CSLB General Building (B) — All Questions

Before forwarding a fabricator's shop drawings to the architect, what is the general contractor's PRIMARY responsibility?

• a.Forward them unopened to save time, leaving the review entirely to the architect
• b.Review and coordinate the drawings with field conditions and other trades, then stamp them✓
• c.Approve them on the architect's behalf so fabrication can be released sooner
• d.Redesign the connections to reduce cost before the architect ever sees them

The GC must review and coordinate shop drawings against field dimensions and adjacent work, and stamp or note that review, before transmitting them to the design professional for final approval. Option d oversteps into design. Option a skips the required coordination that catches conflicts early. Option c usurps the architect's approval authority. The GC's review is a quality-control checkpoint, not final design approval.

Before starting sitework, the crew needs a consistent reference for all elevations across the project. Which practice BEST establishes this?

• a.Use the finished floor of an adjacent building without verification
• b.Estimate grades by eye and adjust later
• c.Measure heights from the top of the nearest fence each day
• d.Set a fixed benchmark and reference all elevations to that datum✓

Establishing a permanent, protected benchmark and referencing every elevation to that single datum ensures footings, slabs, and drainage tie together accurately. Option c uses an unstable reference that can move. Option a assumes an unverified elevation. Option b invites cumulative error. A common datum prevents mismatched grades and costly rework.

Near the end of a project, the owner and architect walk the building and create a list of incomplete or defective items to be corrected before final payment. What is this document BEST called?

• a.A daily report
• b.A submittal log
• c.A bid addendum
• d.A punch list✓

A punch list is the itemized list of remaining or deficient work identified at substantial completion that must be finished before final acceptance and payment. A submittal log tracks product approvals. A bid addendum revises documents during bidding. A daily report records site activity. Managing the punch list efficiently is key to closing out and getting paid.

On a new residential project subject to CALGreen, a submitted showerhead is rated at 2.5 gallons per minute. What is the BEST assessment of water-efficiency compliance?

• a.It complies because 2.5 gpm is the current standard for showerheads sold for residential use here
• b.It fails because the maximum residential showerhead flow is lower, around 1.8 gpm✓
• c.It complies only in commercial buildings, where the residential flow limit does not apply to the fixture
• d.Flow rate is not regulated for showerheads, only for the valves and fittings behind the finished wall

California water-efficiency standards cap residential showerhead flow well below 2.5 gpm; the current maximum is about 1.8 gpm at the rated pressure. A 2.5 gpm head does not comply and should be replaced. Option a cites an outdated federal figure. Option c misstates the scope. Option d ignores the requirement. Verify plumbing fixture flow rates against the current maximum flow limits.2025 California Green Building Standards Code §4.303

During a pre-pour inspection of a footing formed directly against earth, you check the reinforcing steel. Which condition is MOST important to verify before concrete is placed?

• a.That the bars are tied with the maximum number of ties at every bar crossing point
• b.That the bars touch the soil for a solid bond between the steel and the ground below
• c.That the bars are painted for identification
• d.That the bars have adequate concrete cover and are held off the soil✓

Reinforcing steel must have adequate concrete cover, especially for concrete cast against earth, and must be supported off the soil so concrete fully surrounds it and protects it from corrosion. Option c is irrelevant to structural performance. Option a confuses excess tying with correctness. Option b is a defect: bars touching soil have no cover and will corrode. Confirming cover and support prevents a failed inspection and future spalling.

A worker will use a personal fall arrest system tied to a single anchor point. What is the MINIMUM anchorage strength Cal/OSHA generally requires per attached worker?

• a.5,000 pounds✓
• b.50 pounds
• c.500 pounds
• d.1,000 pounds

Anchorages for personal fall arrest must generally support at least 5,000 pounds per attached worker, or be designed by a qualified person as part of an engineered system with a safety factor. Option c and d are far too weak and would fail under fall forces. Option b is trivially small. The high anchorage capacity accounts for the dynamic loads generated when a fall is arrested.Cal/OSHA Title 8 §1670

Under Cal/OSHA heat illness prevention rules for outdoor work, at approximately what temperature must the employer make shade available upon request and when workers take breaks?

