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Type II — High-Pressure

40 questions
1. A technician is certifying to work on R-22 and R-410A air conditioners, supermarket racks, and heat pumps. Which EPA technician type covers high-pressure and very-high-pressure appliances?
a.Type I
b.Type II
c.Type III
d.Section 609 only

Type II certification covers high-pressure and very-high-pressure appliances, such as R-22 and R-410A systems, supermarket racks, and heat pumps. Type I covers small appliances and Type III covers low-pressure appliances. A Universal certification includes all three types.

40 CFR §82.152
2. A technician uses recovery equipment manufactured after November 15, 1993 on an R-22 split system that normally holds less than 200 pounds of refrigerant. To what level must the appliance be evacuated during recovery?
a.0 inches Hg vacuum
b.4 inches Hg vacuum
c.15 inches Hg vacuum
d.10 inches Hg vacuum

For high-pressure appliances containing less than 200 pounds of refrigerant, recovery equipment made after November 15, 1993 must evacuate to 10 inches of mercury vacuum. The 15 inches Hg level applies to appliances holding 200 pounds or more. The lower 0 and 4 inches Hg levels apply only to older equipment made before November 15, 1993.

40 CFR §82.156
3. A supermarket rack system holds 350 pounds of R-404A. Using recovery equipment manufactured after November 15, 1993, to what vacuum must the technician evacuate during recovery?
a.15 inches Hg vacuum
b.10 inches Hg vacuum
c.4 inches Hg vacuum
d.25 mm Hg absolute

For a high-pressure appliance containing 200 pounds or more of refrigerant, recovery equipment made after November 15, 1993 must reach 15 inches of mercury vacuum. Systems under 200 pounds require only 10 inches Hg. The 25 mm Hg absolute level applies to low-pressure (Type III) appliances, not high-pressure racks.

40 CFR §82.156
4. A technician recovers R-22 with an older recovery unit manufactured before November 15, 1993 from a system holding 250 pounds. What is the required evacuation level?
a.15 inches Hg vacuum
b.10 inches Hg vacuum
c.4 inches Hg vacuum
d.0 inches Hg vacuum

Recovery equipment manufactured before November 15, 1993 has lower required evacuation levels. For a high-pressure appliance holding 200 pounds or more, that older equipment must reach 4 inches Hg vacuum. Appliances under 200 pounds with pre-1993 equipment need only 0 inches Hg (atmospheric).

40 CFR §82.156
5. A technician must recover a large liquid charge from a supermarket rack quickly. Which recovery method moves the most refrigerant in the least time for large systems?
a.Vapor recovery through a single low-side port
b.Passive recovery using the system's pressure
c.Recovering only from the compressor oil
d.The push-pull (liquid) method

The push-pull method recovers liquid refrigerant directly and is the fastest way to move a large charge, making it ideal for big systems like supermarket racks. Recovering vapor through a single port is much slower. Push-pull is generally used only when a system holds a substantial liquid charge (roughly 10 to 15 pounds or more).

6. A technician wants to speed up vapor recovery from an R-410A condensing unit. Which practice will increase recovery speed?
a.Making the connecting hoses as long and thin as possible
b.Using large-diameter, short hoses and cooling the recovery cylinder
c.Closing the recovery machine's discharge valve partway
d.Recovering only through the smallest available Schrader port

Recovery speed improves with large-diameter, short hoses that reduce flow restriction, and with a cool recovery cylinder that keeps its internal pressure low so refrigerant flows into it. Long, thin hoses and tiny ports restrict flow and slow recovery. Chilling the cylinder (for example in ice water) creates a favorable pressure difference.

7. After replacing a compressor on an R-410A system, a technician needs to remove moisture and noncondensables before charging. Which procedure is the correct way to dehydrate the system?
a.Purge the system with R-410A vapor and vent it
b.Pressurize with oxygen and hold overnight
c.Pull a deep vacuum with a vacuum pump and verify it with a micron gauge, using triple evacuation if needed
d.Blow shop air through the lines until dry

Proper dehydration means pulling a deep vacuum with a vacuum pump and confirming the level with a micron gauge; triple evacuation (evacuate, break vacuum with dry nitrogen, repeat) is used to remove stubborn moisture. Purging with refrigerant is illegal venting, and oxygen must never be used because it can cause an explosion with oil. Shop air introduces moisture and noncondensables.

