CSLB General Building (B) — All Questions

A cylinder head is warped beyond specification. Which service is normally required to restore a flat sealing surface?

• a.Replacing the head bolts only
• b.Installing a thicker head gasket
• c.Resurfacing (machining) the head✓
• d.Retorquing the head while hot

A warped head must be resurfaced by machining to bring the deck within flatness specification. A thicker gasket will not correct an uneven surface, and simply retorquing does not remove the warp. Excessive material removal, however, can raise compression and change valve timing on some engines.

Technician A says a blown head gasket can allow coolant to enter a cylinder and cause white exhaust smoke. Technician B says it can cause bubbles in the coolant recovery tank from combustion gases. Who is correct?

• a.Technician A only
• b.Both A and B✓
• c.Technician B only
• d.Neither A nor B

A failed head gasket can leak both ways: coolant into the cylinder produces white steam-like exhaust, and combustion pressure into the cooling system produces bubbles and possible overheating. Both technicians describe valid symptoms. A cooling-system pressure test and a combustion-gas (block) test help confirm the diagnosis.

A valve that fails to seat fully will most directly cause which condition?

• a.Low cylinder compression on that cylinder✓
• b.Excessive oil consumption only
• c.High oil pressure
• d.A stuck lifter

A valve that does not seat allows combustion pressure to escape, lowering compression in that cylinder and often causing a misfire. A cylinder leak-down test with air hissing from the intake or exhaust confirms an intake or exhaust valve leak. Burned valves and carbon deposits are common causes.

On an overhead-cam engine, excessive valve lash (clearance) most commonly produces which symptom?

• a.Blue exhaust smoke
• b.Loss of coolant
• c.Low oil pressure
• d.A clicking or tapping noise from the valvetrain✓

Too much clearance in the valvetrain lets components hammer against one another, producing a rhythmic tapping that changes with engine speed. Insufficient lash, by contrast, can hold valves open and burn them. Proper adjustment restores quiet operation and correct valve timing.

Technician A says the PCV system routes crankcase blow-by vapors into the intake to be burned. Technician B says a stuck PCV valve can cause rough idle or oil leaks. Who is correct?

• a.Both A and B✓
• b.Technician A only
• c.Technician B only
• d.Neither A nor B

The PCV system draws blow-by gases into the intake so they are burned rather than vented, and a stuck valve can cause rough idle, oil leaks, or high oil consumption. Both technicians are correct. This reduces sludge formation and emissions.

A mechanic measures cylinder taper by comparing bore diameter at the top of ring travel to the bottom. This measurement is taken with a:

• a.Feeler gauge
• b.Dial bore gauge or inside micrometer✓
• c.Vacuum gauge
• d.Compression tester

Cylinder taper and out-of-round are measured with a dial bore gauge or inside micrometer at several points in the bore. Wear is greatest at the top of ring travel where combustion heat and pressure are highest. Excessive taper requires boring and oversize pistons.

Technician A says low oil pressure only at idle on a high-mileage engine can be caused by worn bearing clearances. Technician B says a worn oil pump or diluted oil can also lower pressure. Who is correct?

• a.Technician A only
• b.Technician B only
• c.Both A and B✓
• d.Neither A nor B

Worn bearing clearances let oil escape faster than the pump maintains pressure at low speed, and a worn pump or fuel-diluted oil reduces pressure as well. Both technicians are correct. Verify with a mechanical gauge before condemning parts.

Which cooling-system component regulates coolant flow based on engine temperature?

• a.Water pump
• b.Radiator cap
• c.Heater core
• d.Thermostat✓

The thermostat stays closed until the engine reaches operating temperature, then opens to allow coolant to circulate through the radiator. A stuck-closed thermostat causes overheating; a stuck-open one causes slow warm-up and poor heater output. It is a common, inexpensive cause of temperature complaints.

A radiator pressure cap raises the system's boiling point primarily because:

• a.It adds antifreeze to the coolant
• b.Increased pressure raises the coolant's boiling temperature✓
• c.It lowers the coolant level
• d.It speeds up the water pump

Sealing the system under pressure raises the boiling point of the coolant, allowing higher operating temperatures without boil-over. A weak or faulty cap lowers the effective boiling point and can cause coolant loss. Caps should be pressure-tested when overheating is suspected.

Blue smoke from the exhaust under acceleration most often indicates:

• a.A rich fuel mixture
• b.Coolant in the combustion chamber
• c.Oil entering the combustion chamber✓
• d.A lean misfire

Blue smoke indicates oil is being burned, commonly from worn rings, cylinder walls, or valve guide seals. White smoke suggests coolant, and black smoke suggests excess fuel. A leak-down or compression test helps localize the source.

Technician A says timing-chain stretch can retard valve timing and set a camshaft/crankshaft correlation code. Technician B says a stretched timing chain has no effect on engine performance. Who is correct?

• a.Technician A only✓
• b.Both A and B
• c.Technician B only
• d.Neither A nor B

A stretched or worn timing chain changes the relationship between crankshaft and camshaft position, retarding valve timing and often setting a correlation DTC. This can cause rough running and reduced power. Technician B is incorrect because timing is directly affected.

Head bolts that use a torque-to-yield (TTY) design should be:

• a.Reused indefinitely
• b.Torqued to half the final value only
• c.Replaced with new bolts during reassembly✓
• d.Coated with anti-seize before reuse

Torque-to-yield bolts are stretched into their plastic range for a uniform clamp load and should not be reused. Reusing them risks uneven clamping and gasket failure. Always follow the specified torque-plus-angle sequence with new bolts.

The main function of engine oil, besides lubrication, includes all of the following EXCEPT:

• a.Cooling internal components
• b.Generating spark for combustion✓
• c.Cleaning and suspending contaminants
• d.Sealing between rings and cylinder walls

Engine oil lubricates, cools, cleans, and helps seal the rings, but it plays no role in generating spark. Spark is produced by the ignition system. Detergent and dispersant additives keep contaminants suspended until the filter or an oil change removes them.

A rhythmic knocking noise that is loudest under load and disappears when one cylinder is disabled most likely indicates:

• a.A loose accessory belt
• b.An exhaust leak
• c.A sticking valve
• d.A worn connecting-rod bearing on that cylinder✓

A rod bearing knock is load-sensitive and typically quiets when that cylinder's contribution is removed by disabling its injector or spark. Loose belts and exhaust leaks make different noises unrelated to individual cylinders. Excessive rod bearing clearance is confirmed with Plastigage during disassembly.

