NHA Phlebotomy Technician (CPT) — All Questions

A phlebotomist must collect a blood culture set, a PT/INR, a basic metabolic panel on a gel serum tube, and a CBC. Which collection sequence follows the standard order of draw?

• a.Blood culture, light blue, gel serum tube, lavender✓
• b.Light blue, blood culture, lavender, gel serum tube
• c.Gel serum tube, blood culture, light blue, lavender
• d.Lavender, light blue, blood culture, gel serum tube

The standard order of draw is blood culture (sterile) first, then the light blue sodium citrate coagulation tube, then serum tubes with or without gel, then heparin, then EDTA, then glycolytic inhibitor tubes. Drawing the blood culture first protects it from skin-flora contamination introduced by non-sterile tube handling. Every other sequence listed allows additive carryover into a tube where that additive causes error, most notably EDTA carried into a chemistry or coagulation tube.CLSI GP41

A phlebotomist accidentally draws the lavender EDTA tube before the light blue citrate tube. What is the most likely consequence for the coagulation results?

• a.The specimen will clot in the light blue tube within seconds
• b.There is no effect because both tubes contain anticoagulants
• c.The PT and aPTT will be falsely shortened by the added EDTA
• d.EDTA carryover chelates calcium and can falsely prolong the PT and aPTT✓

EDTA is a potent calcium chelator, and even a trace carried over on the needle into the citrate tube removes additional calcium and can falsely prolong clotting times. It may also falsely raise potassium and lower calcium if carried into a chemistry tube. The tubes are not interchangeable simply because both are anticoagulated; each anticoagulant works by a different mechanism and only citrate is validated for routine coagulation testing.CLSI GP41

A patient has small veins and the phlebotomist leaves the tourniquet in place while palpating for two full minutes. What analytic problem is most likely?

• a.Dilution of the specimen with interstitial fluid
• b.Loss of platelets from the sample
• c.Hemoconcentration with falsely elevated protein, calcium and potassium✓
• d.Complete clotting of the EDTA specimen

The tourniquet should stay on no longer than one minute; beyond that, plasma water leaves the vessel and protein-bound and cellular analytes concentrate. This produces falsely elevated total protein, albumin, calcium, potassium and hematocrit. Tourniquet time does not dilute the sample or cause the EDTA tube to clot, and platelets are not selectively lost.CLSI GP41

Which antecubital vein is the first choice for routine venipuncture in an adult?

• a.Median cubital vein✓
• b.Basilic vein
• c.Radial vein
• d.Brachial vein

The median cubital vein is selected first because it is usually large, well anchored, close to the surface and farthest from the brachial artery and median nerve. The basilic vein is the last antecubital choice precisely because the artery and nerve lie beneath it. The brachial and radial vessels are deep or arterial and are not used for routine venipuncture.CLSI GP41

At what angle to the skin should the needle be inserted for a routine antecubital venipuncture?

• a.90 degrees
• b.15 to 30 degrees✓
• c.5 degrees or less
• d.45 to 60 degrees

A 15 to 30 degree angle allows the bevel to enter the vein lumen without passing through the far wall. An angle that is too shallow causes the needle to ride on top of the vein and fail to enter; an angle of 45 degrees or more risks going through the vein and into underlying structures. A 90 degree insertion is used for dermal puncture devices, not for venipuncture.CLSI GP41

Which needle gauge range is standard for routine adult venipuncture with an evacuated tube system?

• a.25 to 27 gauge
• b.16 to 18 gauge
• c.18 to 20 gauge
• d.21 to 23 gauge✓

Gauges 21 to 23 are standard: 21 is the general-purpose size, 22 is used for smaller or fragile veins, and 23 is typical of a winged (butterfly) set. Larger bores such as 16 to 18 gauge are used for blood donation or infusion and are unnecessarily traumatic for diagnostic draws. Very small bores like 25 gauge force cells through a narrow lumen and cause hemolysis.CLSI GP41

A provider orders a lactate and a blood alcohol level. Which tube additive combination is designed to preserve these analytes?