• a.Only when a worker faints
• b.When it exceeds 95 degrees Fahrenheit
• c.When it exceeds 80 degrees Fahrenheit✓
• d.Shade is never required outdoors

Employers must provide access to shade when the outdoor temperature exceeds 80 degrees Fahrenheit, and it must be available for rest and recovery. Option b is the high-heat threshold (95 degrees) that triggers additional procedures, not the basic shade trigger. Option a waits for an emergency. Option d ignores the rule. Providing shade early helps prevent heat illness before symptoms appear.Cal/OSHA Title 8 §3395

At what approximate temperature do Cal/OSHA high-heat procedures (such as extra observation and reminders to drink water) generally take effect?

• a.110 degrees Fahrenheit
• b.95 degrees Fahrenheit✓
• c.70 degrees Fahrenheit
• d.60 degrees Fahrenheit

High-heat procedures generally apply at or above 95 degrees Fahrenheit and add measures like effective communication, close observation of new workers, and frequent reminders to drink water. Option c is far too low. Option a would delay protections dangerously. Option d is unrelated to heat risk. The 95-degree trigger layers extra safeguards on top of the basic 80-degree shade requirement.Cal/OSHA Title 8 §3395

A 7-foot-deep trench in Type C soil will be protected by sloping the walls back rather than using a shield. What is the MAXIMUM allowable slope Cal/OSHA generally permits for Type C soil?

• a.Vertical (90 degrees)
• b.0.5 horizontal to 1 vertical
• c.1.5 horizontal to 1 vertical✓
• d.1 horizontal to 1 vertical

For Type C soil, the maximum allowable slope is generally 1.5 horizontal to 1 vertical, about a 34-degree angle from horizontal, because Type C is the least stable soil. Options a and b are far too steep and would risk collapse. Option d (a 45-degree slope) is allowed for more stable Type B soil, not Type C. When soil type is unknown, treat it as Type C and use the flatter slope.Cal/OSHA Title 8 §1541.1

Workers will enter an excavation deeper than 4 feet next to an old fuel tank where a hazardous atmosphere could exist. What is the BEST practice before and during entry?

• a.Enter quickly and leave if anyone feels dizzy, treating that as the first sign of bad air
• b.Rely on the natural breeze to clear any gases
• c.Test the atmosphere and provide ventilation or other controls as needed✓
• d.Only test after a worker reports a smell

Where a hazardous atmosphere could reasonably exist in an excavation over 4 feet deep, the air must be tested before entry and controls such as ventilation provided as needed, with retesting as conditions change. Option a exposes workers before detection. Option b assumes conditions that may not exist. Option d waits until harm may already have occurred. Atmospheric testing detects oxygen deficiency or toxic or flammable gas before it injures anyone.Cal/OSHA Title 8 §1541

A straight (non-self-supporting) ladder is set up against a wall. What placement BEST follows the recommended angle for safe use?

• a.Any angle is fine if the top is tied off
• b.Base 1 foot out for every 4 feet of working height✓
• c.Base 4 feet out for every 1 foot of working height
• d.Base directly against the wall, nearly vertical

The safe setup is roughly a 4-to-1 ratio: the base should be about 1 foot away from the wall for every 4 feet of working height. Option c reverses the ratio, making the ladder dangerously flat. Option d is nearly vertical and prone to tipping backward. Option a ignores the angle even though tying off is also good practice. The 4-to-1 rule keeps the ladder stable against sliding and tipping.Cal/OSHA Title 8 §1675

A supported scaffold platform is more than 7.5 feet above the lower level. Which practice BEST meets Cal/OSHA fall-protection requirements for workers on the platform?

• a.A single mid-rail alone is sufficient, leaving the platform edge open above it
• b.Only a warning line at the edge is required to mark where the platform ends
• c.Provide guardrail systems (or another approved fall-protection method) along open sides and ends✓
• d.No fall protection is needed if workers are careful and stay back from the edge

Scaffolds with platforms more than 7.5 feet above the level below generally require guardrail systems, or an equivalent approved fall-protection method, along open sides and ends. Option d relies on behavior instead of a physical safeguard. Option a omits the required top rail. Option b substitutes a warning line, which is not adequate edge protection on a scaffold. Complete guardrails prevent falls from the working platform.Cal/OSHA Title 8 §1637

A load is lifted with a two-leg sling. As the angle between the sling legs and the load becomes smaller (the legs spread wider), what happens to the tension in each leg?

