OSHA 30 Construction — All Questions

What year was the Occupational Safety and Health Act signed into law, creating OSHA?

• a.1955
• b.1965
• c.1980
• d.1970✓

The Occupational Safety and Health Act was signed into law in 1970 and OSHA began operating in 1971. Its purpose is to assure safe and healthful working conditions for workers. It also established the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health.

Under the OSHA Act's General Duty Clause, what is an employer primarily required to provide?

• a.Paid time off after any workplace injury
• b.Free health insurance to all employees
• c.A workplace free from recognized hazards likely to cause death or serious harm✓
• d.A guaranteed minimum wage above federal levels

The General Duty Clause requires employers to furnish a workplace free from recognized hazards that are causing or likely to cause death or serious physical harm. It applies when no specific OSHA standard covers a particular hazard. Employers must take reasonable steps to identify and correct such hazards.

Which of the following is a right guaranteed to workers under OSHA?

• a.The right to receive information and training about hazards✓
• b.The right to skip using required PPE
• c.The right to ignore safety training if experienced
• d.The right to set their own permissible exposure limits

Workers have the right to receive information and training about workplace hazards in a language they understand. They may also review records of work-related injuries and file confidential complaints. These rights help ensure workers can participate in maintaining a safe workplace.

By what date must an employer correct a hazard after an OSHA citation?

• a.Only if the worker sues
• b.Within exactly 24 hours in all cases
• c.By the abatement date set in the citation✓
• d.There is no deadline

A citation specifies an abatement date, which is the deadline by which the employer must correct the hazard. Employers must also post the citation near the location of the violation. Failure to abate by the deadline can result in additional penalties.

What form is generally used to record work-related injuries and illnesses in the OSHA recordkeeping system?

• a.IRS Form W-2
• b.OSHA Form 10
• c.Form I-9
• d.OSHA Form 300 (Log of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses)✓

The OSHA Form 300 is the Log of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses used by covered employers to record recordable incidents. The Form 300A summary must be posted annually, and Form 301 records details of each incident. These records help identify hazard trends.

Which situation must an employer report to OSHA within 8 hours?

• a.A near-miss with no injury
• b.An employee arriving late
• c.A work-related fatality✓
• d.Any first-aid case

Employers must report a work-related fatality to OSHA within 8 hours of learning of it. In-patient hospitalizations, amputations, and losses of an eye must be reported within 24 hours. Prompt reporting allows OSHA to investigate serious incidents.

Can an employer legally retaliate against a worker for filing an OSHA complaint?

• a.No, retaliation is prohibited by law✓
• b.Yes, during the probationary period
• c.Only with written notice
• d.Yes, if the complaint is dismissed

Section 11(c) of the OSH Act prohibits employers from retaliating against workers who exercise their safety and health rights, such as filing a complaint. Prohibited retaliation includes firing, demotion, or reduced hours. Workers who face retaliation can file a complaint with OSHA.

What is the difference between a 'programmed' and an 'unprogrammed' OSHA inspection?

• a.Unprogrammed inspections only occur at night
• b.There is no difference between them
• c.Programmed inspections are random lottery draws
• d.Programmed inspections target high-hazard industries; unprogrammed follow complaints or incidents✓

Programmed inspections are planned and target industries or workplaces with high injury rates or specific hazards. Unprogrammed inspections respond to events such as complaints, referrals, fatalities, or catastrophes. Both types follow the same general inspection procedures.

During an OSHA inspection, what is the typical first step after the compliance officer arrives?

• a.Immediate issuance of penalties
• b.A mandatory shutdown of all operations
• c.An opening conference to explain the inspection's purpose✓
• d.Interviewing customers

An OSHA inspection typically begins with an opening conference where the compliance officer explains why the workplace was selected and the scope of the inspection. This is followed by a walkaround and a closing conference. Employer and employee representatives may accompany the walkaround.

Which of the following best describes a 'willful' OSHA violation?

• a.A minor paperwork error
• b.A violation committed with intentional disregard or plain indifference to the law✓
• c.A hazard the employer did not know about
• d.A first-time recordkeeping mistake

A willful violation is one the employer commits with intentional knowledge or plain indifference to OSHA requirements. Willful violations carry the highest penalties and can lead to criminal charges if they result in a worker's death. They reflect a conscious disregard for safety obligations.