8. During evacuation of a Type II system, a technician wants to confirm the system has reached a deep, dry vacuum. Which instrument gives the precise reading needed?
a.A micron (vacuum) gauge
b.A standard compound gauge on the manifold
c.A superheat thermometer
d.A clamp-on ammeter

A micron gauge (electronic vacuum gauge) reads the very low absolute pressures needed to confirm a deep, dry vacuum, often around 500 microns for good dehydration. A standard compound gauge is not precise enough in deep vacuum. Superheat thermometers and ammeters measure entirely different parameters.

9. A technician performs triple evacuation on a Type II system. What gas is used to break the vacuum between evacuations?
a.Oxygen
b.Dry nitrogen
c.Compressed shop air
d.Carbon dioxide from a fire extinguisher

Dry nitrogen is used to break the vacuum between evacuations because it is inert, moisture-free, and helps sweep out remaining moisture. Oxygen is dangerous because it can react explosively with refrigeration oil, and shop air adds moisture. Triple evacuation with nitrogen dilutes and removes noncondensables and water vapor more effectively than a single pull-down.

10. A technician is charging an R-410A system that uses a near-azeotropic blend. To keep the blend's composition correct, how should refrigerant be removed from the cylinder during charging?
a.As vapor only, from the top of an upright cylinder
b.By venting a little first to purge the cylinder
c.As vapor into the high side while running
d.As liquid (cylinder inverted or using the liquid port), often metered to avoid slugging the compressor

Zeotropic and near-azeotropic blends like R-410A must be charged as liquid so all components leave the cylinder in the correct proportion; removing vapor would fractionate the blend. Liquid is typically drawn from an inverted cylinder or a liquid valve and metered or flashed to vapor before it reaches the compressor to prevent slugging. Charging vapor from the top can change the blend's composition.

11. A technician checks the charge on an R-22 system that uses a fixed orifice (piston) metering device. Which measurement is the primary method to verify the charge?
a.Subcooling at the condenser outlet
b.Compressor amperage only
c.Superheat at the evaporator or compressor inlet
d.Discharge line temperature only

On a fixed-orifice system, superheat is the primary way to check the charge; the technician compares measured superheat to a target from the manufacturer's chart. Subcooling is the preferred method on TXV systems, not fixed-orifice systems. Superheat is the difference between the actual suction temperature and the saturation temperature at the suction pressure.

12. A technician is checking the charge on a system equipped with a thermostatic expansion valve (TXV). Which measurement is the preferred way to verify the charge on a TXV system?
a.Subcooling at the condenser outlet (liquid line)
b.Superheat at the evaporator inlet
c.Suction pressure alone
d.Ambient temperature only

On a TXV system, subcooling is the preferred method to check the charge because the valve maintains evaporator superheat fairly constant. Subcooling is the difference between the liquid-line saturation temperature and the actual liquid temperature. Superheat is the main check on fixed-orifice systems rather than TXV systems.

13. A technician fills a DOT recovery cylinder with recovered R-22. To prevent a dangerous hydrostatic rupture, the cylinder must not be filled beyond what fraction of its capacity?
a.95% by weight
b.100% by weight
c.90% by volume
d.80% by weight

A recovery cylinder must never be filled beyond 80% of its rated capacity by weight to leave room for liquid to expand as temperature rises. Overfilling can create extreme hydrostatic pressure and burst the cylinder. A scale should be used to weigh the charge and stop at the 80% limit.