• a.The tension decreases, increasing safe capacity as the legs spread wider
• b.The tension only matters for single-leg slings making a straight vertical lift
• c.The tension stays the same regardless of angle because the load has not changed
• d.The tension in each leg increases, reducing safe capacity✓

As the horizontal angle of the sling legs decreases (legs spread wider apart), the tension in each leg increases sharply for the same load, reducing the sling's safe working capacity. Option a has it backward. Option c ignores basic rigging geometry. Option b is false; angle affects multi-leg slings most. Riggers must use load charts and keep sling angles as steep as practical to stay within capacity.

A contractor's crews routinely cut, grind, and drill concrete, creating respirable crystalline silica. Beyond dust controls, what written program does Cal/OSHA require?

• a.A written exposure control plan identifying tasks and the controls used✓
• b.A daily equipment rental log listing the saws and grinders brought onto the job each day
• c.No written program is required if masks are worn by everyone doing the cutting and grinding
• d.A traffic control plan

Employers with silica exposure must maintain a written exposure control plan that identifies the tasks creating exposure, the engineering controls, work practices, and respiratory protection used for each. Option b and d are unrelated documents. Option c is wrong because a written plan is required regardless of respirator use. The plan ensures controls are planned and consistently applied, not improvised.Cal/OSHA Title 8 §1532.3

Before a worker is required to wear a tight-fitting respirator on the job, what does Cal/OSHA require FIRST?

• a.That the worker buys their own respirator
• b.Nothing, as long as the respirator is new
• c.A medical evaluation and a fit test for that respirator✓
• d.Only that the worker signs a waiver

Employees required to use tight-fitting respirators must first receive a medical evaluation to ensure they can safely wear one, and be fit tested for the specific make, model, and size, along with training. Option d substitutes a waiver for real safeguards. Option a wrongly shifts responsibility to the worker. Option b ignores medical and fit-test requirements. These steps ensure the respirator actually protects the wearer.Cal/OSHA Title 8 §5144

At the end of the day, a crew must clean up concrete dust that contains silica. Which housekeeping method is BEST to limit worker exposure?

• a.Dry sweep the whole area quickly at the end of the shift
• b.Leave the dust for the next shift to handle in the morning
• c.Use compressed air to blow dust off surfaces and tools
• d.Use wet methods or a HEPA-filtered vacuum instead of dry sweeping✓

Dry sweeping and compressed air throw silica dust back into the air where workers breathe it. The best practice is wet cleaning or a vacuum with a HEPA filter, which capture dust rather than disperse it. Option a and c both re-suspend hazardous dust. Option b leaves the hazard in place. Controlling dust at cleanup is as important as controlling it during cutting.Cal/OSHA Title 8 §1532.3

A worker must clear a jam inside a powered concrete mixer. What is the BEST practice to prevent the machine from starting during the work?

• a.Lock out and tag out the energy source before reaching into the machine✓
• b.Simply turn the switch to off and begin clearing the jam by hand inside the mixer drum
• c.Work quickly before the motor restarts and get both hands back out of the drum in time
• d.Ask a coworker to hold the switch off while the jam is being cleared inside the machine

Hazardous energy must be isolated and secured with a lockout/tagout procedure so the machine cannot be energized while a worker is exposed to moving parts. Option d relies on a person who could be distracted. Option c gambles with a machine that could start. Option b does not prevent someone else from switching it on. Locking and tagging the energy source is the only reliable safeguard against unexpected startup.Cal/OSHA Title 8 §3314

On a construction site, what are the TWO commonly accepted ways to protect workers from ground faults when using temporary power for hand tools?

• a.Ground-fault circuit interrupters (GFCIs), or an assured equipment grounding conductor program✓
• b.Longer cords, and painting the cords a bright color so they are easy to see where they run across the ground
• c.Only turning tools off between uses
• d.Extension cords rated for indoor use, and duct tape on splices to keep the taped joints covered while the tools run

Cal/OSHA accepts either GFCI protection on receptacles and cords, or a documented assured equipment grounding conductor program with regular inspection and testing, to guard against electric shock from ground faults. Option b and d describe unsafe or irrelevant practices. Option c does nothing about a fault while the tool is in use. Either GFCIs or an assured grounding program (ideally GFCIs) must be in place for temporary power.

