CAPM (Certified Associate in Project Management) Practice Exam — All Questions
22 questions
Which statement best defines a project as used in project management?
- a.A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result✓
- b.Any large task that requires more than one person to complete
- c.Ongoing operational work that keeps a business running day to day
- d.A permanent department responsible for delivering repeated outputs
A project is temporary, meaning it has a defined beginning and end, and it produces a unique deliverable. This distinguishes it from ongoing operations, which are repetitive and sustain the business.
The classic 'triple constraint' most commonly refers to the balance between which three factors?
- a.Scope, schedule (time) and cost✓
- b.Risk, quality and stakeholders
- c.People, process and technology
- d.Resources, communication and procurement
The triple constraint balances scope, schedule and cost; changing one typically affects the others. Quality is often shown at the center, as it is influenced by how these constraints are managed.
What is the primary purpose of a project charter?
- a.To provide the day-to-day schedule for the project team
- b.To list every detailed task and its duration for the whole project
- c.To formally authorize the project and give the project manager authority to apply resources✓
- d.To record the final lessons learned at project closure
The project charter formally authorizes the project's existence and empowers the project manager to use organizational resources. It is typically issued by the sponsor and includes high-level objectives, not detailed schedules.
A stakeholder is best described as which of the following?
- a.Only the customer who pays for the project
- b.Only the members of the core project team
- c.Only the executives who approve the project budget
- d.Any individual, group, or organization that may affect, be affected by, or perceive itself to be affected by the project✓
Stakeholders include anyone who can affect or be affected by the project, or who believes they are affected. Identifying them broadly, and managing their engagement, is essential to project success.
Which document defines how the project will be executed, monitored, controlled, and closed, and integrates the subsidiary management plans?
- a.The project management plan✓
- b.The project charter
- c.The work breakdown structure
- d.The stakeholder register
The project management plan is the comprehensive, integrated document describing how the project is carried out across all knowledge areas. It incorporates subsidiary plans such as the scope, schedule, and cost management plans.
In a work breakdown structure (WBS), what is the lowest level of decomposition called?
- a.A summary activity
- b.A milestone
- c.A work package✓
- d.A deliverable
The WBS decomposes project scope into progressively smaller components; the lowest level is the work package, where cost and duration can be reliably estimated and work can be scheduled and controlled.
A predictive (plan-based) life cycle is most appropriate when which condition holds?
- a.Requirements are expected to change frequently throughout delivery
- b.The team wants to deliver small increments and gather feedback each iteration
- c.The product cannot be defined until it is partly built
- d.Requirements are well understood and stable, allowing detailed up-front planning✓
Predictive life cycles suit projects with clear, stable requirements that can be defined early. Scope, schedule, and cost are planned in detail up front, and change is managed through formal change control.
On a network diagram, what does the critical path represent?
- a.The path with the most activities regardless of duration
- b.The longest path through the network, determining the shortest possible project duration✓
- c.The path that contains the most float or slack
- d.The sequence of activities that carries the greatest cost
The critical path is the longest duration path through the schedule network and defines the shortest time in which the project can finish. Activities on it have zero float, so delays there delay the project.
In earned value management, a Cost Performance Index (CPI) of 0.85 indicates what?
- a.The project is over budget, earning 85 cents of value for every dollar spent✓
- b.The project is exactly on budget
- c.The project is ahead of schedule
- d.The project is under budget and running efficiently
CPI equals earned value divided by actual cost. A CPI below 1.0 means the project is over budget: at 0.85, only 85 cents of planned value is being earned for each dollar actually spent.
Which sequence correctly orders progressively more detailed cost estimates from least to most accurate?
- a.Definitive, then rough order of magnitude, then budgetary
- b.Rough order of magnitude, then budgetary, then definitive✓
- c.Definitive, then budgetary, then rough order of magnitude
- d.Budgetary, then definitive, then rough order of magnitude
Estimates become more accurate as planning progresses: a rough order of magnitude estimate is broad and early, a budgetary estimate is intermediate, and a definitive estimate, made with detailed information, is the most accurate.
According to the Agile Manifesto, which value is emphasized in each pairing?
- a.Following a plan over responding to change
- b.Contract negotiation over customer collaboration
- c.Comprehensive documentation over working software
- d.Individuals and interactions over processes and tools✓
The Agile Manifesto values individuals and interactions over processes and tools, working software over comprehensive documentation, customer collaboration over contract negotiation, and responding to change over following a plan, while still valuing the items on the right.