Who is responsible for providing required personal protective equipment (PPE) in most cases?

• a.The employer, generally at no cost to the worker✓
• b.The equipment manufacturer directly
• c.OSHA inspectors
• d.The worker, purchased personally

Employers are generally required to provide required PPE at no cost to employees, with limited exceptions such as ordinary safety-toe footwear allowed to be worn off-site. Employers must also ensure PPE is properly maintained and that workers are trained in its use. This helps remove cost as a barrier to protection.

What is the purpose of the OSHA 'It's the Law' poster that employers must display?

• a.To inform workers of their rights and how to file a complaint✓
• b.To list employee salaries
• c.To post the daily schedule
• d.To advertise the company

The OSHA 'Job Safety and Health: It's the Law' poster informs workers of their rights and employer responsibilities under the OSH Act. It must be displayed in a conspicuous location where workers can see it. It also explains how to contact OSHA and file complaints.

How long must most OSHA injury and illness records generally be retained?

• a.5 years following the end of the calendar year they cover✓
• b.Indefinitely with no limit
• c.30 days
• d.6 months

OSHA 300 Logs, annual summaries, and incident reports must generally be retained for five years following the end of the calendar year those records cover. Employers must update the logs if new information about a recorded case emerges. Certain exposure and medical records must be kept far longer.

Which agency conducts research and makes recommendations to prevent workplace injury and illness?

• a.The FCC
• b.The FBI
• c.NIOSH✓
• d.The SEC

The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) conducts research and makes recommendations for preventing work-related injury and illness. Unlike OSHA, NIOSH is a research agency and does not issue or enforce regulations. It is part of the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.

What is a State Plan under OSHA?

• a.A state-run safety program that must be at least as effective as federal OSHA✓
• b.A voluntary insurance policy
• c.A federal budget document
• d.A plan to eliminate all state taxes

A State Plan is an OSHA-approved workplace safety and health program operated by a state or territory. These plans must be at least as effective as the federal OSHA program and may cover public-sector workers. About half the states operate their own approved plans.

If a worker believes conditions are unsafe, what should generally be their FIRST step?

• a.Contact the local news
• b.Notify the employer or supervisor about the hazard✓
• c.Immediately quit the job
• d.Ignore it and continue working

Workers are generally encouraged to first notify their employer or supervisor about a hazard so it can be corrected. If the employer does not fix the problem, the worker may file a complaint with OSHA. Reporting internally often resolves issues most quickly.

Under OSHA, when may a worker refuse to perform a task?

• a.Only with a doctor's note
• b.Whenever the weather is bad
• c.Any time they simply do not want to work
• d.When there is a reasonable belief of imminent danger and no time to correct it through normal channels✓

A worker may refuse a task when they have a reasonable, good-faith belief of an imminent danger of death or serious injury, the employer has not corrected it, and there is no time to eliminate the danger through regular enforcement channels. The worker should ask the employer to correct the hazard first. This right is narrowly defined and not a general refusal privilege.

What is the primary goal of an effective safety and health program under OSHA guidelines?

• a.To find and fix hazards before they cause injury or illness✓
• b.To lower employee wages
• c.To reduce paperwork only
• d.To increase production speed

The primary goal of a safety and health program is to proactively find and fix workplace hazards before they cause harm. Core elements include management leadership, worker participation, hazard identification, and training. Such programs reduce injuries, illnesses, and related costs.

What are the 'Focus Four' hazards responsible for most construction deaths?

• a.Noise, dust, heat, and cold
• b.Falls, struck-by, caught-in/between, and electrocution✓
• c.Slips, trips, cuts, and bruises
• d.Fire, flood, wind, and earthquake

OSHA's Focus Four are falls, struck-by, caught-in/between, and electrocution hazards. These four categories account for the majority of construction fatalities each year. Training emphasizes recognizing and controlling each of them.

Which of the Focus Four hazards causes the greatest number of construction fatalities?