Noise monitoring shows workers are exposed to an average of 88 dBA over an 8-hour shift. Beyond providing hearing protection, what is the employer generally required to establish?

• a.Nothing further; earplugs alone satisfy the rule at this level
• b.A one-time hearing test at hire and never again after that
• c.A program only if the exposure reaches 120 dBA on average
• d.A hearing conservation program including audiometric (hearing) testing✓

When the 8-hour average noise exposure reaches or exceeds 85 dBA, the employer must establish a hearing conservation program that includes noise monitoring, audiometric testing, training, and hearing protection. At 88 dBA the program is required. Option a stops at protectors and omits monitoring and testing. Option c sets the threshold far too high. Option b omits ongoing audiometric testing that detects hearing loss early.

On a 55 mph roadway you must close a lane and shift traffic 12 feet. Using the merging taper formula L equals W times S for speeds of 45 mph and above (L in feet, W in feet, S in mph), what is the MINIMUM taper length?

• a.60 feet
• b.132 feet
• c.396 feet
• d.660 feet✓

For posted speeds of 45 mph and above, the merging taper length L equals the offset width W times the speed S: L = 12 x 55 = 660 feet. Option a multiplies incorrectly. Option b and c use the wrong formula (the lower-speed version L = W x S squared / 60 applies only below 45 mph). Adequate taper length gives drivers enough distance to merge safely at higher speeds.California MUTCD 2026, Part 6

A flagger controls traffic at a work zone on a city street. Which practice BEST follows California MUTCD flagging guidance?

• a.Use a STOP/SLOW paddle and wear high-visibility apparel, positioned where drivers can see and safely stop✓
• b.Stand in the open lane facing away from traffic, using voice commands to tell drivers when to slow down
• c.Wave a red shirt to slow drivers, relying on the bright color to be seen instead of a standard paddle
• d.Direct traffic only after dark to avoid glare, since headlights make the flagger easier to see

Flaggers should use a standard STOP/SLOW paddle as the primary hand-signaling device and wear high-visibility safety apparel, standing in a visible location that gives approaching drivers time to stop. Option c uses a non-standard signal. Option b puts the flagger in danger and out of sight. Option d increases risk by working in low visibility. Proper devices, apparel, and positioning keep both drivers and the flagger safe.California MUTCD 2026, Part 6

A temporary traffic control zone is being set up. What is the PRIMARY purpose of the advance warning area with signs placed before the work?

• a.To mark the exact end of the project where traffic returns to its normal lanes and speed again
• b.To store equipment and materials close to where the crew is working so nothing blocks the lane
• c.To decorate the work zone so it looks organized to the drivers and neighbors passing the site
• d.To inform approaching drivers of conditions ahead so they can slow and prepare✓

The advance warning area uses signs ahead of the work to tell drivers what to expect, giving them time to reduce speed, change lanes, or stop before reaching the activity area. Option c trivializes a safety function. Option b misuses the area and can create hazards. Option a confuses it with the termination area. Clear advance warning is the first line of defense in a temporary traffic control zone.California MUTCD 2026, Part 6

A large earthwork site keeps tracking mud onto the public street. Which best management practice (BMP) BEST addresses this under the site's storm water plan?

• a.Install a stabilized construction entrance and clean tracked sediment from the street✓
• b.Ignore it because rain will wash it away from the pavement in front of the site before anyone notices
• c.Wash the street with a hose into the gutter at the end of each work day so the pavement looks clean
• d.Sweep the mud into the storm drain each evening

A stabilized construction entrance of crushed rock knocks mud off tires before vehicles reach pavement, and any tracked sediment should be swept up and disposed of properly, not washed into drains. Options c and d send sediment straight into the storm drain system, a violation. Option b allows pollution to reach waterways. Preventing and cleaning track-out protects water quality and keeps the site compliant.

Concrete trucks need a place to rinse out their chutes on site. What is the BEST practice to protect the environment?