Coolant is leaking internally and the engine oil appears milky. The MOST likely cause is:

• a.A worn timing belt
• b.A clogged air filter
• c.A failed head gasket or cracked block/head✓
• d.A stuck thermostat

A milky, tan appearance in the oil indicates coolant contamination, commonly from a head gasket failure or a crack that connects a coolant passage to the oil. Continued operation damages bearings. Pressure and combustion-gas testing help pinpoint the leak path.

Before final assembly, plastigage is used to measure:

• a.Valve spring free length
• b.Bearing oil clearance✓
• c.Cylinder bore taper
• d.Piston ring end gap

Plastigage is a crushable plastic thread that indicates bearing oil clearance when compared to a scale after the cap is torqued. Ring end gap is measured with a feeler gauge in the bore, and bore taper with a bore gauge. Correct clearance is essential for oil film and bearing life.

In an automatic transmission, the torque converter's function is to:

• a.Engage the parking pawl
• b.Cool the engine oil
• c.Couple the engine to the transmission and multiply torque✓
• d.Generate line pressure directly

The torque converter is a fluid coupling that transmits power from the engine to the transmission and multiplies torque during acceleration. Its lockup clutch mechanically links the engine and transmission at cruise to improve fuel economy. The pump, not the converter, generates line pressure.

Technician A says burnt-smelling, dark automatic transmission fluid can indicate overheating and clutch damage. Technician B says fluid color and smell never matter. Who is correct?

• a.Technician A only✓
• b.Both A and B
• c.Technician B only
• d.Neither A nor B

Dark, burnt-smelling ATF indicates overheating and worn friction material from slipping clutches or bands. Healthy fluid is typically red and translucent. Technician B is wrong because fluid condition is an important diagnostic clue.

A manual transmission clutch that slips under load, especially in higher gears, most commonly indicates:

• a.Too much clutch pedal free play
• b.A worn clutch disc or weak pressure plate✓
• c.A dry pilot bearing
• d.A broken motor mount

A worn friction disc or weak pressure plate cannot hold torque, so the clutch slips under load and engine rpm rises without matching acceleration. Slipping generates heat that accelerates wear. Insufficient free play, not too much, can also cause slipping.

Constant-velocity (CV) joints are used on front-wheel-drive axles primarily because they:

• a.Are cheaper than U-joints
• b.Require no lubrication
• c.Eliminate the need for a differential
• d.Transmit power smoothly through varying steering angles✓

CV joints deliver constant rotational speed while the axle operates through the wide angles created by steering and suspension travel. A torn CV boot lets grease escape and dirt enter, leading to a clicking noise during turns. Boot inspection is a routine maintenance check.

A clicking noise from the front of a FWD vehicle that increases when turning sharply is most likely caused by:

• a.A worn wheel bearing
• b.A worn outer CV joint✓
• c.A leaking transmission seal
• d.An unbalanced tire

A worn outer CV joint clicks under the load of a sharp turn, and the noise usually worsens with steering angle. A torn boot that allowed grease loss is a frequent cause. Wheel bearing noise, by contrast, is typically a steady drone that changes with vehicle speed.

The differential in a rear axle allows:

• a.The driveshaft to change length
• b.The transmission to shift gears
• c.The drive wheels to rotate at different speeds during turns✓
• d.The engine to idle smoothly

The differential splits torque to the drive wheels while allowing them to turn at different speeds when cornering, since the outer wheel travels farther. A limited-slip design adds resistance to reduce wheel spin. Whining or howling noises often indicate worn or improperly set-up gears.

Technician A says a worn driveshaft U-joint can cause a clunk on acceleration. Technician B says it can cause a vibration that increases with vehicle speed. Who is correct?

• a.Technician A only
• b.Technician B only
• c.Both A and B✓
• d.Neither A nor B

A worn universal joint clunks when torque is applied and vibrates more as speed rises because the joint develops play. Both technicians describe valid symptoms. Rust-colored dust around the caps is an early sign of failure.

A vehicle has a final drive ratio of 3.73:1. This means the:

• a.Wheels turn 3.73 times per driveshaft revolution
• b.Driveshaft turns 3.73 times for each wheel revolution✓
• c.Transmission has 3.73 forward gears
• d.Engine turns at 3.73 percent of wheel speed

A 3.73:1 final drive means the driveshaft (ring-and-pinion input) turns 3.73 times for every one revolution of the axle/wheel. A numerically higher ratio improves acceleration but raises cruising rpm. Ratio is found by dividing ring-gear teeth by pinion-gear teeth.

Technician A says most dipstick-equipped automatics are checked with the engine running at operating temperature. Technician B says fluid level is unaffected by temperature. Who is correct?

• a.Both A and B
• b.Technician A only✓
• c.Technician B only
• d.Neither A nor B

Dipstick-equipped automatics are checked hot with the engine running and the selector cycled, and fluid expands with temperature so the reading depends on it. Technician B is wrong. Many modern units use a sealed fill within a specified fluid-temperature window.

Technician A says a slipping band or clutch pack can cause delayed or harsh shifts. Technician B says low line pressure can cause slipping and overheating. Who is correct?

• a.Technician A only
• b.Technician B only
• c.Neither A nor B
• d.Both A and B✓

Worn friction elements slip and cause delayed, harsh, or flaring shifts, while low line pressure reduces clamping force and leads to slippage and heat. Both conditions are valid causes of shift complaints. A pressure test and scan-tool data help isolate the fault.

Excessive clutch pedal free play in a manual transmission can cause:

• a.The clutch to slip under load
• b.Incomplete clutch release, making shifting difficult✓
• c.The flywheel to warp
• d.Loss of transmission fluid

Too much free play prevents the clutch from fully disengaging, causing grinding or hard shifting because the disc still contacts the flywheel. Too little free play causes slipping. Hydraulic systems self-adjust, while cable systems may require manual adjustment.

A gear ratio is calculated by dividing the number of teeth on the driven gear by the number on the drive gear. A drive gear with 12 teeth turning a driven gear with 36 teeth produces a ratio of:

• a.3:1✓
• b.1:3
• c.4:1
• d.2:1

Dividing 36 driven teeth by 12 drive teeth gives a 3:1 reduction, meaning the drive gear turns three times for each output revolution. This multiplies torque while reducing speed. Understanding ratios is essential for diagnosing driveline gearing and speedometer calibration.

A whining noise from an automatic transmission that changes with engine speed but is present in Park and Neutral most likely points to:

• a.A worn output shaft bearing
• b.A slipping clutch pack
• c.A failing transmission fluid pump✓
• d.A worn CV joint

Because the pump is driven by the converter hub whenever the engine runs, a pump-related whine is present in Park and Neutral and varies with engine rpm. Output-related noises appear only when the vehicle moves. Low fluid or aeration can produce similar sounds.