• a.Falls✓
• b.Struck-by
• c.Caught-in/between
• d.Electrocution

Falls are consistently the leading cause of death in construction, making up roughly a third of all industry fatalities. This is why fall protection receives heavy regulatory emphasis. Preventing falls has the greatest single impact on construction safety.

A worker is hit by a swinging load from a crane. Which Focus Four category does this fall under?

• a.Struck-by✓
• b.Caught-in/between
• c.Electrocution
• d.Fall

Being hit by a moving or swinging object such as a crane load is a struck-by hazard. Struck-by incidents also include flying, falling, and rolling objects. Controls include barricading swing zones and keeping workers clear of suspended loads.

A worker's arm is pulled into an unguarded rotating drive shaft. This is an example of which hazard?

• a.Chemical exposure
• b.Caught-in/between✓
• c.Struck-by
• d.Fall

Having a body part drawn into or crushed by machinery is a caught-in/between hazard. Machine guarding and lockout/tagout are key controls for these hazards. Rotating equipment must be guarded to prevent contact with moving parts.

What is the primary purpose of a competent person on a construction site?

• a.To identify hazards and have authority to correct them promptly✓
• b.To manage payroll
• c.To greet visitors
• d.To order lunch for the crew

A competent person is someone capable of identifying existing and predictable hazards and who has the authorization to take prompt corrective measures. OSHA requires a competent person for many activities, such as scaffolding, excavation, and fall protection. Their authority to act is a defining feature of the role.

Which control is considered MOST effective in the hierarchy of controls?

• a.Administrative controls
• b.Personal protective equipment
• c.Warning signs
• d.Elimination of the hazard✓

In the hierarchy of controls, elimination of the hazard is the most effective method because it removes the danger entirely. The full order is elimination, substitution, engineering controls, administrative controls, and PPE. PPE is the least effective and a last line of defense.

Before entering an excavation deeper than 5 feet, what is generally required?

• a.Permission from customers
• b.Nothing, if the soil looks stable
• c.A protective system such as sloping, shoring, or shielding✓
• d.Only a hard hat

Excavations 5 feet or deeper generally require a protective system such as sloping, benching, shoring, or a trench shield, unless made entirely of stable rock. A competent person must inspect the excavation. Trench cave-ins are a deadly caught-in/between hazard.

Where should excavated soil (spoil pile) be placed relative to the edge of a trench?

• a.Inside the trench
• b.Directly on the trench edge
• c.It does not matter
• d.At least 2 feet back from the edge✓

Spoil piles and other materials must be kept at least 2 feet back from the edge of an excavation. This reduces the load on the trench walls and prevents materials from rolling back in. Keeping the edge clear also gives workers a safe exit path.

What is the maximum distance a worker in a trench 4 feet or deeper should be from a means of egress?

• a.There is no requirement
• b.100 feet
• c.50 feet
• d.25 feet✓

In trenches 4 feet or deeper, a stairway, ladder, ramp, or other safe means of egress must be within 25 feet of workers. This ensures a quick exit in an emergency such as a cave-in or water intrusion. The means of egress must extend above the trench top edge.

Which practice best reduces struck-by hazards from vehicles and equipment on site?

• a.Using high-visibility clothing, spotters, and traffic control✓
• b.Removing backup alarms
• c.Wearing dark clothing
• d.Standing behind backing vehicles

Struck-by hazards from vehicles are reduced by high-visibility clothing, trained spotters, backup alarms, and traffic control plans. Workers should stay out of the blind spots of heavy equipment. Establishing exclusion zones keeps workers separated from moving equipment.

A tool left on an overhead beam falls and strikes a worker below. What is the best preventive measure?

• a.Toe boards, tool tethers, and barricading areas below overhead work✓
• b.Ignoring the area below
• c.Working faster
• d.Removing all hard hats

Falling-object struck-by hazards are controlled with toe boards, screens, tool tethers, and barricading the area below overhead work. Hard hats provide protection but should not be the only control. Keeping tools secured at height prevents them from becoming projectiles.

Which hard hat class provides electrical protection up to 20,000 volts?

• a.Class G
• b.Class C
• c.Class E✓
• d.There is no such rating

Class E (Electrical) hard hats are tested to provide protection against contact with up to 20,000 volts. Class G (General) is rated to 2,200 volts, and Class C (Conductive) offers no electrical protection. Selecting the right class matters near energized equipment.