• a.Rinse chutes into the nearest storm drain so the wash water is carried off site
• b.Use a designated, contained concrete washout area that keeps wash water out of drains and soil✓
• c.Let drivers rinse wherever is convenient to keep the trucks moving off the pour
• d.Rinse onto bare soil at the edge of the lot so the ground takes up the water

Concrete wash water is highly alkaline and must be contained in a designated washout with a liner or watertight container so it cannot reach storm drains, waterways, or unprotected ground. Option a discharges pollutants directly to surface water. Options c and d allow caustic runoff to contaminate soil and drains. A contained washout captures the material for proper disposal and keeps the site compliant.

Drums of fuel and solvents are stored on a jobsite. What is the BEST practice to prevent spills from reaching soil or storm drains?

• a.Store them next to the storm drain for easy rinsing
• b.Stack the drums higher to save space
• c.Place them on secondary containment and keep spill kits nearby✓
• d.Leave caps off so pressure does not build up

Liquid hazardous materials should sit on secondary containment (such as a bermed pallet) sized to hold leaks, with spill kits available for quick response, keeping releases out of soil and drains. Option b increases tip-over risk. Option a positions a hazard right at a discharge point. Option d invites spills and vapors. Containment plus prompt response prevents environmental contamination and regulatory violations.

Before demolishing interior finishes in a commercial building from the 1970s, what is the BEST first step regarding possible asbestos?

• a.Assume no asbestos because the building looks clean and the finishes appear to have been replaced at some point
• b.Wet the materials and remove them like any debris, hauling the bags off in the usual jobsite dumpster
• c.Start demolition and stop if fibers are seen coming off the material as the interior finishes come down
• d.Have suspect materials surveyed and tested by a qualified person before disturbing them✓

Older buildings may contain asbestos in flooring, mastic, plaster, insulation, and other finishes, so a survey and sampling by a qualified person must occur before disturbance, with proper abatement if asbestos is present. Option c exposes workers before testing. Option b treats regulated material as ordinary debris. Option a relies on appearance, which cannot reveal asbestos. Testing first protects workers and ensures lawful, licensed handling.

Workers will sand and torch-cut steel coated with old lead-based paint. Under Cal/OSHA lead rules, what is the BEST early step to protect them?

• a.Only act if a worker later feels sick and reports those symptoms to the foreman at some point later in the shift
• b.Conduct an exposure assessment and provide controls, respirators, and hygiene facilities as needed✓
• c.Rely on an open-air breeze to carry lead fumes away from the crew while the torch cuts and the sanding goes on nearby
• d.Give workers milk to drink during the shift

When work can generate airborne lead, the employer must assess worker exposure and, based on the results, provide engineering controls, respiratory protection, protective clothing, and hygiene facilities such as handwashing before eating. Option d is a myth with no protective value. Option c does not control inhalation of lead fumes. Option a waits for symptoms of a serious health hazard. Early assessment drives the right protections before harm occurs.Cal/OSHA Title 8 §1532.1

Under Cal/OSHA, what safety document must every California construction employer establish and maintain in writing?

• a.Only a first-aid log kept in the jobsite trailer office
• b.An effective written Injury and Illness Prevention Program (IIPP)✓
• c.A document only required for companies having over 100 employees
• d.A marketing plan for winning new construction work

Every California employer, including construction contractors, must establish, implement, and maintain a written Injury and Illness Prevention Program that assigns responsibility, identifies hazards, and provides training and correction of unsafe conditions. Option d is unrelated to safety. Option a is only a small part of a safety system. Option c wrongly limits the requirement by company size; it applies to all employers. The IIPP is the foundation of a compliant safety program.Cal/OSHA Title 8 §1509

A worker operates from the platform of an articulating boom lift. What is the BEST fall-protection practice for that worker?

• a.Tie the lanyard to a nearby building instead of the lift so the anchor cannot move
• b.Climb out onto the boom to reach farther along the wall without moving the lift
• c.No fall protection is needed inside the basket because its rails enclose the worker
• d.Wear a full-body harness with a lanyard attached to the manufacturer's designated anchor in the basket✓

Boom (aerial) lift operators must wear a full-body harness with a lanyard attached to the manufacturer-designated anchor point in the platform, because the basket can jolt or eject an occupant. Option c ignores that ejection risk. Option b is a dangerous act that removes the operator from the protected platform. Option a can leave the worker attached to a fixed point while the lift moves, causing injury. Tie off to the lift's designated anchor.