• a.K2 EDTA
• b.Lithium heparin
• c.Sodium citrate
• d.Sodium fluoride and potassium oxalate✓

The gray-top tube contains sodium fluoride, an antiglycolytic agent that stops cells from consuming glucose or generating lactate, plus potassium oxalate as the anticoagulant. Citrate is for coagulation testing, heparin for stat chemistry, and EDTA for hematology; none of them inhibit glycolysis. Note that a non-alcohol antiseptic must also be used when collecting a blood alcohol.CLSI GP41

The light blue stopper tube used for PT/INR and aPTT contains which additive, and why must it be filled completely?

• a.Sodium citrate, because a fixed 9:1 blood-to-anticoagulant ratio is required✓
• b.Thrombin, because clotting must be accelerated
• c.EDTA, because underfilling shrinks the red cells
• d.Heparin, because it must be balanced against the plasma volume

Sodium citrate reversibly binds calcium and requires a 9 parts blood to 1 part anticoagulant ratio. An underfilled tube leaves excess citrate that binds reagent calcium during testing and falsely prolongs the PT and aPTT. Heparin and EDTA are not used for routine coagulation, and thrombin is found in rapid-serum tubes, not coagulation tubes.CLSI GP41

A comprehensive metabolic panel is ordered. Which tube is appropriate and what does it contain?

• a.Gray tube containing sodium fluoride
• b.Light blue tube containing sodium citrate
• c.Gold or tiger-top serum separator tube containing a clot activator and gel✓
• d.Lavender tube containing K2 EDTA

Chemistry panels are run on serum from a serum separator tube, which holds a clot activator plus a thixotropic gel that forms a barrier between serum and cells after centrifugation. Citrate tubes are for coagulation, EDTA for hematology, and fluoride for glucose and alcohol preservation. Using an anticoagulated tube in place of the SST changes several chemistry values.CLSI GP41

A stat ammonia level is ordered. Which tube is used and where does it fall in the order of draw?

• a.Green heparin tube, drawn after serum tubes and before EDTA✓
• b.Lavender EDTA tube, drawn before the serum tube
• c.Light blue citrate tube, drawn first
• d.Gray fluoride tube, drawn before heparin

Ammonia is collected in a heparin tube, and heparin tubes are drawn after serum tubes and before EDTA in the standard order. The specimen must also be placed on ice and delivered promptly because ammonia rises quickly at room temperature. EDTA, citrate and fluoride tubes are not appropriate for ammonia and none of them occupy the heparin position in the sequence.CLSI GP41

Which group of tests is collected in the lavender EDTA tube?

• a.Comprehensive metabolic panel and lipid panel
• b.Glucose, lactate and blood alcohol
• c.CBC, hemoglobin A1c and ESR✓
• d.PT, aPTT and fibrinogen

EDTA preserves cell morphology and prevents platelet clumping, so it is the tube of choice for the CBC, hemoglobin A1c and the erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Coagulation tests require citrate, glucose and alcohol require a fluoride tube, and chemistry panels require serum or heparinized plasma. Substituting EDTA for a chemistry tube falsely raises potassium and falsely lowers calcium.CLSI GP41

What is the maximum lancet penetration depth for a heel stick on a newborn?

• a.2.0 mm✓
• b.5.0 mm
• c.3.5 mm
• d.There is no depth limit if the heel is warmed

Penetration must not exceed 2.0 mm because the calcaneus in a newborn may lie only 2 to 3 mm below the plantar skin, and bone contact can cause osteomyelitis. Depths of 3.5 mm or 5 mm greatly increase that risk. Warming the heel improves blood flow but does not change the safe depth limit.CLSI GP42

A phlebotomist is preparing a heel stick on a two-day-old infant. Which site is acceptable?