Which is a common caught-in/between hazard during trenching operations?

• a.Sunburn
• b.Loud noise
• c.Slippery floors
• d.Cave-in of unprotected trench walls✓

A cave-in of unprotected trench walls is a deadly caught-in/between hazard because soil is extremely heavy and can bury a worker in seconds. Protective systems and competent-person inspections are essential. Even shallow collapses can cause fatal crushing injuries.

What is the purpose of a Job Hazard Analysis (JHA)?

• a.To break a job into steps and identify hazards and controls for each✓
• b.To advertise the company
• c.To schedule vacations
• d.To calculate wages

A Job Hazard Analysis breaks a task into individual steps, identifies the hazards associated with each step, and determines controls to reduce risk. It is a proactive tool for planning safe work. Involving workers who perform the task improves its accuracy.

When working near unstable overhead materials or structures, what is the best first action?

• a.Barricade the area and keep workers out until it is made safe✓
• b.Increase the load
• c.Remove warning signs
• d.Work directly beneath it quickly

Areas with unstable overhead materials should be barricaded and kept clear until the hazard is stabilized or removed. Only trained personnel with proper controls should address the instability. Keeping workers out of the danger zone prevents struck-by and crushing injuries.

Which factor most increases the danger of a trench collapse?

• a.A shallow depth of 1 foot
• b.Dry, cool weather
• c.Bright sunlight
• d.Previously disturbed soil, water intrusion, and vibration from equipment✓

Previously disturbed soil, water accumulation, and vibration from nearby traffic or equipment all increase the likelihood of a trench collapse. A competent person must evaluate these conditions. Soil that has been dug before does not hold together as reliably as undisturbed ground.

What does 'housekeeping' on a construction site help prevent?

• a.Higher wages
• b.Slips, trips, falls, fires, and struck-by hazards from clutter✓
• c.Faster internet
• d.Only aesthetic problems

Good housekeeping keeps walkways clear and removes debris, reducing slips, trips, falls, fire fuel, and struck-by hazards. Materials should be stored neatly and scrap removed regularly. A clean site is a strong indicator of an overall safe operation.

A rigging chain snaps and the load drops. Which Focus Four hazard is most directly involved?

• a.Caught-in/between
• b.Chemical
• c.Struck-by✓
• d.Electrocution

A dropped load from failed rigging is a struck-by falling-object hazard. Rigging must be inspected before use and rated for the load. Workers should never stand under a suspended load.

What is a permit-required confined space?

• a.Any small office
• b.A parking lot
• c.A break room
• d.A confined space with hazards such as toxic atmosphere, engulfment, or entrapment requiring a permit✓

A permit-required confined space has one or more serious hazards, such as a hazardous atmosphere, potential for engulfment, or a configuration that could trap or asphyxiate an entrant. Entry requires atmospheric testing, a permit, and an attendant. These procedures prevent deaths in tanks, vaults, and manholes.

Before entering a permit-required confined space, what must be done regarding the atmosphere?

• a.Spray air freshener
• b.Test the atmosphere for oxygen, flammability, and toxicity✓
• c.Light a match to check for gas
• d.Nothing, just enter quickly

The atmosphere of a permit-required confined space must be tested before entry for oxygen content, flammable gases, and toxic contaminants, in that order. Testing continues or is monitored during entry. Never rely on smell or appearance to judge atmospheric safety.

Which of the following is an engineering control for a construction hazard?

• a.A safety poster
• b.A written policy
• c.A warning email
• d.A machine guard that physically blocks contact with moving parts✓

An engineering control physically removes or isolates a hazard, such as a machine guard, ventilation system, or trench shield. Engineering controls rank above administrative controls and PPE in the hierarchy. They protect workers without depending on individual behavior.

What is the main reason to keep workers out of the 'swing radius' of a crane or excavator?

• a.To prevent struck-by and caught-in/between injuries from the rotating counterweight✓
• b.To reduce noise
• c.To improve the view
• d.To save fuel

The rotating superstructure and counterweight of a crane or excavator can strike or crush a worker caught between it and a fixed object. The swing radius should be barricaded to keep workers out. This is a well-documented cause of construction fatalities.