14. A technician needs to locate a small refrigerant leak on an R-22 condensing unit. Which method is a recognized leak-detection technique?
a.Listening for a hissing sound only
b.Using an electronic leak detector, soap-bubble solution, or UV dye with a UV lamp
c.Spraying water on the coil and looking for rust
d.Measuring the outdoor temperature

Recognized leak-detection methods include electronic leak detectors, soap-bubble (or approved bubble) solution, and fluorescent UV dye viewed under a UV lamp; a standing pressure test with nitrogen is also used. These methods pinpoint the leak so it can be repaired. Simply listening or checking outdoor temperature will not reliably find small leaks.

15. A technician pressure-tests a repaired R-410A system for leaks before evacuating. Which gas is appropriate for pressurizing the system for a leak test?
a.Regulated dry nitrogen (optionally with a trace of refrigerant)
b.Pure oxygen
c.Acetylene
d.Unregulated shop compressed air

Dry nitrogen, delivered through a pressure regulator, is the correct gas for pressure-testing because it is inert and moisture-free; a small trace of refrigerant may be added so an electronic detector can find the leak. Oxygen and acetylene are dangerous and can cause explosions or fires with oil. Nitrogen must always be regulated to a safe test pressure to avoid overpressurizing the system.

16. A technician notices R-410A gauge pressures running much higher than an equivalent R-22 system at the same conditions. What does this reflect about R-410A?
a.R-410A is a low-pressure refrigerant
b.The gauges are miscalibrated for R-410A
c.R-410A operates at significantly higher pressures than R-22, so higher-rated gauges and components are required
d.R-410A must be charged as a vapor to lower pressure

R-410A operates at roughly 50 to 70 percent higher pressures than R-22 at the same temperatures, which is normal for that refrigerant. Because of this, R-410A systems require gauges, hoses, and components rated for the higher pressures. R-410A is a high-pressure refrigerant, and using R-22-rated tools on it can be unsafe.

17. A technician plans to retrofit an old R-22 system to an HFC blend that uses polyolester (POE) oil. Which statement about the retrofit is correct?
a.The remaining R-22 can be vented since the system is being changed
b.The R-22 must be recovered, and the mineral oil is typically replaced with the POE oil the new refrigerant requires
c.Mineral oil works with all HFC blends, so no oil change is needed
d.Retrofitting removes the need for any leak repair

In a retrofit, the existing R-22 must be recovered, never vented, and because most HFC blends are not compatible with mineral oil, the oil is usually changed to polyolester (POE). Components like the filter-drier are commonly replaced and the metering device may need adjustment. Venting during a retrofit is prohibited under Section 608.

40 CFR §82.154
18. A technician handles a high-pressure refrigerant cylinder in a hot truck bed in summer. Which practice is safest for storing and transporting the cylinder?
a.Leave it in direct sun to keep pressure high
b.Fill it to 100% so no air gets in
c.Store it lying on its side near an open flame
d.Keep it out of direct sun and below its temperature rating, secured upright, and never over 80% full

High-pressure cylinders should be kept out of direct sun and below their temperature rating, secured upright, and never filled beyond 80% of capacity, because heat raises internal pressure and overfilled cylinders can rupture. Direct sunlight and heat sources dangerously increase pressure. Cylinders must also be kept away from open flames and secured so they cannot fall.

19. A technician sets up push-pull recovery on a system with a large liquid charge. How does the push-pull method work?
a.The recovery machine pushes vapor into the top of the system while pulling liquid out the bottom into the recovery cylinder
b.It pulls only vapor from both service ports at once
c.It relies solely on the system's compressor to move liquid
d.It uses shop air to push refrigerant into the cylinder

In push-pull recovery, the recovery machine discharges vapor that pushes liquid refrigerant out of the appliance and pulls it into the recovery cylinder, moving a large liquid charge quickly. It is used only on systems with a substantial liquid charge, not on small ones. The method does not use shop air or rely on the system's own compressor.