The pilot bearing or bushing in a manual-transmission vehicle supports the:

• a.Clutch release fork
• b.Tip of the transmission input shaft✓
• c.Flywheel ring gear
• d.Throwout bearing

The pilot bearing supports the front tip of the input shaft in the end of the crankshaft, keeping it centered. A worn pilot bearing causes noise and hard shifting, especially with the clutch depressed. It should be inspected or replaced whenever the clutch is serviced.

Camber angle is defined as the:

• a.Forward or rearward tilt of the steering axis
• b.Inward or outward tilt of the wheel from vertical, viewed from the front✓
• c.Difference in toe between left and right wheels
• d.Angle of the tie rod to the ground

Camber is the inward (negative) or outward (positive) tilt of the wheel from true vertical when viewed from the front. Incorrect camber causes uneven tire wear on one shoulder and can pull the vehicle to one side. It is adjusted where the suspension design allows.

Excessive positive caster generally results in:

• a.Wander at highway speed
• b.Loss of directional stability
• c.Increased steering effort but improved straight-line stability✓
• d.Rapid center-tread wear

Positive caster tilts the steering axis rearward at the top, improving straight-line stability and steering return but increasing effort. Too little caster causes wander and poor return. Caster is measured during alignment and typically compared side to side.

Toe refers to the:

• a.Difference in distance between the front and rear of a pair of tires, viewed from above✓
• b.Vertical tilt of the wheel
• c.Rearward tilt of the steering axis
• d.Height of the vehicle at the fender

Toe is the difference between the leading and trailing edges of the tires viewed from above; toe-in means the fronts are closer together. Incorrect toe is the leading cause of rapid, feathered tire wear. It is the most critical alignment angle for tire life and is always adjustable.

A tire worn on both inner and outer edges, with good tread in the center, most likely indicates:

• a.Over-inflation
• b.Excessive positive camber
• c.A worn tie rod end
• d.Chronic under-inflation✓

Under-inflation lets the tire ride on both shoulders while the center bears less load, wearing both edges. Over-inflation does the opposite, wearing the center. Correct inflation and periodic pressure checks prevent this pattern.

Technician A says a worn tie rod end can cause a toe change and tire wear. Technician B says it can cause excessive play in the steering and a failed alignment. Who is correct?

• a.Technician A only
• b.Both A and B✓
• c.Technician B only
• d.Neither A nor B

A worn tie rod end introduces play that changes toe as the wheel moves, causing wandering and feathered tire wear, and it will prevent a stable alignment. Both technicians are correct. Worn steering and suspension parts must be replaced before performing an alignment.

Technician A says worn shocks or struts can cause the body to keep bouncing after a bump. Technician B says worn dampers have no effect on tire wear. Who is correct?

• a.Technician A only✓
• b.Both A and B
• c.Technician B only
• d.Neither A nor B

Worn shocks lose their ability to dampen spring oscillation, so the body keeps bouncing after a bump, and weak dampers also cause tire cupping. Technician B is wrong because damper wear does affect tire wear. A bounce test and leak inspection confirm the condition.

Cupping or scalloping tire wear is most commonly associated with:

• a.Worn suspension dampers or unbalanced wheels✓
• b.Excessive toe-in
• c.A slipping clutch
• d.Over-torqued lug nuts

Cupping, a series of dips around the tread, results from the tire bouncing due to worn shocks/struts or from imbalance. It usually comes with a noise that changes with speed. Correcting the damper or balance issue and rotating tires helps.

The purpose of a stabilizer (sway) bar is to:

• a.Support the full weight of the vehicle
• b.Absorb road shock like a shock absorber
• c.Adjust ride height
• d.Reduce body roll during cornering✓

The stabilizer bar links the left and right suspension to resist body lean when cornering, improving handling. Worn sway bar links or bushings produce a rattle or clunk over bumps. It does not carry ride height or primary spring load.

Technician A says a side-to-side camber difference can cause a vehicle to pull toward the more positive side. Technician B says a defective tire can also cause a pull. Who is correct?

• a.Technician A only
• b.Technician B only
• c.Both A and B✓
• d.Neither A nor B

A cross-camber difference pulls the vehicle toward the more positive side, and a defective (conicity) tire can pull as well. Both technicians are correct. Compare cross-camber and cross-caster and swap tires side to side to isolate a tire pull.

In a power rack-and-pinion steering system, increased steering effort in only one direction most likely indicates:

• a.A low battery
• b.A worn wheel bearing
• c.An internal leak or valve fault in the steering gear✓
• d.A bent stabilizer bar

Effort that is heavy in one direction points to an internal fault such as worn seals or a control valve problem that fails to direct assist correctly. Uniformly hard steering suggests low fluid or a pump/belt issue. Electric power steering faults set codes and can be scanned.

The included angle in an alignment is the sum of:

• a.Camber and steering axis inclination (SAI)✓
• b.Caster and toe
• c.Toe and camber
• d.Caster and SAI

Included angle equals camber plus SAI and is useful for detecting bent spindles or struts, since SAI is built in and not adjustable. If included angle differs side to side, a component is likely bent. It is a diagnostic angle rather than an adjustable one.

A steering wheel that is off-center after an alignment, though the vehicle tracks straight, usually indicates:

• a.A worn wheel bearing
• b.Excessive camber
• c.A weak spring
• d.Improperly set toe split between the two front wheels✓

When total toe is correct but not divided equally between the wheels, the steering wheel sits off-center even though the vehicle goes straight. Centering the steering and re-setting individual toe corrects it. This is checked with the steering wheel locked in the centered position.

Technician A says tires should be rotated to promote even wear. Technician B says the tire's load index and speed rating should meet or exceed the vehicle's requirements. Who is correct?

• a.Technician A only
• b.Both A and B✓
• c.Technician B only
• d.Neither A nor B

Rotation evens out the different wear rates at each position, and replacement tires must meet the vehicle's load and speed ratings for safe operation. Both statements are correct service practice. Always follow the recommended rotation pattern for the drivetrain type.

Technician A says a worn ball joint can cause clunking, wander, and uneven tire wear. Technician B says a load-carrying ball joint should be checked with its load removed per the procedure. Who is correct?

• a.Technician A only
• b.Both A and B✓
• c.Technician B only
• d.Neither A nor B

A worn ball joint clunks, wanders, and wears tires unevenly, and load-carrying joints are checked unloaded so the measured axial and radial play is accurate. Both technicians are correct. A worn ball joint can fail catastrophically if ignored.