Before a mobile crane makes a lift on a jobsite, which combination of practices BEST supports a safe lift?

• a.Skip the load chart if the operator is experienced and has run this same crane on similar lifts for years on other jobs
• b.Extend the boom fully to keep loads far from the crane and well away from the crew working below the suspended load
• c.Guess the load weight and lift quickly so the crane is not left holding the suspended load longer than it has to be
• d.Set outriggers on firm, level ground with proper pads and stay within the crane's rated load chart✓

A safe lift requires the crane set on firm, level ground with outriggers fully deployed on adequate pads, and the load kept within the capacity shown on the rated load chart for that configuration. Option a and c abandon the engineering controls that prevent overloading and tip-over. Option b increases the load radius, which sharply reduces capacity and can cause tipping. Ground support, outriggers, and the load chart together keep the lift within safe limits.

A set of 6 identical spread (pad) footings is shown, each 3 ft by 3 ft in plan and 12 in deep. What is the MINIMUM volume of concrete required for all six?

• a.6.0 cubic yards
• b.54 cubic yards
• c.2.0 cubic yards✓
• d.0.33 cubic yards

Each footing is 3 ft x 3 ft x 1 ft = 9 cubic feet. Six footings = 54 cubic feet. Divide by 27 to convert to cubic yards: 54 / 27 = 2.0 cubic yards (c). Option (b) leaves the answer in cubic feet without dividing by 27. Option (a) confuses the footing count with cubic yards. Option (d) is the volume of a single footing (9 / 27 = 0.33) rather than all six.

A round drilled pier is 24 inches in diameter and 18 ft deep. Using pi = 3.1416, what is the APPROXIMATE volume of concrete required to fill it?

• a.1.05 cubic yards
• b.8.4 cubic yards
• c.2.1 cubic yards✓
• d.56.5 cubic yards

A 24-inch diameter is a 12-inch (1 ft) radius. Volume = pi x r^2 x h = 3.1416 x 1^2 x 18 = 56.55 cubic feet. Divide by 27: 56.55 / 27 = 2.09, about 2.1 cubic yards (c). Option (b) wrongly uses the diameter (2 ft) as the radius. Option (d) forgets to divide by 27. Option (a) uses only half the depth.

A concrete stem wall is 10 inches thick, 3 ft tall, and 80 ft long. How many cubic yards of concrete are required?

• a.3.7 cubic yards
• b.8.9 cubic yards
• c.7.4 cubic yards✓
• d.200 cubic yards

Convert thickness to feet: 10 / 12 = 0.8333 ft. Volume = 0.8333 x 3 x 80 = 200 cubic feet. Divide by 27: 200 / 27 = 7.41, about 7.4 cubic yards (c). Option (d) leaves cubic feet without dividing by 27. Option (b) rounds the thickness up to a full 12 inches (1 ft). Option (a) uses only half the wall length.

A solid concrete stair has 4 steps, each with a 7-inch rise and a 12-inch run, and is 4 ft wide. Treating the cross-section as stacked steps (area = rise x run x N(N+1)/2), what is the APPROXIMATE concrete volume?

• a.23.3 cubic yards
• b.0.43 cubic yards
• c.0.86 cubic yards✓
• d.1.7 cubic yards

Rise = 7 / 12 = 0.5833 ft, run = 12 / 12 = 1 ft. Stacked-step factor N(N+1)/2 = 4 x 5 / 2 = 10. Cross-section area = 0.5833 x 1 x 10 = 5.833 sq ft. Multiply by 4 ft width: 23.33 cubic feet. Divide by 27: 23.33 / 27 = 0.864, about 0.86 cubic yards (c). Option (b) is half the correct value. Option (d) misapplies the step factor. Option (a) leaves the answer in cubic feet.

A concrete curb is 6 inches wide, 18 inches high, and 90 ft long. How many cubic yards of concrete are needed?

• a.1.25 cubic yards
• b.2.5 cubic yards✓
• c.67.5 cubic yards
• d.5.0 cubic yards

Convert to feet: width 6/12 = 0.5 ft, height 18/12 = 1.5 ft. Volume = 0.5 x 1.5 x 90 = 67.5 cubic feet. Divide by 27: 67.5 / 27 = 2.5 cubic yards (b). Option (c) leaves cubic feet without dividing by 27. Option (d) uses a 12-inch width. Option (a) uses only a 9-inch height.