Which is the correct order of the hierarchy of controls from most to least effective?

• a.Elimination, substitution, engineering controls, administrative controls, PPE✓
• b.Substitution, PPE, elimination, engineering, administrative
• c.PPE, administrative, engineering, substitution, elimination
• d.Administrative, PPE, elimination, engineering, substitution

The correct hierarchy from most to least effective is elimination, substitution, engineering controls, administrative controls, and PPE. Higher-level controls are more reliable because they do not depend on worker behavior. PPE is the last line of defense.

What should a worker do if they discover a hazard they cannot correct themselves?

• a.Report it to a supervisor or competent person immediately✓
• b.Cover it up
• c.Ignore it
• d.Wait until the next inspection

A worker who finds a hazard beyond their ability to fix should report it to a supervisor or competent person right away. Prompt reporting allows corrective action before someone is hurt. Marking or barricading the hazard temporarily can protect others in the meantime.

At what height is fall protection generally required in construction?

• a.10 feet
• b.2 feet
• c.6 feet above a lower level✓
• d.20 feet

In construction, fall protection is generally required at 6 feet or more above a lower level. Different thresholds apply in other industries, such as 4 feet in general industry. The 6-foot rule is a core concept in construction safety.

Which of the following is a conventional fall protection system?

• a.A warning sign only
• b.Bright paint on the floor
• c.A guardrail system✓
• d.A verbal reminder

Guardrail systems, safety net systems, and personal fall arrest systems are the conventional means of fall protection. Each physically prevents a fall or arrests it before the worker reaches a lower level. Signs and reminders alone are not conventional fall protection.

What is the required top rail height for a standard guardrail system?

• a.Approximately 42 inches, plus or minus 3 inches✓
• b.20 inches
• c.60 inches
• d.12 inches

A standard guardrail top rail must be about 42 inches high, plus or minus 3 inches, above the walking or working surface. A midrail is installed roughly halfway between the top rail and the surface. Guardrails must withstand at least 200 pounds of force applied outward or downward.

What are the three main components of a personal fall arrest system (PFAS)?

• a.Sign, cone, and tape
• b.Ladder, rope, and bucket
• c.Helmet, gloves, and boots
• d.Anchorage, body harness, and connector such as a lanyard✓

A personal fall arrest system consists of an anchorage, a full-body harness, and a connecting device such as a shock-absorbing lanyard or self-retracting lifeline. All three parts, sometimes remembered as the ABCs, must work together. A missing or defective component can render the system useless.

What type of body wear is required in a personal fall arrest system today?

• a.No body wear needed
• b.A simple rope around the waist
• c.A body belt
• d.A full-body harness✓

A full-body harness is required in modern personal fall arrest systems because it distributes arrest forces across the body. Body belts are no longer permitted for fall arrest because they can cause internal injuries. The harness must fit properly and be inspected before each use.

What is the maximum arresting force a personal fall arrest system should place on a worker's body?

• a.1,800 pounds when using a full-body harness✓
• b.5,000 pounds
• c.10,000 pounds
• d.There is no limit

A personal fall arrest system must limit the maximum arresting force on a worker to 1,800 pounds when a full-body harness is used. Shock-absorbing lanyards help keep forces within this limit. Exceeding this force could cause serious injury even during a successful arrest.

Why is it important to minimize free fall distance in a fall arrest system?

• a.To make the harness lighter
• b.It is not important
• c.To save rope
• d.To reduce arresting forces and the chance of hitting a lower level✓

Minimizing free fall distance reduces the forces on the body and the risk of striking a lower level or obstruction. OSHA generally limits free fall to 6 feet or less. Anchoring at or above the D-ring and accounting for total fall clearance are essential.

What must be considered to prevent a worker from hitting the ground during a fall arrest?

• a.The color of the harness
• b.The time of day
• c.Only the worker's weight
• d.Total fall clearance, including lanyard length, deceleration distance, and harness stretch✓

Fall clearance calculations must account for the lanyard length, deceleration distance, harness stretch, and a safety margin. If total clearance exceeds the distance to the lower level, the worker could still hit the ground. This calculation is critical when anchoring at foot level.