• a.The posterior curvature of the heel
• b.The medial or lateral plantar surface of the heel✓
• c.The great toe
• d.The arch of the foot

Only the medial and lateral plantar surfaces of the heel are used, because the calcaneus does not extend into these areas. The posterior curvature sits directly over the bone, and the arch overlies nerves, tendons and cartilage. The great toe and other fingers or toes are not acceptable dermal puncture sites in a newborn.CLSI GP42

During a capillary collection the phlebotomist must fill a lavender microtube and a serum microtube. Which order is correct?

• a.Both must be filled at the same time from separate punctures
• b.Either order, because capillary blood has no additive carryover
• c.Lavender microtube first, then serum✓
• d.Serum microtube first, then lavender

The capillary order of draw differs from venipuncture: after any blood gas specimen, EDTA is collected first so that platelets are captured before they aggregate at the puncture site, followed by other additive tubes and finally serum. Filling the serum tube first would leave a clumped, unrepresentative platelet count. Carryover and clotting both occur in capillary work, so order does matter and a second puncture is not required.CLSI GP42

A phlebotomist cleans the site with 70% isopropyl alcohol and inserts the needle immediately while the skin is still wet. What is the most likely result?

• a.The venipuncture will be less painful for the patient
• b.Stinging for the patient and hemolysis of the specimen✓
• c.The antiseptic effect will be improved
• d.The specimen will clot faster in the tube

Alcohol must air dry for about 30 seconds so it can kill organisms and so residual alcohol is not carried into the vein. Wet alcohol stings on needle entry and lyses red cells, producing hemolysis that falsely raises potassium, LDH and AST. Drying is part of the antiseptic action, so puncturing early reduces rather than improves disinfection.CLSI GP41

Which skin antisepsis is appropriate before collecting blood cultures from an adult?

• a.Soap and water only
• b.A single wipe of 70% isopropyl alcohol
• c.No antisepsis is needed because the bottles are sterile
• d.Chlorhexidine gluconate applied with friction and allowed to dry completely✓

Blood cultures require an antiseptic effective against resident skin flora, and chlorhexidine gluconate applied with friction and fully dried is the standard for patients older than two months. A quick alcohol wipe alone does not reduce skin flora enough and leads to false-positive contaminated cultures. Sterile bottles do not protect against organisms carried in on the needle from unprepared skin.CLSI GP41

An inpatient has an IV infusing in the left forearm and no accessible veins in the right arm. What is the best action?

• a.Cancel the order and document that no site was available
• b.Ask the nurse to stop the infusion, wait at least two minutes, then draw below the IV and discard the first 5 mL✓
• c.Draw from the IV line without flushing it
• d.Draw directly above the IV site with the infusion running

When no other site exists, the infusion is stopped by licensed personnel, a short wait allows the fluid to clear, the draw is made distal to the IV so blood has not passed the infusion point, and a discard volume clears residual fluid. Drawing above a running IV dilutes the specimen with infusate. Drawing from a line without flushing gives contaminated results, and simply canceling the order abandons a resolvable problem.CLSI GP41

A patient had a right mastectomy with lymph node removal 14 months ago and has an IV in the left hand. What should the phlebotomist do?

• a.Consult the patient's provider for guidance before selecting a site✓
• b.Draw above the IV in the left arm
• c.Draw from the right antecubital area since the surgery was over a year ago
• d.Use a fingerstick on the right hand without asking anyone

Lymph node dissection impairs lymph drainage indefinitely, so the affected side is avoided because of infection and lymphedema risk, and there is no automatic time limit that makes it safe. With the only other arm carrying an IV, the correct step is to obtain provider direction rather than choose unilaterally. Drawing above an IV dilutes the sample, and a fingerstick on the affected side carries the same restriction as a venipuncture.CLSI GP41

Why is the basilic vein the last antecubital choice for venipuncture?