20. A very-high-pressure appliance using R-13 must have its refrigerant recovered before service. Using recovery equipment made after November 15, 1993, what is the required evacuation level?
a.15 inches Hg vacuum
b.10 inches Hg vacuum
c.0 inches Hg (atmospheric pressure)
d.25 mm Hg absolute

For very-high-pressure appliances (such as those using R-13 or R-503), the required recovery evacuation level is 0 inches Hg (atmospheric), for equipment made before or after November 15, 1993. These refrigerants have such high pressures that reaching atmospheric already removes most of the charge. The deeper 10 and 15 inches Hg levels apply to ordinary high-pressure appliances.

40 CFR §82.156
21. A technician measures 12°F of superheat on a fixed-orifice R-22 system but the manufacturer's chart calls for 20°F at those conditions. What does the low superheat suggest?
a.The system is undercharged
b.There is a restriction in the liquid line
c.The metering device must be a TXV
d.The system is likely overcharged

On a fixed-orifice system, superheat lower than the target usually indicates an overcharge, because too much refrigerant floods the evaporator and less of it boils off. To correct it, the technician recovers a small amount and rechecks superheat against the chart. High superheat, by contrast, typically points to an undercharge or restriction.

22. During recovery from a Type II system, a technician sees noncondensable gases (air) collected in the recovery cylinder. What is the correct handling under Section 608?
a.Vent the whole cylinder and start over
b.Do not vent regulated refrigerant; separate or purge only true noncondensables per proper procedure and equipment, never releasing refrigerant
c.Release the noncondensables and refrigerant together into a ventilated room
d.Add the mixture back into the customer's system as is

Regulated refrigerant must never be vented, so a technician cannot simply release the cylinder contents. Only genuine noncondensables may be purged, and only using proper recovery/recycling equipment and procedures that do not release refrigerant. Reusing a mixture contaminated with air can damage the system and reduce performance.

40 CFR §82.154
23. A DOT-approved refrigerant recovery cylinder must be periodically retested for safety. What is the standard hydrostatic retest interval for these cylinders?
a.Every 12 months
b.Every 2 years
c.Every 5 years
d.They never require retesting

DOT refrigerant recovery cylinders must be hydrostatically retested every 5 years to confirm they can safely hold pressure. A cylinder past its test date should not be filled until it is retested. This helps prevent ruptures from corrosion or fatigue over time.

24. A technician wants a quick way to know whether a recovery cylinder is a refrigerant recovery cylinder by its color scheme. What is the standard color for a refrigerant recovery cylinder?
a.Gray body with a yellow top (shoulder)
b.Green body with a white top
c.Solid orange
d.Solid black

The standard color scheme for a refrigerant recovery cylinder is a gray body with a yellow top (shoulder). This distinguishes recovered refrigerant cylinders from color-coded virgin refrigerant cylinders. Using the correct, DOT-approved cylinder helps prevent dangerous mix-ups and overpressure.

25. A technician performing recovery notices the process is very slow because the recovery cylinder is warm and its pressure is high. Which action will speed recovery?
a.Warm the recovery cylinder with a torch
b.Cool the recovery cylinder (for example in an ice-water bath) to lower its pressure
c.Disconnect the vacuum pump
d.Add nitrogen to the recovery cylinder

Cooling the recovery cylinder lowers its internal pressure, increasing the pressure difference that drives refrigerant into it and speeding recovery. Warming the cylinder raises its pressure and slows the process. Adding nitrogen would contaminate the refrigerant with noncondensables and is not acceptable.

26. A technician needs to evacuate a Type II system to remove moisture and reaches 500 microns on the micron gauge. After isolating the pump, the reading climbs and stabilizes around 5,000 microns. What does this most likely indicate?
a.The system is perfectly dry and ready to charge
b.The micron gauge is broken
c.The vacuum pump is too powerful
d.Moisture is still present (or a small leak exists), so evacuation must continue

When the vacuum rises and holds at a higher level after isolating the pump, it usually means moisture is still boiling off inside the system, or there is a small leak. The technician should continue evacuating, possibly using triple evacuation, until the vacuum holds at the target. A system is considered dry when the micron reading stays low and stable after isolation.