The main purpose of a wheel alignment is to:

• a.Set suspension angles for proper handling and even tire wear✓
• b.Increase engine power
• c.Balance the wheels
• d.Adjust the brakes

Alignment sets camber, caster, and toe so the tires meet the road correctly, giving good handling, steering return, and even tire wear. Balancing is a separate operation addressing weight distribution. Worn parts must be repaired before alignment angles will hold.

Wheel/tire imbalance is most often felt as:

• a.A pull to one side
• b.A grinding noise when braking
• c.Hard steering at low speed
• d.A vibration that appears at a particular speed✓

An out-of-balance wheel creates a vibration that emerges at a specific speed as the heavy spot spins. Static and dynamic balancing corrects it by adding weights. A pull, by contrast, is usually an alignment or tire construction issue.

A brake pedal that slowly sinks to the floor while held under steady pressure most likely indicates:

• a.Air in the lines only
• b.Warped rotors
• c.A failing master cylinder (internal leak)✓
• d.Glazed brake pads

A pedal that gradually falls under steady pressure indicates fluid bypassing internally in the master cylinder past worn seals. An external leak would lose fluid visibly. Replacing the master cylinder and bleeding the system restores a firm pedal.

Technician A says a spongy brake pedal is commonly caused by air in the hydraulic system. Technician B says air in the lines increases braking power. Who is correct?

• a.Technician A only✓
• b.Both A and B
• c.Technician B only
• d.Neither A nor B

Air is compressible, so it makes the pedal feel soft or spongy and reduces braking effectiveness; proper bleeding removes it. Technician B is wrong because air degrades rather than improves braking. Bleeding in the correct sequence restores a firm pedal.

Technician A says a pulsating brake pedal is usually caused by air in the hydraulic lines. Technician B says it is usually caused by rotor thickness variation or excessive lateral runout. Who is correct?

• a.Technician A only
• b.Technician B only✓
• c.Both A and B
• d.Neither A nor B

Thickness variation or warp causes the pads to move in and out as the disc turns, producing a pulsation felt in the pedal, while air produces a soft pedal instead. Technician B is correct. Measuring runout and thickness variation confirms it.

The primary purpose of a brake power booster is to:

• a.Store brake fluid
• b.Adjust the parking brake
• c.Prevent wheel lockup
• d.Reduce the pedal effort required to apply the brakes✓

The vacuum or hydraulic booster multiplies the driver's pedal force so less effort is needed for firm braking. A failed vacuum booster or leaking check valve produces a hard pedal. It works with, not instead of, the hydraulic system.

The main function of an anti-lock brake system (ABS) is to:

• a.Increase brake fluid pressure permanently
• b.Replace the parking brake
• c.Prevent wheel lockup and maintain steering control during hard braking✓
• d.Eliminate the need for brake pads

ABS pulses hydraulic pressure to keep wheels from locking so the driver retains steering control and shortens stopping distance on most surfaces. Wheel-speed sensors feed the control module, which modulates the hydraulic unit. A fault typically turns on the ABS warning lamp and disables the function.

A wheel-speed sensor signal that is missing on one wheel will most likely cause the ABS to:

• a.Increase engine power
• b.Set a code and disable ABS, reverting to normal braking✓
• c.Lock all four wheels
• d.Apply the parking brake

A lost wheel-speed signal sets a DTC and usually disables ABS, leaving conventional (non-anti-lock) braking available. The ABS warning lamp illuminates. Common causes include a damaged sensor, wiring, or a contaminated tone ring.

Brake fluid is hygroscopic, which means it:

• a.Absorbs moisture from the air over time✓
• b.Repels all water
• c.Conducts electricity
• d.Expands when frozen

Glycol-based brake fluid absorbs moisture, which lowers its boiling point and can cause corrosion and a spongy pedal from vapor under heavy braking. This is why periodic fluid replacement is recommended. Sealed containers and prompt cap replacement limit moisture uptake.

During a disc brake job, a technician should measure rotor thickness and compare it to the:

• a.Tire pressure specification
• b.Battery voltage
• c.Toe specification
• d.Minimum (discard) thickness stamped on the rotor✓

Rotors must remain above the minimum thickness (often cast or stamped on the rotor) to dissipate heat and resist warping. A rotor below spec must be replaced, not machined. Measuring with a micrometer at several points also reveals thickness variation.

Technician A says brake shoes are used in disc brakes. Technician B says brake shoes are used in drum brakes. Who is correct?

• a.Technician A only
• b.Technician B only✓
• c.Both A and B
• d.Neither A nor B

Drum brakes use curved shoes that press outward against the drum, while disc brakes use flat pads that clamp a rotor. Technician B is correct. Many vehicles combine front discs with rear drums or discs.

Technician A says a grinding, metal-on-metal noise during braking indicates friction material worn past its limit. Technician B says continued driving in that condition can score the rotor or drum. Who is correct?

• a.Both A and B✓
• b.Technician A only
• c.Technician B only
• d.Neither A nor B

When friction material wears away, the metal backing contacts the rotor or drum, producing a grinding noise, and continued driving scores the surface and raises repair cost. Both technicians are correct. Immediate pad or shoe replacement and surface inspection are required.

A rear disc parking brake that will not hold is often caused by:

• a.A misadjusted or seized parking brake mechanism/cable✓
• b.Air in the front lines
• c.A failed wheel-speed sensor
• d.Low battery voltage

Parking brake holding faults usually trace to cable stretch, misadjustment, or a seized caliper parking mechanism. Proper adjustment and lubrication restore holding force. On integral rear calipers, the internal actuator must function for both service and parking braking.

A brake caliper that sticks and does not release will most likely cause:

• a.A soft pedal only
• b.Dragging, overheating, and pulling to that side✓
• c.Loss of all braking
• d.A hard pedal at all times

A seized caliper keeps the pads applied, causing drag, excessive heat, uneven pad wear, and a pull toward that wheel. Overheated fluid can boil and reduce braking. Rebuilding or replacing the caliper and inspecting the slides and hose corrects it.

The metering valve in a combination valve is used to:

• a.Increase rear brake pressure
• b.Warn of ABS faults
• c.Bleed the master cylinder
• d.Delay front disc application so rear drums engage together✓

The metering valve holds off front disc pressure briefly so the rear drum shoes overcome their return springs and apply at nearly the same time, balancing braking. The proportioning section limits rear pressure to prevent lockup. Together these balance front-to-rear braking.