• a.It is too small to accommodate a 21 gauge needle
• b.The brachial artery and median nerve lie close beneath it✓
• c.It collapses under vacuum more easily than other veins
• d.It contains more valves than any other arm vein

The basilic vein sits on the medial side of the antecubital fossa directly over the brachial artery and near the median nerve, so puncture there carries the highest risk of arterial nicking and nerve injury. Size, collapse tendency and valve count are not the deciding factors. When the basilic vein must be used, the needle is anchored carefully and the patient is monitored for shooting pain.CLSI GP41

A light blue tube is filled only two thirds of the way because the vein collapsed. What should the phlebotomist do?

• a.Add saline to the tube to reach the fill line
• b.Send it and note 'short draw' on the requisition
• c.Discard the tube and recollect a properly filled citrate tube✓
• d.Pour the contents into a second light blue tube to reach the fill line

A short-filled citrate tube violates the required 9:1 ratio and produces falsely prolonged PT and aPTT results, so it must be recollected rather than reported with a comment. Combining two partially filled tubes doubles the anticoagulant relative to blood and makes the error worse. Adding any diluent to an evacuated tube is never acceptable because it alters both the ratio and the analyte concentration.CLSI GP41

How should an EDTA tube be mixed immediately after collection?

• a.Invert once and place upright in the rack
• b.Invert gently 8 to 10 times✓
• c.Do not mix; the additive dissolves on its own
• d.Shake vigorously five times

EDTA tubes require roughly 8 to 10 gentle inversions so the anticoagulant coats all the blood and microclots do not form. Vigorous shaking introduces mechanical trauma and hemolysis, which invalidates many tests. A single inversion or no mixing at all leaves clotted or clumped specimens that the laboratory must reject.CLSI GP41

A phlebotomist collects an aerobic and anaerobic blood culture set, then a green heparin tube, then a light blue citrate tube. What is the main problem?

• a.Heparin and citrate tubes cannot be drawn during the same venipuncture
• b.The citrate tube was drawn after heparin, so heparin carryover can prolong clotting times✓
• c.Blood cultures should never be drawn first
• d.There is no problem; the sequence is correct

The citrate tube must immediately follow the blood cultures and precede all serum and heparin tubes. Because heparin inhibits thrombin, carryover into the citrate tube can falsely prolong the aPTT. Blood cultures are correctly drawn first, and both tubes may be collected in one venipuncture as long as the sequence is respected.CLSI GP41

A phlebotomist has just filled a light blue citrate tube. According to the standard order of draw, which tube is collected next?

• a.Gold serum separator tube✓
• b.Gray sodium fluoride tube
• c.Green heparin tube
• d.Lavender EDTA tube

After the citrate tube, serum tubes with or without a gel separator are collected, followed by heparin, then EDTA, then the fluoride tube. Placing EDTA or fluoride earlier risks carrying potassium-containing or oxalate additives into chemistry tubes. Heparin also follows, not precedes, the serum tube in the standard sequence.CLSI GP41

A patient is told to pump the fist repeatedly while the tourniquet is on. Which result is most affected?

• a.Sodium, which may be falsely decreased
• b.Hemoglobin, which may be falsely decreased
• c.Platelet count, which may be falsely elevated
• d.Potassium, which may be falsely elevated✓

Vigorous fist pumping causes muscle cells to release potassium into the local circulation, so the measured potassium can be falsely high. Patients may make a fist once to help the vein, but repeated pumping is discouraged. Hemoglobin, sodium and platelet counts are not meaningfully changed by this mechanism.CLSI GP41

A coagulation specimen is the only tube ordered and a winged blood collection set will be used. What should be done first?

• a.Fill the citrate tube directly, since the tubing volume is negligible
• b.Use a 25 gauge needle to slow the fill rate
• c.Remove the tourniquet before attaching the citrate tube
• d.Draw and discard a tube first to prime the tubing air space✓

The air in a winged set's tubing displaces blood from the first tube, so a discard tube is drawn first to prime the line and preserve the 9:1 fill ratio. Filling the citrate tube directly would underfill it and falsely prolong clotting times. The tourniquet stays on until blood flow is established, and a 25 gauge needle is too small and would cause hemolysis.CLSI GP41

The last tube is filling. In what order should the phlebotomist complete the venipuncture?