27. A technician recovers R-22 from a rooftop unit that holds 150 pounds using equipment made after November 15, 1993. To what vacuum must the system be evacuated during recovery?
a.10 inches Hg vacuum
b.15 inches Hg vacuum
c.4 inches Hg vacuum
d.0 inches Hg

Because the unit holds less than 200 pounds and the recovery equipment is post-1993, the required recovery evacuation level is 10 inches Hg vacuum. Units holding 200 pounds or more require 15 inches Hg with post-1993 equipment. The 0 and 4 inches Hg figures apply only to pre-1993 recovery equipment.

40 CFR §82.156
28. A technician is deciding between liquid and vapor recovery on a Type II system with a moderate charge. Which statement correctly compares the two?
a.Vapor recovery is always faster than liquid recovery
b.Liquid recovery is illegal under Section 608
c.Liquid recovery is faster for larger charges, while vapor recovery is used to finish and clear the remaining refrigerant
d.Only vapor recovery can be used on high-pressure systems

Liquid recovery moves refrigerant faster and is preferred for larger charges, while vapor recovery is typically used to pull down and clear the last of the refrigerant after the liquid is gone. Many jobs start in liquid mode and switch to vapor to finish. Both methods are legal, and liquid recovery is common on high-pressure systems.

29. A technician is about to add liquid refrigerant into the suction line of a running compressor to charge faster. Why is this dangerous on a Type II system?
a.It cools the refrigerant too much
b.It has no effect on the compressor
c.It only affects R-410A systems
d.Liquid entering the suction can slug and mechanically damage the compressor

Feeding liquid directly into the suction of a running compressor can cause liquid slugging, which can bend valves or break internal parts because liquid does not compress. When adding liquid to the low side, it must be metered or throttled so it flashes to vapor before reaching the compressor. This risk applies to high-pressure systems in general, not just R-410A.

30. A technician replaces a leaking evaporator on an R-410A system and must protect the new POE oil during the repair. Why is POE oil handling important?
a.POE oil is flammable at room temperature and must be kept frozen
b.POE oil is highly hygroscopic and absorbs moisture from the air quickly, so the system should be kept sealed and evacuated well
c.POE oil never needs a vacuum because it repels water
d.POE oil can be mixed freely with mineral oil with no effect

Polyolester (POE) oil used with R-410A is very hygroscopic, meaning it absorbs moisture from the air rapidly, so the system should be left open as briefly as possible and evacuated to a deep vacuum. Excess moisture can cause acid formation and system damage. POE and mineral oil are not freely interchangeable, which matters during retrofits and repairs.

31. Virgin (newly produced) HCFC-22 was subject to a production and import phaseout. As of January 1, 2020, what happened to the supply of virgin R-22?
a.Production and import of virgin R-22 was banned, leaving only recovered, recycled, and reclaimed R-22 for servicing
b.R-22 became unregulated and freely available
c.R-22 could be vented if recovery was inconvenient
d.All R-22 equipment had to be destroyed immediately

As of January 1, 2020, the production and import of virgin HCFC-22 was banned in the United States, so only recovered, recycled, or reclaimed R-22 is available to service existing equipment. This makes careful recovery and reclamation more important than ever. Venting R-22 remains illegal, and existing equipment may keep operating.

40 CFR §82.154
32. A technician measures subcooling of 3°F on a TXV-equipped R-410A system when the manufacturer specifies 10°F of subcooling. What does the low subcooling most likely indicate?
a.The system is overcharged
b.There is too much liquid in the condenser
c.The system is likely undercharged (low on refrigerant)
d.The TXV is oversized

On a TXV system, subcooling lower than the manufacturer's target usually means the system is undercharged, because there is not enough liquid backing up in the condenser to be subcooled. The technician would add refrigerant slowly and recheck subcooling. High subcooling, by contrast, generally indicates an overcharge.

