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1. The PASS acronym for operating a portable fire extinguisher stands for:

PASS — Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep — is the standard portable-extinguisher operation procedure adopted by NFPA 10 and taught in BSIS emergency-response modules. Pull the pin to disable the safety; Aim the nozzle at the base of the flames (not the smoke or tops); Squeeze the handle to discharge; Sweep side to side across the base until the fuel is extinguished. The acronym is paired with the rule that extinguishers are only for incipient (small, contained) fires; if a fire is larger than a wastebasket, evacuate and call 911 — do not attempt suppression.

2. Which fire extinguisher class is rated specifically for kitchen cooking-oil and animal-fat fires?

Class K extinguishers (potassium acetate or potassium citrate solution producing saponification) are designed for commercial-kitchen cooking-oil and animal-fat fires, which cannot safely be extinguished with water. Class A handles ordinary combustibles (wood, paper, cloth); Class B handles flammable liquids (gasoline, oil); Class C handles energized electrical equipment; Class D handles combustible metals (magnesium, lithium). Using the wrong class can be catastrophic — water on a grease fire causes a fireball; water on energized equipment can electrocute the operator.

3. In a phased (rather than full) building evacuation, the typical pattern is:

Phased evacuation, used in tall buildings where total evacuation could overwhelm stairwells and impede fire-department access, evacuates the fire floor first and then the floors immediately above and below as the highest-risk areas. Additional zones evacuate as the situation develops. Total simultaneous evacuation (b) can paradoxically delay egress and trap occupants; floor-only evacuation (c) ignores the rapid vertical spread of smoke and heat; waiting for verbal clearance (d) delays life-safety action when seconds matter.

4. An officer finds an unresponsive person in a hallway. The first action under standard BSIS emergency procedures is:

Standard emergency-response sequence is scene safety first (the officer is no help if they become a second casualty), then call 911 (or direct a specific person to call), then assess responsiveness and breathing, then provide care within trained scope (CPR, AED, bleeding control). Compressions before assessment (a) wastes effort if the person is breathing; moving the patient (b) risks aggravating spinal or other injuries; waiting passively (d) costs critical minutes in cardiac arrest, where survival drops roughly 10% per minute without intervention.

5. California Civil Code §1714.21 provides immunity for lay rescuers who use an Automated External Defibrillator (AED). The immunity:

Civil Code §1714.21 provides Good Samaritan protection for lay AED users acting in good faith and without compensation during a medical emergency. The immunity does NOT extend to gross negligence or willful misconduct (d), and it does require certain employer compliance for AED programs (training, maintenance, signage). It does not require medical licensure (a) — the whole point is encouraging bystander use. No waiver is needed (c). California has adopted these protections specifically to encourage AED deployment in workplaces and public buildings.

6. Current American Heart Association CPR guidelines call for adult chest compressions at a rate of approximately:

Current AHA Basic Life Support guidelines recommend chest compressions of at least 100 to 120 per minute for adults, at a depth of at least 2 inches but no more than 2.4 inches, allowing full chest recoil between compressions, and minimizing interruptions. The cadence matches the beat of songs such as 'Stayin' Alive.' Too slow (a, b) reduces perfusion; too fast (c) prevents full chest recoil and refilling. For untrained bystanders, hands-only CPR (continuous compressions without rescue breaths) is acceptable and effective.

7. A conscious adult is clutching their throat and unable to speak or cough. The trained first response is:

For a conscious adult choking on a foreign object (universal sign: hands at throat, unable to speak/cough/breathe), the standard intervention is abdominal thrusts (Heimlich maneuver) — fist placed just above the navel and below the rib cage, sharp inward and upward thrusts. If the person becomes unresponsive, lower them to the ground and begin CPR, checking the mouth for the object before each set of breaths. Blind finger sweeps (d) can push objects deeper. Water (c) can aspirate into the lungs. Lying flat first (a) loses gravity assistance.