You order 24 pieces of 2x8 lumber, each 16 ft long. Using board-feet = (thickness_in x width_in x length_ft) / 12 per piece, what is the total board footage?

• a.6,144 board-feet
• b.256 board-feet
• c.384 board-feet
• d.512 board-feet✓

Per piece: (2 x 8 x 16) / 12 = 256 / 12 = 21.33 board-feet. Times 24 pieces = 512 board-feet (d). Option (c) uses a 12-ft length by mistake. Option (a) forgets to divide by 12. Option (b) uses only 12 pieces.

A wall order calls for 40 pieces of 2x6 studs, each 10 ft long. What is the total board footage (board-feet = (thickness_in x width_in x length_ft) / 12 per piece)?

• a.4,800 board-feet
• b.480 board-feet
• c.400 board-feet✓
• d.300 board-feet

Per piece: (2 x 6 x 10) / 12 = 120 / 12 = 10 board-feet. Times 40 pieces = 400 board-feet (c). Option (b) uses a 12-ft length. Option (a) forgets to divide by 12. Option (d) uses only 30 pieces.

A 24-ft wall is framed with studs at 16 inches on center, with a stud at each end and no openings, PLUS a 2-stud corner assembly added at one end. What is the MINIMUM stud count?

• a.19 studs
• b.21 studs✓
• c.24 studs
• d.18 studs

Field studs = (24 ft x 12 in) / 16 = 288 / 16 = 18 spaces, plus 1 end stud = 19. Add the 2-stud corner assembly: 19 + 2 = 21 studs (b). Option (d) omits the extra end stud. Option (a) forgets the corner. Option (c) uses a rough one-stud-per-foot rule of thumb.

A 40-ft wall is framed with studs at 24 inches on center, with a stud at each end and no openings. What is the MINIMUM stud count?

• a.30 studs
• b.20 studs
• c.21 studs✓
• d.40 studs

Field studs = (40 ft x 12 in) / 24 = 480 / 24 = 20 spaces, plus 1 end stud = 21 studs (c). Option (b) forgets the extra end stud. Option (a) mistakenly uses 16-inch spacing (480 / 16 = 30). Option (d) uses a one-stud-per-foot rule of thumb.

A concrete masonry wall is 10 ft high and 30 ft long, built with standard 8x8x16 CMU. Using the rule of 1.125 blocks per square foot of wall face, what is the MINIMUM number of blocks (before waste)?

• a.375 blocks
• b.300 blocks
• c.169 blocks
• d.338 blocks✓

Wall face = 10 x 30 = 300 sq ft. Blocks = 300 x 1.125 = 337.5, round up to 338 (d). Option (b) forgets the 1.125 factor. Option (a) uses 1.25 per sq ft. Option (c) uses half the wall area.

A brick veneer wall is 9 ft high and 24 ft long. Using about 6.75 modular bricks per square foot of wall face, what is the APPROXIMATE brick count (before waste)?

• a.1,296 bricks
• b.972 bricks
• c.1,458 bricks✓
• d.216 bricks

Wall face = 9 x 24 = 216 sq ft. Bricks = 216 x 6.75 = 1,458 (c). Option (d) forgets the 6.75 factor. Option (a) uses 6.0 per sq ft. Option (b) uses 4.5 per sq ft.

A room is 12 ft by 16 ft with 8 ft ceilings. You will hang 4x8 gypsum board on all four walls AND the ceiling, ignoring openings and waste. What is the MINIMUM number of full sheets?

• a.14 sheets
• b.24 sheets
• c.6 sheets
• d.20 sheets✓

Wall area = perimeter x height = 2 x (12 + 16) x 8 = 56 x 8 = 448 sq ft. Ceiling = 12 x 16 = 192 sq ft. Total = 640 sq ft. Each 4x8 sheet = 32 sq ft. 640 / 32 = 20 sheets (d). Option (a) counts walls only. Option (c) counts the ceiling only. Option (b) overstates the area.

A roof has 2,400 square feet of surface area. Adding 15 percent for waste, how many roofing squares should be ordered (1 square = 100 sq ft)?

