risk of payment data breaches.

Which US regulation protects the privacy and security of health information?

• a.GDPR
• b.PCI DSS
• c.HIPAA✓
• d.GLBA

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) sets requirements for safeguarding protected health information. It applies to healthcare providers, plans, and their business associates. Violations can lead to significant penalties.

A calculation of expected yearly loss from a risk, found by multiplying single loss expectancy by annual rate of occurrence, is the:

• a.Annualized loss expectancy✓
• b.Risk appetite
• c.Exposure factor
• d.Residual risk

Annualized loss expectancy (ALE) estimates the expected yearly cost of a risk by multiplying single loss expectancy (SLE) by the annualized rate of occurrence (ARO). It supports cost-benefit decisions about controls. Spending more than the ALE on mitigation is usually not justified.

Which assessment identifies the critical processes and the impact of their disruption to guide continuity planning?

• a.Business impact analysis✓
• b.Vulnerability scan
• c.Gap analysis
• d.Penetration test

A business impact analysis (BIA) identifies critical business functions and quantifies the effect of their disruption over time. It informs RTO and RPO targets and prioritizes recovery. It is a foundation of business continuity planning.

Which agreement defines the measurable service levels a provider must meet, such as uptime guarantees?

• a.Service level agreement✓
• b.BPA
• c.NDA
• d.MOU

A service level agreement (SLA) specifies measurable commitments like availability and response times, with consequences for missing them. It sets clear expectations between provider and customer. Monitoring against the SLA holds the provider accountable.

Which legal agreement prohibits parties from disclosing confidential information they receive?

• a.SLA
• b.AUP
• c.Non-disclosure agreement✓
• d.MOU

A non-disclosure agreement (NDA) legally binds parties to keep shared confidential information secret. It is common when sharing sensitive data with vendors, partners, or employees. Breaching it can result in legal liability.

The residual risk that remains after all controls have been applied should be:

• a.Eliminated completely
• b.Accepted by management✓
• c.Transferred automatically
• d.Ignored entirely

Residual risk is what remains after mitigations are in place, and it cannot usually be reduced to zero. Senior management should formally acknowledge and accept it. This ensures leadership is aware of and owns the remaining exposure.

Which framework provides a widely used structure for managing cybersecurity risk through functions like Identify, Protect, Detect, Respond, and Recover?

• a.NIST Cybersecurity Framework✓
• b.MITRE ATT&CK
• c.PCI DSS
• d.OWASP Top Ten

The NIST Cybersecurity Framework organizes security activities into core functions: Identify, Protect, Detect, Respond, and Recover. It offers a flexible, risk-based approach adaptable to any organization. It helps align security programs with business goals.

Regular training that teaches employees to recognize phishing and follow security policies is called:

• a.Change management
• b.Security awareness training✓
• c.Penetration testing
• d.Vulnerability management

Security awareness training educates users to recognize threats like phishing and to follow safe practices. Because people are a common attack vector, this reduces human-related risk. Ongoing and simulated exercises reinforce the behavior over time.