33. Before opening a Type II system for a compressor change, a technician recovers the refrigerant. Which sequence best protects both the technician and the environment?
a.Open the lines first, then recover whatever escapes
b.Recover the refrigerant into certified equipment and a proper cylinder, verify the required vacuum, then open the system
c.Vent the charge, then evacuate for cleanliness
d.Charge additional refrigerant before recovering to raise pressure

The correct sequence is to recover the refrigerant into certified recovery equipment and an approved cylinder, confirm the required evacuation level is reached, and only then open the system. Opening the lines first or venting releases refrigerant illegally. Recovery before service both prevents emissions and keeps the technician safe from a sudden refrigerant release.

34. A technician performs a standing pressure (leak) test on a repaired Type II system using dry nitrogen. Over several hours the pressure holds steady with no drop. What does this indicate?
a.The system definitely needs more refrigerant
b.The nitrogen has turned to liquid
c.There must be a large leak
d.No detectable leak is present, so evacuation and charging can proceed

A standing pressure test that holds steady over time (after correcting for temperature changes) indicates no detectable leak. The technician can then evacuate and charge the system. A pressure drop, by contrast, would signal a leak that must be found and repaired before charging.

35. A technician is selecting a vacuum pump to properly dehydrate a Type II R-410A system. Why is a dedicated vacuum pump used instead of the recovery machine to pull the final vacuum?
a.Recovery machines pull a deeper vacuum than any vacuum pump
b.Vacuum pumps are only for low-pressure chillers
c.A vacuum pump can reach the deep vacuum (down to hundreds of microns) needed to boil off moisture, which a recovery machine is not designed to do
d.Using a vacuum pump lets the technician vent refrigerant safely

A vacuum pump is designed to reach the deep vacuum, often several hundred microns, required to boil moisture out of the system, while a recovery machine is built to move refrigerant, not to achieve that deep dehydration vacuum. Reaching a low, stable micron level ensures moisture and noncondensables are removed. A vacuum pump is never used to vent refrigerant.

36. A technician retrofitting an R-22 system to an HFC replacement changes the oil and refrigerant. Which additional component is most commonly replaced during the retrofit?
a.The filter-drier
b.The evaporator coil
c.The condenser fan motor
d.The disconnect switch

During a retrofit, the filter-drier is commonly replaced to protect the new refrigerant and oil charge and to capture any residual moisture or contaminants. The metering device may also need adjustment or replacement. The evaporator, condenser fan motor, and disconnect are not routinely changed just because of a refrigerant retrofit.

37. A technician is unsure which required vacuum applies to a high-pressure appliance during recovery. Which two factors determine the required evacuation level?
a.The outdoor temperature and the refrigerant color
b.The technician's certification type and the day of the week
c.The oil type and the cylinder color
d.The appliance's refrigerant charge size (under vs. 200 lbs or more) and whether the recovery equipment was made before or after November 15, 1993

The required recovery evacuation level for high-pressure appliances depends on whether the appliance holds less than 200 pounds or 200 pounds or more, and on whether the recovery equipment was manufactured before or after November 15, 1993. For example, post-1993 equipment must reach 10 inches Hg under 200 pounds and 15 inches Hg at 200 pounds or more. Outdoor temperature, oil type, and cylinder color do not set the requirement.

40 CFR §82.156
38. A technician recovers refrigerant from a heat pump in heating mode and is unsure which service port to use. On a heat pump, why must the technician understand the reversing valve position when recovering or charging?
a.The reversing valve changes the refrigerant into a different chemical
b.The reversing valve swaps which coil is the condenser and which is the evaporator, changing high and low sides
c.Heat pumps cannot be recovered while installed
d.The reversing valve makes recovery illegal

A heat pump's reversing valve switches the roles of the indoor and outdoor coils between heating and cooling, so which line is the high side and which is the low side changes with the mode. Understanding this ensures the technician connects to the correct ports and interprets pressures correctly. The valve does not change the refrigerant itself or prohibit recovery.