When bleeding a conventional hydraulic brake system, the general rule is to bleed:

• a.All wheels at the same time
• b.Only the front wheels
• c.Starting at the wheel nearest the master cylinder✓
• d.In the sequence specified by the manufacturer, often longest line first

Manufacturers specify a bleeding sequence, frequently starting at the wheel farthest from the master cylinder, to purge air effectively. Following the correct order and keeping the reservoir full prevents introducing more air. Some ABS units require a scan tool to bleed fully.

A proportioning valve in the brake system is designed to:

• a.Reduce pressure to the rear brakes to prevent early lockup✓
• b.Increase pressure to the front only
• c.Store extra brake fluid
• d.Operate the parking brake

Because weight shifts forward during braking, the proportioning valve limits rear brake pressure to keep the rear wheels from locking prematurely. This maintains stability during hard stops. Many vehicles now handle this function electronically through ABS/EBD.

Technician A says silicone (DOT 5) and glycol (DOT 3/4) brake fluids can be freely mixed. Technician B says brake fluid type is unimportant. Who is correct?

• a.Technician A only
• b.Technician B only
• c.Both A and B
• d.Neither A nor B✓

Silicone and glycol fluids are not compatible and must not be mixed, and using the wrong fluid type can damage seals and reduce performance. Both technicians are incorrect. Always use the fluid specification listed for the vehicle.

Using Ohm's law, a 12-volt circuit with 4 ohms of resistance will carry a current of:

• a.48 amps
• b.0.33 amps
• c.3 amps✓
• d.16 amps

Ohm's law states current equals voltage divided by resistance, so 12 volts divided by 4 ohms equals 3 amps. Understanding this relationship is essential for diagnosing circuit faults. Higher resistance in a circuit reduces current flow for a given voltage.

Technician A says a voltage-drop test across a battery cable can reveal unwanted resistance. Technician B says a voltage-drop test is more accurate than a visual inspection for finding poor connections. Who is correct?

• a.Technician A only
• b.Technician B only
• c.Both A and B✓
• d.Neither A nor B

A voltage-drop test measures the voltage lost across a connection under load, so high drop reveals corrosion or loose connections that a visual check may miss. Both technicians are correct. Acceptable drop is typically a few tenths of a volt or less.

A fully charged 12-volt lead-acid battery at rest should read approximately:

• a.10.5 volts
• b.11.8 volts
• c.13.8 volts
• d.12.6 volts✓

A healthy, fully charged 12-volt battery reads about 12.6 volts open-circuit at rest. Around 12.4 is roughly 75 percent, and 12.0 is about 25 percent charged. A surface charge should be removed before testing for accuracy.

Technician A says the charging system voltage at the battery with the engine running should typically be around 13.5 to 14.5 volts. Technician B says it should read exactly 12.6 volts while running. Who is correct?

• a.Technician A only✓
• b.Both A and B
• c.Technician B only
• d.Neither A nor B

With the engine running, the alternator should raise system voltage to roughly 13.5 to 14.5 volts to charge the battery and run loads. A reading of 12.6 running would indicate the charging system is not working. Technician B describes a resting, not charging, voltage.

Two 6-ohm resistors connected in parallel produce a total resistance of:

• a.12 ohms
• b.6 ohms
• c.3 ohms✓
• d.0.5 ohms

For two equal resistors in parallel, total resistance is half of one resistor, so two 6-ohm resistors equal 3 ohms. Parallel resistance is always lower than the smallest branch. This principle explains why adding parallel loads increases total current draw.

An open in a series circuit will cause:

• a.Increased current flow
• b.No current flow in the circuit✓
• c.Higher voltage at the load
• d.Reduced resistance

A series circuit has only one path, so an open anywhere stops all current and the load will not operate. Voltage will be present up to the open point when tested. Locating the open often uses a test light or voltmeter along the circuit.

A starter that cranks slowly, with the battery known good and fully charged, most likely has:

• a.Too little engine oil
• b.A blown headlight fuse
• c.A weak alternator
• d.High resistance in the starter circuit or a failing starter✓

Slow cranking with a good battery points to high resistance in the cables/connections or a worn starter, both of which limit current to the motor. A starter-circuit voltage drop test isolates the problem. Clean, tight connections are essential for full cranking current.

Power (watts) in an electrical circuit is calculated by:

• a.Voltage multiplied by current✓
• b.Voltage divided by resistance
• c.Current divided by voltage
• d.Resistance multiplied by voltage

Electrical power equals voltage times current (P = E x I). A 12-volt circuit drawing 5 amps consumes 60 watts. This relationship helps size fuses, wiring, and components for their load.

A parasitic (key-off) battery drain is measured by connecting an ammeter:

• a.In parallel across the battery terminals
• b.Across a spark plug
• c.In series between a battery terminal and the cable✓
• d.Between two ground points

Parasitic draw is measured by placing an ammeter in series in the battery circuit after modules go to sleep. Excessive draw discharges the battery overnight. Pulling fuses one at a time while watching the meter isolates the offending circuit.

In a wiring diagram, a component shown connected to ground provides:

• a.The source of voltage
• b.The return path for current back to the battery negative✓
• c.Fuse protection
• d.Signal amplification

Ground is the return path that completes the circuit back to the battery's negative terminal. A poor ground raises resistance and causes dim lights, erratic operation, or feedback. Diagrams use ground symbols to trace current return paths.

Technician A says a fuse that blows again immediately after replacement indicates a short to ground or an overload. Technician B says repeatedly replacing the fuse will fix the circuit. Who is correct?

• a.Technician A only✓
• b.Both A and B
• c.Technician B only
• d.Neither A nor B

A fuse that blows again immediately is protecting the circuit from a short to ground or an overload drawing excess current. Technician B is wrong because the underlying fault, not the fuse, must be repaired. Inspect the wiring for chafing and test the component.

Technician A says a diode allows current to flow in only one direction. Technician B says alternators use diodes to rectify AC into DC. Who is correct?

• a.Technician A only
• b.Technician B only
• c.Neither A nor B
• d.Both A and B✓

A diode conducts in one direction only, and the alternator's diode (rectifier) bridge converts the stator's AC into the DC the vehicle uses. Both statements are correct. A shorted or open diode causes low output and AC ripple on the charging system.

Excessive AC ripple voltage measured at the battery with the engine running usually indicates:

• a.One or more failed alternator diodes✓
• b.A weak starter
• c.A blown headlight bulb
• d.A stuck thermostat

Failed rectifier diodes let AC leak through, producing measurable ripple and reduced DC output. A meter set to AC volts or an oscilloscope reveals it. This often causes charging complaints and can disturb electronic modules.