• a.Remove the last tube, release the tourniquet, then withdraw the needle and apply pressure✓
• b.Release the tourniquet, remove the needle, then remove the last tube
• c.Apply pressure to the site, then remove the needle and tourniquet together
• d.Remove the needle, release the tourniquet, then remove the last tube

The tube is removed from the holder first so no vacuum pulls on the vein, the tourniquet is released next to lower venous pressure, and only then is the needle withdrawn and pressure applied. Pulling the needle out with the tourniquet still tight forces blood into the tissue and causes a hematoma. Removing a tube after the needle is out is impossible, and pressure cannot be applied while the needle is still in the vein.CLSI GP41

A 4-year-old needs a CBC and a basic metabolic panel. Which approach best matches pediatric practice?

• a.Use an 18 gauge needle to finish quickly
• b.Draw from a foot vein without provider approval
• c.Use a 23 gauge winged set with small-volume tubes and secure, gentle immobilization✓
• d.Apply the tourniquet for three minutes to enlarge the vein

Children have small, mobile veins and a limited total blood volume, so a 23 gauge winged set with pediatric-volume tubes reduces trauma and blood loss. A large 18 gauge needle is unnecessarily traumatic, prolonged tourniquet time causes hemoconcentration, and lower-extremity draws require provider authorization. Comforting and safely holding the child also improves success on the first attempt.CLSI GP41

An 88-year-old patient has thin skin, fragile veins and takes warfarin. Which modification is most appropriate?

• a.Slap the arm firmly to raise the vein
• b.Apply the tourniquet as tightly as possible
• c.Use a 16 gauge needle so the draw finishes faster
• d.Anchor the vein without dragging the skin, use a 23 gauge winged set, and hold pressure longer after the draw✓

Older skin tears easily and anticoagulated patients bleed longer, so gentle anchoring, a smaller winged needle and extended pressure after needle removal are appropriate. Slapping the arm and overtightening the tourniquet bruise fragile tissue and can rupture the vein. A large bore needle increases trauma without any benefit for a routine draw.CLSI GP41

A requisition lists the patient name and tests but has no ordering provider and no collection priority. What should the phlebotomist do?

• a.Collect the specimens and write in a provider name from the chart
• b.Collect the specimens and let the laboratory sort it out
• c.Stop and have the incomplete requisition corrected before collecting✓
• d.Collect only the tests the phlebotomist recognizes

Laboratory testing must be performed on an authorized, complete order, so an incomplete requisition is clarified with the ordering source before any blood is drawn. Writing in information the phlebotomist did not receive from the provider falsifies the record. Collecting first and deferring the problem risks an unauthorized draw and a redraw for the patient.CLIA

How should the needle be positioned as it enters the skin during venipuncture?

• a.Bevel down and against the direction of blood flow
• b.Bevel up and in line with the vein, pointing toward the heart✓
• c.Bevel up but angled across the vein at 45 degrees
• d.Bevel sideways at 90 degrees to the vein

The bevel faces up and follows the long axis of the vein so the sharpest point enters first and the opening sits inside the lumen. Bevel-down entry can occlude the opening against the vein wall and stop flow. Crossing the vein at a steep or perpendicular angle increases the chance of going through the far wall and causing a hematoma.CLSI GP41

A phlebotomist has attempted venipuncture twice on the same patient without obtaining blood. What is the correct next step?

• a.Attempt a third and fourth time on the same arm
• b.Stop and ask another qualified phlebotomist to attempt the draw✓
• c.Probe laterally with the needle already in place until blood appears
• d.Send the patient home and cancel the tests

Standard practice limits a phlebotomist to two attempts before handing the patient to another qualified collector, which protects the patient from repeated trauma. Blind lateral probing risks nerve damage and arterial puncture and is never acceptable. Canceling ordered tests without escalation deprives the provider of needed results.CLSI GP41

Blood flow stops shortly after a good flash is seen. Which corrective action is appropriate?