39. A commercial refrigeration appliance holds more than 50 pounds of an ozone-depleting refrigerant and has developed a leak. Under the Section 608 leak-repair requirements, what must the owner or operator generally do?
a.Nothing, because leaks under 50 pounds are exempt
b.Vent the remaining charge and refill
c.Repair leaks when the appliance's leak rate exceeds the applicable threshold, or follow a retrofit/retire plan
d.Replace the refrigerant with air

For appliances containing more than 50 pounds of an ozone-depleting refrigerant, owners and operators must repair leaks when the annual leak rate exceeds the applicable regulatory threshold, or otherwise follow a plan to retrofit or retire the equipment. Timely leak repair reduces refrigerant emissions. Venting is never an acceptable response to a leak.

40 CFR §82.156
40. After evacuating a Type II R-410A system to a deep vacuum, a technician is ready to charge. Which practice supports an accurate final charge?
a.Weigh in the manufacturer's specified charge, then fine-tune using subcooling (TXV) or superheat (fixed orifice)
b.Charge until the low-side gauge reads any positive pressure
c.Add refrigerant until frost appears on the compressor
d.Charge vapor into the liquid line while off

The most accurate approach is to weigh in the manufacturer's specified charge, then verify and fine-tune using subcooling on a TXV system or superheat on a fixed-orifice system. Judging by gauge pressure alone or by frost is unreliable and can lead to over- or undercharging. Blends like R-410A are charged as liquid, metered to protect the compressor.

Last reviewed: · editorial process

PrepPass Editorial Team · Verified against Clean Air Act §608 / 40 CFR Part 82 · How we review

What's on the EPA Section 608 Technician Certification Exam (Core, Type I, Type II, Type III / Universal)?

The EPA Section 608 Technician Certification Exam (Core, Type I, Type II, Type III / Universal) is administered by the Administered by EPA-approved certifying organizations (e.g., ESCO Institute, Mainstream Engineering, HVAC Excellence) under U.S. EPA oversight. Topic weights below come directly from the official exam blueprint — focus your study on the highest-weighted areas first.

Exam length
Core plus each Type has 25 multiple-choice questions; Universal requires all four sections (100 questions total)
Passing score
70%

Topic blueprint

  • 25%
    Core (Universal)
  • 15%
    Regulations & Safety
  • 15%
    Type I — Small Appliances
  • 15%
    Type II — High-Pressure
  • 15%
    Type III — Low-Pressure
  • 15%
    Recovery & Recycling

How hard is the exam?

Moderate. EPA 608 is taken as separate sections — Core plus Type I, II, and/or III — 25 questions each, closed-book and proctored, 70% (18 of 25) to pass each. Core is conceptual (ozone, regulations); the Type sections are hands-on refrigerant handling.

Recommended study hours
10-25 hours; Universal (all four sections) needs the most review.
First-attempt pass rate
Core and Type I pass easily; Type II is the most-failed section. Expect 1-2 attempts on the harder types.
Where to focus first
Core regulations (ozone, Clean Air Act, recovery) plus Type II high-pressure recovery/evacuation — the sections people retake most.

Frequently asked questions

How many EPA 608 practice questions are here?+

240 original practice questions across all four sections — Core, Type I (small appliances), Type II (high-pressure), and Type III (low-pressure) — plus recovery/recycling, in English and Español, with a 40 CFR Part 82 or Clean Air Act §608 citation on most answers.

Is this EPA 608 practice test free?+

Yes — completely free, no signup. Unlimited rounds, a full timed mock exam, and explanations included. The official EPA 608 certification exam (about $20-$100) is taken separately through an EPA-approved organization.

Are these real EPA 608 exam questions?+

No. All 240 questions are original prose written from the public-domain Clean Air Act Section 608 and 40 CFR Part 82. We never copy from any prep provider or the real exam.

How is the EPA 608 exam structured and what's the passing score?+

It has four sections — Core plus Type I, II, and III — 25 questions each, and you need 70% (about 18 of 25) to pass each. Passing Core plus all three types earns Universal certification. Core and the Type sections are proctored.

Does the EPA 608 certification expire?+

No — EPA Section 608 technician certification is valid for life and never expires.

What languages is the EPA 608 exam available in?+

Many EPA-approved organizations offer it in English and Spanish. PrepPass practice is available in English and Español.

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