8. For a victim with severe arterial bleeding from a limb that direct pressure cannot control, current bleeding-control guidance — popularized by the DHS-supported Stop the Bleed campaign — endorses:

Post-2015 trauma data — much of it from combat experience and refined by the American College of Surgeons' Stop the Bleed campaign — re-established tourniquets as life-saving for severe limb hemorrhage that direct pressure cannot control. Apply 2-3 inches above the wound (not on a joint), tighten until bleeding stops, note the application time, and never remove until a hospital can manage hemorrhage control. Elevation alone (b) is insufficient for arterial bleeding; thermal manipulation (c) is harmful; doing nothing (d) costs lives — exsanguination can occur in 2-5 minutes.

9. The 'FAST' mnemonic for recognizing a stroke stands for:

FAST is the American Stroke Association's public-recognition mnemonic: Face drooping (ask the person to smile — is one side drooping?), Arm weakness (ask to raise both arms — does one drift down?), Speech difficulty (ask to repeat a simple sentence — is it slurred or strange?), Time to call 911 immediately and note when symptoms began (eligibility for tPA clot-buster medication is roughly 3-4.5 hours from onset). Some agencies use 'BE-FAST' adding Balance and Eyes. Rapid recognition and 911 activation saves brain tissue: 'Time is brain.'

10. Classic warning signs of a heart attack (acute myocardial infarction) include:

Classic heart-attack signs are chest pressure or discomfort (often described as squeezing or heaviness), radiation to the left arm, jaw, neck, or back, shortness of breath, cold sweat, nausea, and lightheadedness. Critically, women, diabetics, and elderly patients often present atypically — with fatigue, indigestion, or shortness of breath instead of classic chest pain — and these presentations are commonly missed. Call 911 immediately; chewable aspirin if conscious and not allergic. Right-side-only pain (a), isolated abdominal pain (c, possible but not classic), and bilateral vision loss (d, more suggestive of stroke) are less typical.

11. The DHS-endorsed active-shooter response framework, taught in BSIS modules, is:

DHS Run/Hide/Fight, also adopted by the FBI and ALERRT (Advanced Law Enforcement Rapid Response Training), is the consensus civilian framework. Run — evacuate if a safe path exists, leaving belongings behind. Hide — if running is unsafe, lock and barricade, turn off lights, silence phones, and stay quiet. Fight — only as a last resort when life is in immediate danger, commit fully, use improvised weapons, and act as a group when possible. Mandatory engagement (a) is not standard security guard protocol unless armed and specifically trained. Passive options (b, c) cost lives.

12. An employee answering a phone receives a bomb threat. The FBI/DHS-endorsed protocol calls for the call-taker to:

FBI/DHS bomb-threat protocol calls for keeping the caller on the line as long as possible, recording exact words verbatim, noting voice characteristics (accent, age, gender, demeanor), background sounds (traffic, machinery, music, voices), and any specific details about the device or motive. A coworker silently signals 911. The completed Bomb Threat Checklist gives investigators critical leads. Hanging up (a) destroys intelligence value; threatening the caller (c) escalates and ends the call; public PA announcements (d) cause panic and may trigger an actual detonation if a device is present.

13. A suspicious unattended package is found in a lobby. The security officer should:

DHS suspicious-package protocol is 'Recognize, Avoid, Isolate, Notify' (the RAIN model). Do NOT touch, move, open, smell, or shake the item — any of these can detonate a device or release a hazardous substance. Clear the area to a safe distance (rule of thumb: at least 300 feet for a small package, much further for a vehicle), prevent re-entry, notify law enforcement, and brief responding officers on what was observed, who reported it, and where the item is. Building bomb-incident plans should be pre-written and rehearsed.