Technician A says a relay lets a small control current switch a larger load. Technician B says relays protect switches and allow smaller control wiring. Who is correct?

• a.Neither A nor B
• b.Technician A only
• c.Technician B only
• d.Both A and B✓

A relay uses a low-current coil to close contacts that carry a high-current load, which protects switches and permits smaller control wiring. Both technicians are correct. Common uses include headlights, fuel pumps, and cooling fans.

Dim headlights that brighten when engine rpm increases most likely indicate:

• a.A blown fuse
• b.A shorted headlight switch
• c.A weak battery or undercharging condition✓
• d.An open ground on one lamp

Lights that brighten with rpm suggest the charging system is barely keeping up, so a weak battery or low alternator output is likely. A charging system test measures output under load. A high-resistance connection can also dim lights but usually affects specific circuits.

A voltmeter is connected how, relative to the component being tested?

• a.In series with the load
• b.Between the two battery posts only
• c.After removing the fuse
• d.In parallel (across) the component✓

A voltmeter is connected in parallel across the component or connection to measure the voltage difference, since it has very high internal resistance. An ammeter, by contrast, connects in series. Connecting a voltmeter in series would give an incorrect reading.

The gauge or module that displays engine coolant temperature relies on a sensor whose resistance:

• a.Changes with temperature (a thermistor)✓
• b.Stays constant regardless of temperature
• c.Only works above 200 degrees
• d.Produces AC voltage

Most coolant temperature sensors are thermistors whose resistance falls as temperature rises (negative temperature coefficient). The computer or gauge interprets this changing resistance as temperature. A faulty sensor can cause inaccurate readings and driveability or fan-control problems.

A circuit has 12 volts applied and draws 2 amps. Its total resistance is:

• a.24 ohms
• b.6 ohms✓
• c.2 ohms
• d.0.17 ohms

By Ohm's law, resistance equals voltage divided by current, so 12 volts divided by 2 amps equals 6 ohms. Rearranging Ohm's law lets a technician solve for any unknown value. Verifying calculated resistance against measured values helps confirm circuit condition.

In an automotive A/C system, the compressor's job is to:

• a.Condense refrigerant into a liquid
• b.Store refrigerant
• c.Raise refrigerant pressure and circulate it through the system✓
• d.Absorb moisture from the refrigerant

The compressor pressurizes low-pressure refrigerant vapor and pumps it through the system, raising its temperature and pressure before the condenser. It is the pump that drives the refrigeration cycle. A failed compressor clutch or internal damage stops cooling.

The component that changes high-pressure refrigerant vapor into a liquid by removing heat is the:

• a.Condenser✓
• b.Evaporator
• c.Accumulator
• d.Expansion valve

The condenser, mounted in front of the radiator, rejects heat so the high-pressure vapor condenses into a liquid. Airflow across it is essential; a blocked or dirty condenser causes high pressures and poor cooling. The evaporator, by contrast, absorbs heat inside the vehicle.

The evaporator in the passenger compartment:

• a.Compresses the refrigerant
• b.Rejects heat to the outside air
• c.Stores excess refrigerant
• d.Absorbs heat from cabin air, cooling it✓

As low-pressure liquid refrigerant boils in the evaporator, it absorbs heat from the cabin air blown across it, cooling and dehumidifying the air. A restricted or iced evaporator reduces airflow and cooling. Proper refrigerant charge and airflow keep it working correctly.

Technician A says overcharging an A/C system improves cooling. Technician B says overcharging raises system pressures and can reduce cooling and damage the compressor. Who is correct?

• a.Technician A only
• b.Technician B only✓
• c.Both A and B
• d.Neither A nor B

Overcharging raises high-side pressure, reduces cooling efficiency, and can damage the compressor with liquid slugging. The correct charge, measured by weight, is critical. Technician A is wrong; more refrigerant is not better.

The expansion valve or orifice tube controls:

• a.Compressor speed
• b.Blower motor voltage
• c.The flow of refrigerant into the evaporator, causing a pressure drop✓
• d.Cabin air recirculation

The metering device drops the refrigerant pressure and controls flow into the evaporator, allowing it to boil and absorb heat. A restricted orifice or stuck valve causes poor cooling and abnormal pressures. It separates the high side from the low side of the system.

The desiccant in a receiver-drier or accumulator is used to:

• a.Absorb moisture from the refrigerant✓
• b.Add oil to the system
• c.Increase refrigerant pressure
• d.Cool the condenser

The desiccant removes moisture that would otherwise form acids and ice, protecting the system. It should be replaced whenever the system is opened for major service. Saturated desiccant can break down and contaminate the system.

Technician A says a low refrigerant charge typically shows low readings on both gauges with poor cooling. Technician B says the leak should be repaired before recharging to the correct weight. Who is correct?

• a.Technician A only
• b.Technician B only
• c.Both A and B✓
• d.Neither A nor B

An undercharge shows low readings on both gauges with weak cooling and rapid cycling, and any leak must be repaired before recharging by weight. Both technicians are correct. Dye or an electronic detector locates the leak source.

Technician A says cabin heat comes from engine coolant flowing through the heater core. Technician B says a leaking heater core can fog the windshield and leave a sweet smell. Who is correct?

• a.Both A and B✓
• b.Technician A only
• c.Technician B only
• d.Neither A nor B

The heater core transfers heat from hot engine coolant to cabin air, and a leaking core lets coolant fog the glass and produce a sweet odor. Both technicians are correct. A clogged core or low coolant reduces heat output.

Technician A says a stuck-closed blend-air door can cause no heat even with a good heater core. Technician B says a failed blower motor can cause no airflow from the vents. Who is correct?

• a.Technician A only
• b.Technician B only
• c.Both A and B✓
• d.Neither A nor B

A blend door controls how much air passes over the heater core, so a stuck door can cause no heat, and a failed blower stops airflow entirely. Both technicians are correct. Actuator and door faults are common causes of temperature-control complaints.

Before servicing an A/C system, refrigerant must be:

• a.Recovered with approved equipment, not vented to the atmosphere✓
• b.Vented outdoors quickly
• c.Mixed with fresh oil
• d.Frozen in the condenser

Regulations require recovering refrigerant with certified equipment rather than releasing it, because it is a controlled substance. Recovery, recycling, and recharging equipment protects the environment and allows accurate recharging. Technicians handling refrigerant must be certified.