• a.2,760 squares
• b.27 squares
• c.28 squares✓
• d.24 squares

Add waste: 2,400 x 1.15 = 2,760 sq ft. Divide by 100: 27.6 squares, round up to 28 (c). Option (d) ignores the waste factor. Option (b) rounds down instead of up. Option (a) leaves the answer in square feet.

A ceiling is 30 ft by 40 ft and will receive two coats of paint. If coverage is 400 sq ft per gallon per coat, what is the MINIMUM number of gallons to buy?

• a.8 gallons
• b.12 gallons
• c.3 gallons
• d.6 gallons✓

Ceiling area = 30 x 40 = 1,200 sq ft. Per coat: 1,200 / 400 = 3 gallons. Two coats: 3 x 2 = 6 gallons (d). Option (c) covers only one coat. Option (a) over-rounds. Option (b) mistakenly uses 200 sq ft per gallon coverage.

A floor is 14 ft by 16 ft and will be covered with 12-inch by 12-inch tiles. Adding 10 percent for waste, what is the MINIMUM number of tiles to order?

• a.247 tiles✓
• b.224 tiles
• c.202 tiles
• d.246 tiles

Floor area = 14 x 16 = 224 sq ft. Each 12x12 tile covers 1 sq ft, so 224 tiles net. Add 10 percent waste: 224 x 1.10 = 246.4, round up to 247 (a). Option (b) omits waste. Option (d) rounds down instead of up. Option (c) subtracts waste instead of adding it.

A room is 15 ft by 18 ft and will get laminate flooring. Each box covers 20 sq ft, and you add 10 percent for waste. What is the MINIMUM number of full boxes to buy?

• a.13 boxes
• b.14 boxes
• c.27 boxes
• d.15 boxes✓

Floor area = 15 x 18 = 270 sq ft. Add 10 percent waste: 270 x 1.10 = 297 sq ft. Boxes = 297 / 20 = 14.85, round up to 15 (d). Option (b) ignores waste (270 / 20 = 13.5, round to 14). Option (a) ignores waste and rounds down. Option (c) uses a 10-sq-ft box.

A suspended acoustical ceiling covers a room 20 ft by 24 ft using 2 ft by 4 ft lay-in tiles. Ignoring waste, how many tiles are required?

• a.30 tiles
• b.120 tiles
• c.480 tiles
• d.60 tiles✓

Room area = 20 x 24 = 480 sq ft. Each 2x4 tile covers 8 sq ft. 480 / 8 = 60 tiles (d). Option (b) uses a 2x2 tile (4 sq ft). Option (c) leaves the answer in square feet. Option (a) uses a tile twice the correct size.

An attic floor is 1,500 square feet and will receive blown-in insulation. If each bag covers 50 sq ft at the target R-value, how many bags are needed?

• a.75 bags
• b.15 bags
• c.1,500 bags
• d.30 bags✓

Bags = area / coverage = 1,500 / 50 = 30 bags (d). Option (b) mistakenly uses 100 sq ft per bag. Option (a) uses 20 sq ft per bag. Option (c) confuses square feet with bags.

A base rock pad is 36 ft by 50 ft, placed 4 inches thick. If compacted base rock weighs about 1.35 tons per cubic yard, APPROXIMATELY how many tons are needed?

• a.30 tons✓
• b.45 tons
• c.22 tons
• d.60 tons

Area = 36 x 50 = 1,800 sq ft. Thickness 4 in = 0.333 ft, so volume = 1,800 x 0.333 = 600 cubic feet. Divide by 27: 600 / 27 = 22.2 cubic yards. Multiply by 1.35 tons/cy: 22.2 x 1.35 = 30 tons (a). Option (c) leaves cubic yards without converting to tons. Option (b) uses a 6-inch thickness. Option (d) doubles the correct value.

A footing has 3 continuous #4 rebars, each running 120 ft. Using #4 bar at about 0.668 pounds per linear foot, what is the APPROXIMATE total weight of steel?

• a.120 pounds
• b.360 pounds
• c.481 pounds
• d.240 pounds✓

Total length = 3 x 120 = 360 linear feet. Weight = 360 x 0.668 = 240.5, about 240 pounds (d). Option (a) uses only one bar's length. Option (c) doubles the bar count. Option (b) treats linear feet as pounds without applying the 0.668 factor.