• a.Move the needle rapidly side to side to find the vein
• b.Ask the patient to pump the fist continuously for one minute
• c.Pull the needle nearly out and reinsert it at a new angle
• d.Rotate the needle slightly or advance it a small amount, and confirm the tube is fully seated✓

Loss of flow is often caused by the bevel resting against a vein wall, a partially seated tube or a collapsed vein, so gentle rotation, slight advancement or reseating the tube usually restores flow. Withdrawing and reinserting or moving the needle laterally can lacerate the vein and injure nerves. Continuous fist pumping falsely elevates potassium and does not solve a positional problem.CLSI GP41

Which fingerstick technique is correct for an adult capillary glucose?

• a.Puncture the center of the fingertip parallel to the fingerprint lines
• b.Puncture the tip of the fifth finger
• c.Puncture the side of the fleshy pad of the third or fourth finger, across the fingerprint lines✓
• d.Puncture the thumb because it has the best blood supply

The side of the fleshy pad of the middle or ring finger is used, and the puncture crosses the fingerprint lines so the drop forms rather than running along a groove. The very center of the fingertip is the most nerve-dense and painful area. The fifth finger has little tissue over bone and the thumb has a pulse and thicker calluses, so both are avoided.CLSI GP42

A legal blood alcohol specimen is ordered. Which site preparation is required?

• a.A non-alcohol antiseptic such as povidone-iodine or soap and water✓
• b.No cleaning at all, to avoid contaminating the sample
• c.70% isopropyl alcohol allowed to dry for one minute
• d.Alcohol followed by chlorhexidine

Alcohol-based antiseptics can contaminate the specimen and cast doubt on a legally defensible result, so a non-alcohol antiseptic is used. Chlorhexidine preparations frequently contain alcohol, so combining them does not solve the problem. Skipping antisepsis entirely violates infection control and would itself invalidate the collection.CLSI GP41

An order requires a lavender EDTA tube and a gray fluoride tube only. Which sequence is correct and why?

• a.Gray first, because it is the smallest tube
• b.Gray first, because the fluoride preserves glucose better when drawn early
• c.Either order, because neither additive affects the other
• d.Lavender first, because EDTA precedes the glycolytic inhibitor tube in the order of draw✓

In the standard sequence the EDTA tube always precedes the sodium fluoride and potassium oxalate tube, which is drawn last. Potassium oxalate carried backward into an EDTA tube can distort cell morphology and hematology results. Tube size and how early the fluoride is drawn have no bearing on the required order.CLSI GP41

A newly hired phlebotomist asks about the hepatitis B vaccine. Under the Bloodborne Pathogens Standard, what must the employer do?

• a.Provide it only after the employee has a documented exposure
• b.Offer the vaccination series at no cost within 10 working days of assignment to at-risk duties✓
• c.Provide it only if the employee has worked there for one year
• d.Require the employee to pay half the cost of the series

The standard requires employers to offer the hepatitis B vaccination series free of charge within 10 working days of initial assignment to duties with occupational exposure. Employees may decline, but they must sign a declination form and may request the vaccine later at no cost. Charging the employee, waiting for an exposure or imposing a service requirement all violate the rule.OSHA 29 CFR 1910.1030

Which description matches a compliant sharps container?

• a.A clear plastic bag labeled with a biohazard symbol
• b.A rigid, puncture-resistant, leak-proof container that is closable and labeled with the biohazard symbol✓
• c.A cardboard box lined with a red bag
• d.Any lidded container kept in a locked cabinet

Sharps containers must be closable, puncture resistant, leak proof on sides and bottom, and labeled or color coded as biohazardous. Bags and cardboard cannot resist punctures and allow injuries and leakage. Storing an ordinary container in a locked cabinet does not meet the construction or labeling requirements, and containers must also be replaced before they are overfilled.OSHA 29 CFR 1910.1030

After a successful draw, what is the correct handling of the used needle?