An A/C compressor clutch that will not engage could be caused by all of the following EXCEPT:

• a.A low-refrigerant lockout from the pressure switch
• b.A blown clutch fuse or relay
• c.An open clutch coil
• d.A clogged cabin air filter✓

The clutch may fail to engage due to a low-charge lockout, electrical faults, or an open coil, but a dirty cabin filter only reduces airflow, not clutch engagement. Diagnosis checks power, ground, and the pressure switches. A cabin filter affects volume, not the refrigerant cycle.

Higher-than-normal readings on both the high and low sides of an A/C system, with poor cooling, could indicate:

• a.A low refrigerant charge
• b.An overcharge or a condenser airflow/cooling problem✓
• c.An open blower resistor
• d.A stuck-open thermostat

High readings on both gauges often point to an overcharge or inadequate condenser cooling from a blocked condenser or inoperative cooling fan. Verifying charge weight and fan operation is the next step. Correcting airflow and charge restores normal pressures.

An oxygen (O2) sensor in the exhaust provides feedback to the PCM about:

• a.Engine oil level
• b.Coolant temperature
• c.The air-fuel ratio (rich or lean)✓
• d.Ignition timing advance

The oxygen sensor measures residual oxygen in the exhaust, telling the PCM whether the mixture is rich or lean so it can adjust fuel trim. A lazy or failed sensor degrades fuel control and emissions. Wide-band sensors report the actual ratio rather than just rich/lean.

A diagnostic trouble code (DTC) of P0301 indicates:

• a.A misfire detected in cylinder number 1✓
• b.A lean condition on bank 1
• c.A faulty coolant sensor
• d.An EVAP leak

P0301 is a cylinder-specific misfire code, with the last digit identifying cylinder 1. P0300 indicates a random/multiple-cylinder misfire. Causes include ignition, fuel, or mechanical (compression) problems in that cylinder.

Technician A says a vacuum leak causes a rich condition. Technician B says a vacuum leak adds unmetered air and causes a lean condition, especially at idle. Who is correct?

• a.Technician A only
• b.Technician B only✓
• c.Both A and B
• d.Neither A nor B

A vacuum leak lets extra air enter after the mass airflow sensor, leaning the mixture and often causing a rough idle and positive fuel trim. Technician B is correct. Smoke testing helps locate intake leaks.

Technician A says a positive long-term fuel trim of +20 percent means the PCM is adding fuel to correct a lean condition. Technician B says positive trim means the engine is running rich. Who is correct?

• a.Technician A only✓
• b.Both A and B
• c.Technician B only
• d.Neither A nor B

Positive fuel trim means the computer is adding fuel to correct a lean condition from a vacuum leak, low fuel pressure, or a dirty MAF. Technician B is wrong because rich conditions produce negative trims. Comparing short- and long-term trims helps pinpoint the fault.

Technician A says a rich air-fuel mixture can raise tailpipe CO and HC. Technician B says the oxygen sensor helps the PCM keep the mixture near stoichiometric. Who is correct?

• a.Technician A only
• b.Technician B only
• c.Both A and B✓
• d.Neither A nor B

A rich mixture leaves excess fuel that raises carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons, and the oxygen sensor feedback lets the PCM hold the mixture near the ideal ratio. Both technicians are correct. A lazy sensor degrades fuel control and emissions.

Technician A says the MAF sensor measures the mass of air entering the engine so the PCM can meter fuel. Technician B says a dirty MAF can cause hesitation and fuel-trim errors. Who is correct?

• a.Neither A nor B
• b.Technician A only
• c.Technician B only
• d.Both A and B✓

The MAF sensor measures intake air mass so the PCM meters the correct fuel quantity, and a dirty or faulty MAF causes incorrect fueling, hesitation, and trim errors. Both technicians are correct. Diagnosis includes cleaning or replacing it and checking for unmetered air leaks.

A P0420 code (catalyst efficiency below threshold) most often indicates:

• a.A degraded catalytic converter or an O2 sensor issue✓
• b.A slipping transmission
• c.A worn wheel bearing
• d.A faulty ABS sensor

P0420 sets when the downstream O2 sensor signal mirrors the upstream too closely, suggesting the converter is no longer storing oxygen effectively. Causes include a worn converter, exhaust leaks, or faulty sensors. Underlying misfires or rich running can damage the converter and must be addressed first.

In a modern coil-on-plug ignition system, each coil:

• a.Powers all cylinders at once
• b.Is triggered by a mechanical distributor
• c.Stores fuel for injection
• d.Fires the spark plug directly on its cylinder, controlled by the PCM✓

Coil-on-plug systems place an individual coil at each spark plug, fired by the PCM through the ignition driver, eliminating plug wires and the distributor. This improves spark control and misfire diagnosis. A failed coil typically causes a cylinder-specific misfire code.

A knock sensor allows the PCM to:

• a.Measure exhaust oxygen
• b.Detect detonation and retard ignition timing to protect the engine✓
• c.Control the fuel pump
• d.Read vehicle speed

The knock sensor detects the vibration of detonation so the PCM can retard timing and prevent engine damage. Persistent knock can come from low-octane fuel, carbon buildup, or overheating. A faulty sensor may cause reduced performance or a code.

The EVAP system is designed to:

• a.Cool the intake charge
• b.Filter engine oil
• c.Capture and burn fuel vapors from the tank rather than venting them✓
• d.Increase fuel pressure

The evaporative emission system stores fuel vapors in a charcoal canister and later purges them into the intake to be burned, preventing release to the atmosphere. A loose or faulty gas cap is a common cause of small-leak codes. It is tested for leaks during OBD-II monitors.

A loose or missing fuel cap most commonly sets which type of code?

• a.An EVAP system leak code (such as P0455 or P0457)✓
• b.A misfire code
• c.A coolant temperature code
• d.An ABS code

A poorly sealing fuel cap lets vapors escape and triggers an EVAP leak code, often the first thing to check for such faults. Tightening or replacing the cap and clearing the code frequently resolves it. Smoke testing finds larger leaks in the system.

Technician A says low fuel pressure can cause a lean misfire and hesitation. Technician B says a clogged fuel filter or weak pump can lower fuel pressure. Who is correct?

• a.Technician A only
• b.Technician B only
• c.Neither A nor B
• d.Both A and B✓

Insufficient fuel pressure leans the mixture, causing misfire, hesitation, and lack of power, and a restricted filter or failing pump is a common cause. Both technicians are correct. A fuel-pressure test and volume check confirm delivery problems.

The throttle position sensor (TPS) informs the PCM about:

• a.Exhaust temperature
• b.Throttle plate angle (driver demand)✓
• c.Coolant level
• d.Battery voltage

The TPS reports how far the throttle is open so the PCM can adjust fuel, timing, and transmission strategy. A faulty or dead-spot TPS causes hesitation, surging, or erratic shifts. Its signal is checked with a scan tool or by watching voltage sweep.