14. California's official earthquake response protocol — promoted by the Earthquake Country Alliance and Cal-OES — is:

Drop, Cover, and Hold On is the consensus protocol from Cal-OES, ECA, USGS, and FEMA. Drop to your hands and knees so the quake does not knock you over; take Cover under a sturdy table or against an interior wall protecting head and neck; Hold On to your shelter and ride it out. Running outside (b) exposes you to falling glass, masonry, and powerlines — most injuries occur from movement during shaking. Doorways (c) are myth-busted: modern doorways are no stronger than other parts of the structure. Lying in the open (d) leaves head and neck unprotected.

15. After an earthquake passes, post-shaking hazards a security officer must assess include:

Earthquakes generate cascading hazards: structural compromise (do not re-enter visibly damaged buildings); gas leaks (smell, hissing — do NOT switch lights, do NOT use phones nearby, do not light flames; evacuate and call utility/911); water-main breaks; hazmat spills; injured or trapped occupants; and aftershocks, which can be nearly as strong as the initial event. Elevators must be assumed unsafe and stairs used. Officers complete a structured walk-through, document hazards, account for occupants, and coordinate with fire and EMS — the emergency persists well after shaking ends.

16. During an extended commercial-property power outage, the security officer's priorities include:

Power outages create predictable security failures: electronic locks may fail open (security risk) or closed (egress risk — fire code requires fail-safe egress); elevators trap occupants; surveillance and alarm systems may degrade; opportunistic theft increases. The officer activates backup lighting and radios, walks all areas (including dark ones with a flashlight), checks elevator phones for trapped occupants, monitors entry points, communicates with the client, and documents. Routine patrols (a) cannot be limited to lit floors; uncoordinated closure (c) creates liability; passive disengagement (d) breaches contract.

17. An officer observes a suspected hazardous-material spill or release with strong chemical odor. The correct immediate response is:

Standard hazmat awareness — NFPA 472 / OSHA 1910.120 First Responder Awareness Level — directs untrained personnel to evacuate, isolate, and notify. Move UPWIND and UPHILL to escape vapor/liquid flow; evacuate occupants from the affected area; deny entry; call 911 specifying possible hazmat; and provide identifying information observed from safe distance (placards, NFPA 704 diamond, container shape, color, odor). Close approach (a), spreading (b), or contact (d) put the officer at risk and may worsen contamination. Officers do NOT mitigate the release — trained hazmat teams do.

18. California Labor Code §6401.9, added by SB 553 and effective July 1, 2024, requires most California employers to:

SB 553, codified at Labor Code §6401.9, requires nearly all California employers (some narrow exemptions) to establish a written Workplace Violence Prevention Plan, conduct training, maintain a Violent Incident Log, and perform periodic hazard assessments. The plan must include reporting procedures, response procedures, employee-involvement provisions, and post-incident review. The law does not mandate equipment or armed guards specifically (a, b, d) — it focuses on planning, training, and recordkeeping. Security officers should be familiar with the client's WVPP.

19. Officer survival principles taught in BSIS modules emphasize:

BSIS officer-survival modules incorporate Cooper's color codes — White (unaware, vulnerable), Yellow (relaxed alert, baseline for on-duty officers), Orange (specific potential threat identified, plan forming), Red (threat materialized, ready to act). Officers maintain distance, use cover (stops bullets) versus concealment (blocks view only), watch hands (weapons appear from hands), and continuously reassess. Aggression (b) escalates; carrying a firearm without an exposed-firearms permit (BPC §7583.5) is unlawful for unarmed-guard registration; total avoidance (d) defeats the security role.

20. Among the following pieces of equipment, which generally requires a separate BSIS permit beyond the basic Guard Card?

California requires guards carrying firearms on duty to hold a separate Firearm Qualification Card (sometimes called Exposed Firearm Permit) under Business & Professions Code §7583.5, in addition to the basic Guard Card registration. Similarly, baton (PC §22210), pepper spray under specified ounces, and TASER/CEW require permits or specific training under BSIS regulations. Flashlights (a), radios (b), and writing materials (c) require no separate permit. The Firearm Qualification involves a 14-hour course and live-fire qualification with renewal requirements.