• a.Bend it so it cannot be reused, then discard it
• b.Carry it to the laboratory and discard it there
• c.Recap it with two hands and then discard it
• d.Activate the safety device immediately and drop the whole assembly into the sharps container✓

Contaminated needles must not be recapped, bent, sheared or removed by hand, and the engineered safety feature is activated immediately at the point of use. The intact needle and holder are discarded together in the nearest sharps container. Recapping with two hands is the classic cause of needlesticks, and transporting an unprotected sharp exposes everyone along the route.OSHA 29 CFR 1910.1030

A phlebotomist sustains a needlestick from a used needle. What is the correct first action?

• a.Squeeze the site hard to force out blood
• b.Wash the site immediately with soap and running water, then report the exposure✓
• c.Apply a caustic agent such as bleach to the wound
• d.Finish the shift and report the injury at the end of the day

Immediate washing with soap and running water is the recommended first step, followed by prompt reporting so post-exposure evaluation, source testing and prophylaxis can begin within the effective window. Squeezing the wound damages tissue and has no proven benefit. Applying bleach or other caustics injures tissue, and delaying the report can push treatment past the point where it works best.OSHA 29 CFR 1910.1030

A phlebotomist finishes drawing a patient on contact precautions for Clostridioides difficile. Which hand hygiene is required?

• a.Use an alcohol-based hand rub only
• b.Use an alcohol rub twice in a row
• c.Wash with soap and running water✓
• d.Change gloves without performing hand hygiene

Alcohol-based rubs do not kill C. difficile spores, so hands must be washed with soap and running water, which physically removes them. Soap and water are also required whenever hands are visibly soiled. Repeating an alcohol rub does not add sporicidal activity, and changing gloves alone does not decontaminate the hands underneath.CDC Guideline for Hand Hygiene in Healthcare Settings

Which removal sequence for personal protective equipment best limits self-contamination?

• a.Mask, gown, gloves, goggles
• b.Gown, gloves, mask, goggles
• c.Gloves, goggles or face shield, gown, mask✓
• d.Goggles, mask, gloves, gown

Gloves are the most contaminated item and come off first, followed by eye protection, then the gown, and finally the mask, which is removed last and outside the patient room. Removing the mask early exposes the face while the hands are still contaminated. Hand hygiene is performed after glove removal and again after all PPE is off.CDC Guideline for Isolation Precautions

A phlebotomist is sent to draw a patient in airborne precautions for suspected tuberculosis. What is required?

• a.A gown and face shield only
• b.No additional protection if the draw takes under five minutes
• c.A surgical mask and gloves
• d.A fit-tested N95 or higher respirator, with the room door kept closed✓

Airborne precautions require a fit-tested N95 or higher-level respirator and an airborne infection isolation room with the door closed. A surgical mask does not filter droplet nuclei that stay suspended in air. Gowns and face shields address contact and splash risks, and short exposure time does not remove the inhalation hazard.CDC Guideline for Isolation Precautions

A patient is on contact precautions for MRSA. What PPE does the phlebotomist wear to enter and draw blood?

• a.N95 respirator and goggles
• b.Surgical mask only
• c.Gloves only, since the skin is intact
• d.Gown and gloves, donned before entering the room✓

Contact precautions require a gown and gloves put on before room entry and removed before exit, because transmission occurs through direct and indirect surface contact. An N95 is reserved for airborne precautions and a surgical mask for droplet precautions. Gloves alone leave the uniform free to pick up organisms from bedding and equipment.CDC Guideline for Isolation Precautions

Droplet precautions are ordered for a patient with suspected pertussis. What does the phlebotomist do?