In agile approaches, what is a 'timebox'?
- a.A tool for storing the project's documents
- b.A container that holds all outstanding project risks
- c.A budget reserve set aside for scope changes
- d.A fixed period of time during which an activity or iteration takes place✓
A timebox is a short, fixed duration in which work is done, such as a two-week iteration. The time is fixed and the team adjusts scope to fit, which supports a steady cadence and frequent feedback.
In the Kanban method, what is the main purpose of setting work-in-progress (WIP) limits?
- a.To eliminate the need for a prioritized backlog
- b.To assign each team member exactly one task permanently
- c.To reduce multitasking and improve flow by limiting how much work is in progress at once✓
- d.To guarantee that every task is finished within one day
WIP limits cap the amount of work allowed in a given stage, reducing context switching and bottlenecks. This improves flow and throughput and helps the team surface and resolve impediments quickly.
What does a burndown chart typically display during an iteration?
- a.The amount of remaining work over time, trending toward zero✓
- b.The number of stakeholders engaged each week
- c.The organizational reporting structure of the team
- d.The cumulative cost of the project over its whole life cycle
A burndown chart plots remaining work against time within an iteration or release, ideally trending down to zero by the end. It gives the team a quick, transparent view of progress and likely completion.
A team delivers work in short iterations, but also visualizes flow and applies WIP limits to smooth delivery. This blended approach is often called what?
- a.A purely predictive approach
- b.A waterfall approach
- c.A phase-gate approach
- d.A hybrid approach✓
Combining elements of different approaches, such as iterative delivery with flow-based practices, is a hybrid approach. Teams tailor practices to their context rather than adopting a single framework wholesale.
Within business analysis, what is 'elicitation'?
- a.Formally closing out project contracts
- b.Drawing out information about needs and requirements from stakeholders and other sources✓
- c.Assigning tasks to team members during execution
- d.Calculating the project's return on investment
Elicitation is the activity of drawing out and discovering requirements and other information from stakeholders and sources, using techniques such as interviews, workshops, observation, and document analysis.
Which type of requirement describes a specific behavior or function that a solution must perform, such as 'the system shall send a confirmation email'?
- a.A business requirement
- b.A non-functional requirement
- c.A functional requirement✓
- d.A transition requirement
Functional requirements specify what the solution must do, its behaviors and functions. Non-functional requirements describe qualities such as performance or security, while business requirements state higher-level goals.
What is the primary purpose of a requirements traceability matrix?
- a.To assign a monetary value to each stakeholder
- b.To schedule the project's iterations
- c.To link requirements to their origin and track them through to the deliverables that satisfy them✓
- d.To record risks and their response owners
A requirements traceability matrix connects each requirement to its source and to the deliverables, tests, and objectives it supports. It helps ensure every approved requirement is delivered and nothing is added without justification.
When prioritizing requirements, the MoSCoW technique groups them into which categories?
- a.High, medium, low, and none
- b.Functional, non-functional, business, and transition
- c.Mandatory, optional, deferred, and rejected
- d.Must have, should have, could have, and won't have (this time)✓
MoSCoW prioritizes requirements as Must have, Should have, Could have, and Won't have (for now). It helps stakeholders agree on what is essential versus desirable within the available time and resources.
In agile requirements work, what is 'backlog refinement' (grooming)?
- a.A one-time activity done only at project start
- b.The ongoing activity of adding detail, estimates, and order to backlog items✓
- c.Deleting the backlog and starting a new one each iteration
- d.The act of assigning backlog items permanently to individuals
Backlog refinement is the continuous activity of reviewing backlog items, adding detail and estimates, splitting large items, and reordering them so upcoming work is ready and well understood.
Which list correctly names the five process groups used to organize project management processes?
- a.Concept, development, delivery, support, and retirement
- b.Analyze, design, build, test, and deploy
- c.Initiating, planning, executing, monitoring and controlling, and closing✓
- d.Define, measure, analyze, improve, and control
The five process groups are Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring and Controlling, and Closing. They are not sequential project phases; several can be active at once and they interact across the project.
What is the primary role of a project sponsor?
- a.To perform the technical work of building the deliverables
- b.To write and maintain every detailed requirement document
- c.To provide resources and support, champion the project, and remove high-level obstacles✓
- d.To manage the day-to-day work and schedule of the project team
The sponsor is typically an executive who provides financial resources, authorizes the charter, champions the project, and helps clear organizational obstacles. Day-to-day management is the project manager's responsibility.