A vehicle fails an emissions test for high hydrocarbons (HC). This is most commonly associated with:

• a.Excessive coolant
• b.Low tire pressure
• c.Unburned fuel from misfire, ignition, or rich-condition problems✓
• d.A worn wheel bearing

High HC indicates unburned fuel escaping into the exhaust, typically from misfires, ignition faults, or an overly rich mixture. Diagnosing the misfire or fuel-control fault reduces HC. A failing catalytic converter can also raise tailpipe HC.

The PCM uses the crankshaft position sensor primarily to:

• a.Determine engine speed and piston position for ignition and fuel timing✓
• b.Measure intake air temperature
• c.Read exhaust oxygen
• d.Detect wheel slip

The crankshaft position sensor tells the PCM engine rpm and crank position so it can time spark and injection. Loss of this signal usually prevents the engine from starting. A cam/crank correlation code indicates timing has slipped between the two.

On an OBD-II vehicle, the data link connector (DLC) used to retrieve codes is standardized as a:

• a.9-pin round plug under the hood
• b.2-pin connector at the battery
• c.4-pin trailer connector
• d.16-pin connector, usually under the dash✓

OBD-II mandates a standardized 16-pin DLC, typically located under the driver's side dash, for scan-tool access. This standard allows generic tools to read codes and data across manufacturers. Certain pins carry power, ground, and communication signals.

The exhaust gas recirculation (EGR) system reduces which emission by lowering combustion temperature?

• a.Carbon monoxide (CO)
• b.Oxides of nitrogen (NOx)✓
• c.Hydrocarbons (HC)
• d.Carbon dioxide (CO2)

EGR routes inert exhaust gas back into the intake to lower peak combustion temperature, reducing the formation of NOx. A clogged EGR passage can cause knock and high NOx, while a stuck-open valve causes rough idle. Its operation is monitored by OBD-II.

A no-start with no spark and no injector pulse, but a good battery and cranking, most likely points to:

• a.A worn water pump
• b.A clogged cabin filter
• c.A failed crankshaft position sensor or PCM/power issue✓
• d.A leaking A/C condenser

When both spark and injector pulse are absent during cranking, a shared input such as the crankshaft position sensor or a PCM power/ground problem is a prime suspect. Scan-tool rpm during cranking helps confirm the crank signal. Systematic checks of power, ground, and reference sensors isolate the cause.

An outside micrometer is used to measure:

• a.Torque on a fastener
• b.Electrical resistance
• c.Precise outside dimensions such as shaft or rotor thickness✓
• d.Coolant temperature

An outside micrometer measures external dimensions to a thousandth of an inch or finer, such as a rotor or crankshaft journal. The reading combines the sleeve and thimble scales. Proper technique and calibration are essential for accuracy.

A torque wrench is used to:

• a.Tighten fasteners to a specified value✓
• b.Measure bore diameter
• c.Test battery voltage
• d.Check tire tread depth

A torque wrench applies a controlled, specified amount of tightening force so fasteners are neither loose nor overtightened. Proper torque is critical for head bolts, wheels, and many other parts. The wrench should be set back to its lowest setting when stored to preserve calibration.

Technician A says wheel lug nuts can be tightened in any order. Technician B says they should be tightened in a crisscross (star) pattern to the specified torque. Who is correct?

• a.Technician A only
• b.Technician B only✓
• c.Both A and B
• d.Neither A nor B

Lug nuts must be tightened gradually in a crisscross pattern to seat the wheel evenly and prevent rotor distortion. Uneven or over-tightening can warp rotors and damage studs. Technician A is incorrect.

Technician A says a vehicle should be supported at the manufacturer's designated lift points. Technician B says rated jack stands should support a vehicle before working underneath it. Who is correct?

• a.Technician A only
• b.Technician B only
• c.Both A and B✓
• d.Neither A nor B

Vehicles must be supported at designated lift points and secured on rated jack stands, never held only by a hydraulic jack. Both technicians are correct. Following these practices prevents damage and serious injury.

Technician A says a dial indicator measures runout, endplay, and gear backlash. Technician B says it must be set up perpendicular to the surface for an accurate reading. Who is correct?

• a.Technician A only
• b.Both A and B✓
• c.Technician B only
• d.Neither A nor B

A dial indicator measures small linear movements such as rotor runout, crankshaft endplay, and backlash, and the plunger must contact the surface perpendicularly for accuracy. Both technicians are correct. It reads deflection in thousandths of an inch.

A vehicle's service information (repair manual) is the best source for:

• a.The owner's phone number
• b.Weather forecasts
• c.Torque specifications, procedures, and wiring diagrams✓
• d.Fuel prices

Service information provides the manufacturer's specifications, step-by-step procedures, wiring diagrams, and fluid capacities needed for correct repairs. Using accurate data prevents mistakes and comebacks. Technicians should verify specs rather than rely on memory.

If a bolt must be torqued to 90 foot-pounds and the specification then calls for an additional 90-degree turn, this method is known as:

• a.Cross-torquing
• b.Torque-to-yield (torque-plus-angle)✓
• c.Preloading only
• d.Static balancing

Torque-plus-angle (torque-to-yield) tightens the fastener to a base torque and then a specified angle, stretching it for consistent clamp load. It is common on head bolts and other critical fasteners. A torque-angle gauge or electronic tool measures the additional rotation.

Proper personal protective equipment when grinding or working with the battery includes:

• a.Only gloves
• b.Only a hat
• c.No protection needed
• d.Eye protection and appropriate gloves✓

Eye protection guards against flying particles and battery acid, and gloves protect the hands from sharp edges and corrosive chemicals. Battery work also warrants care because of explosive hydrogen gas and acid. Safety equipment reduces the risk of injury.

Converting a measurement, a technician knows there are 25.4 millimeters in one inch. A 2-inch dimension equals approximately:

• a.12.7 mm
• b.2.54 mm
• c.50.8 mm✓
• d.254 mm

Multiplying 2 inches by 25.4 mm/inch gives 50.8 millimeters. Being comfortable converting between metric and standard units is important because vehicles use both. Measuring tools and specifications may be given in either system.

A feeler gauge is used to measure:

• a.The gap or clearance between two parts✓
• b.Electrical current
• c.Engine vacuum
• d.Tire pressure

A feeler gauge consists of thin metal blades of known thickness used to measure small gaps, such as valve lash or spark plug gap. The correct blade slides through the gap with a slight drag. It is a simple but precise clearance-measuring tool.