• a.Wear a fit-tested N95 and place the patient in negative pressure
• b.Wear a gown but no facial protection
• c.Wear no PPE because droplets fall quickly to the ground
• d.Wear a surgical mask when working within about three to six feet of the patient✓

Droplet precautions call for a surgical mask on close approach, since respiratory droplets travel only a short distance before settling. Negative pressure rooms and N95 respirators are used for airborne organisms, not droplet spread. A gown alone leaves mucous membranes unprotected, and the fact that droplets settle is exactly why close-range protection is needed.CDC Guideline for Isolation Precautions

Two phlebotomists discuss a patient's positive test result by name in a crowded elevator. Which principle is violated?

• a.Protection of patient health information and the minimum necessary rule✓
• b.Quality control documentation
• c.Chain of custody
• d.Informed consent

Identifiable health information may be disclosed only to those with a legitimate need to know, and a public elevator conversation exposes it to people with no treatment relationship. Chain of custody concerns forensic specimen tracking, quality control concerns test accuracy, and informed consent concerns permission for a procedure. None of those cover casual disclosure of results.HIPAA

A pre-employment drug screen requires chain of custody. What does this documentation establish?

• a.That the specimen was collected while the donor was fasting
• b.That the laboratory participates in proficiency testing
• c.Every person who handled the specimen and every transfer from collection to reporting✓
• d.That the correct tube additive was used

Chain of custody is a legal record documenting identity, handling and transfer of a specimen at every step so its integrity can be defended in court. It typically includes a tamper-evident seal, dated signatures at each transfer and secure storage. Fasting status, additive selection and proficiency testing are quality issues but are not what a chain of custody form proves.

Which statement about CLIA-waived testing is accurate?

• a.Waived tests may be reported without patient identification
• b.Waived tests are simple, low-risk methods that must still be run exactly per the manufacturer instructions✓
• c.Waived tests do not require any manufacturer instructions to be followed
• d.Waived status means the facility needs no CLIA certificate at all

CLIA-waived tests, such as many point-of-care glucose meters, are considered simple with a low risk of error, but the facility still needs a Certificate of Waiver and must follow the manufacturer instructions exactly. Deviating from the instructions voids waived status. Patient identification and result documentation requirements apply to waived testing just as they do to all laboratory testing.CLIA

A point-of-care glucose meter's control result falls outside the acceptable range. What should be done?

• a.Ignore the failure if the patient result looks clinically reasonable
• b.Report the patient results and repeat the control at the end of the shift
• c.Stop patient testing, troubleshoot and repeat the control, and document the action before reporting results✓
• d.Average the failed control with the previous passing control

An out-of-range control indicates the system cannot be trusted, so patient testing stops until the cause is corrected and an acceptable control is obtained, with all steps documented. Reporting results from an unverified instrument risks patient harm. Averaging controls or judging results by clinical appearance defeats the purpose of objective quality control.CLIA

How often must an employer review and update the written Exposure Control Plan?

• a.Every five years
• b.Only after a documented exposure incident
• c.Only when a new employee is hired
• d.At least annually, and whenever new tasks or procedures affect exposure✓

The Exposure Control Plan must be reviewed and updated at least annually and whenever new or modified tasks and procedures change occupational exposure, including when safer devices become available. A five-year cycle is far too long and hiring alone is not the trigger. Waiting for an exposure incident is reactive and does not satisfy the standard.OSHA 29 CFR 1910.1030

A phlebotomist has just drawn an outpatient and the next patient is waiting. What is correct glove practice?

• a.Keep the same gloves and disinfect them with alcohol between patients
• b.Wear two pairs and peel off the outer pair between patients
• c.Keep the same gloves if they are not visibly soiled
• d.Remove and discard gloves after each patient, perform hand hygiene, and put on a new pair✓

Gloves are single-use items that must be removed and discarded after each patient, followed by hand hygiene and a fresh pair. Alcohol degrades glove material and does not reliably decontaminate it. Absence of visible soiling does not mean absence of contamination, and double gloving is not an approved substitute for changing gloves.OSHA 29 CFR 1910.1030