Duyệt tất cả câu hỏi

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54 câu hỏi

1. During a hair consultation, you stretch a single strand and it returns to its original length without breaking. What property are you assessing?

a.Porosity
b.Elasticity
c.Density
d.Texture

Elasticity is the ability of a hair strand to stretch and return without breaking. Healthy wet hair can typically stretch about 50% of its length and recoil. Porosity is moisture absorption, density is hairs per square inch, and texture is the diameter of a single strand.

2. A client's hair absorbs liquids quickly and chemical services process faster than expected. This indicates which condition?

a.Low porosity
b.Normal porosity
c.High porosity
d.Low elasticity

High porosity hair has a raised, damaged cuticle layer that absorbs liquids quickly and processes chemicals faster. Low porosity hair resists absorption. Normal porosity processes predictably. Elasticity is a separate property describing stretch and recovery.

3. Which term describes the diameter of a single hair strand rather than how many hairs grow per square inch of scalp?

a.Texture
b.Density
c.Porosity
d.Elasticity

Texture refers to the diameter of an individual strand and is described as fine, medium, or coarse. Density measures how many hairs grow per square inch of scalp. The two are independent: a person can have fine but dense hair, or coarse but sparse hair.

4. What is the primary purpose of shampoo surfactants?

a.To restore the hair's natural pH only
b.To attract and lift away oils and debris so water can rinse them away
c.To permanently rebuild the disulfide bonds in damaged hair
d.To deposit color pigment into the cortex

Surfactants (surface-active agents) have a head that attracts water and a tail that attracts oil. They surround dirt and sebum and emulsify them so they can be rinsed away with water. They do not rebuild bonds or deposit permanent color.

5. Which water temperature is generally recommended for shampooing most clients?

a.Cold, to seal the cuticle before any cleansing
b.Hot, to maximize oil removal
c.Warm, comfortable to the inside of the wrist
d.Boiling, for full sterilization of the scalp

Warm water that is comfortable to the inside of the operator's wrist is the safe and standard choice. It opens the cuticle enough to release dirt without scalding the client. Hot water can burn skin, and water temperature does not sterilize the scalp.

6. Which cut produces a one-length, straight, weighted perimeter where all hairs meet the same horizontal or curved line?

a.Layered cut
b.Razor cut
c.Point cut
d.Blunt cut

A blunt cut, also called a one-length or zero-elevation cut, holds all the hair to a single line so the perimeter is heavy and clean. Layering removes weight at varied lengths. Point cutting softens ends. Razor cutting creates a tapered, textured edge.

7. A client wants softer, less blocky ends without losing length. Which technique is the best fit?

a.Point cutting the ends
b.A blunt one-length perimeter cut
c.A heavy razor taper from mid-length
d.Aggressive slithering through the interior

Point cutting (also called pointing) means cutting into the ends with the shears held nearly vertical, softening the line without shortening the overall length. A blunt cut would keep the heavy line. Razor tapers and aggressive slithering remove much more weight and length.

8. What does razor cutting tend to produce that traditional shears do not?

a.Heavier, blunter perimeter ends
b.Tapered, softened ends with built-in texture
c.Equal length across all sections
d.Permanent removal of hair from the follicle

A razor slices the hair on an angle, so each strand is shorter on one side and longer on the other. This creates a tapered, feathered, textured end. Shears make a clean perpendicular cut producing a blunt edge. Cutting does not remove hair from the follicle.

9. Which landmark on the head separates the top (parietal area) from the sides?

a.Occipital bone
b.Nape line
c.Parietal ridge
d.Apex

The parietal ridge is the widest area of the head, running roughly along where a hat band sits. It separates the top section from the sides and is a key reference for partings and elevation. The occipital is at the lower back. The nape is the lowest hairline. The apex is the highest point.

10. On the color wheel, which pair is complementary and therefore neutralizes each other on hair?

a.Green and red
b.Yellow and orange
c.Red and orange
d.Blue and green

Complementary colors sit opposite each other on the color wheel: red/green, blue/orange, and yellow/violet. Mixed on hair, they neutralize unwanted tones (for example, a green-based toner cancels red brassiness). Yellow/orange, red/orange, and blue/green are adjacent (analogous), not complementary.

11. On the haircolor level system from 1 to 10, which level represents the lightest?

a.Level 1
b.Level 4
c.Level 7
d.Level 10

The standard level system goes from 1 (black) to 10 (lightest blonde). Higher number = lighter. Level 4 is medium brown, level 7 is medium blonde. Knowing the natural starting level guides choices about lift, deposit, and developer volume.

12. Which three colors are the PRIMARY colors in haircoloring theory?

a.Red, orange, yellow
b.Red, yellow, blue
c.Green, orange, violet
d.Red, blue, green

The primary colors are red, yellow, and blue. They cannot be made by mixing other colors. Secondary colors (orange, green, violet) come from mixing two primaries. Knowing this is the foundation for choosing tones and neutralizing unwanted casts.

13. A blonde client complains of brassy orange tones after weeks in the sun. Which toner color family will best neutralize the orange?

a.Gold
b.Red
c.Blue
d.Yellow

Orange's complementary color is blue, so a blue-based toner cancels orange brassiness. Violet toners cancel yellow, and green toners cancel red. Gold, red, or yellow toners would emphasize the warm tones rather than counter them.

14. What is the key difference between highlights and lowlights?

a.Highlights are lighter than the base; lowlights are darker than the base
b.Highlights are always at the roots; lowlights are always at the ends
c.Highlights use no developer; lowlights always use 40-volume
d.Highlights are temporary; lowlights are always permanent

Highlights are strands lifted to a lighter level than the natural base, while lowlights are strands deposited DARKER than the base, used to restore depth or contrast. Both can be placed anywhere on the head and can be permanent, semi, or demi depending on the chemistry chosen.

15. Balayage is best described as which kind of color technique?

a.Saturating every strand to the scalp at one level
b.A freehand, painted-on lightening technique with soft, blended grow-out
c.A two-step relaxer-then-color process
d.A semi-permanent gloss that washes out in three shampoos

Balayage (French for sweeping) is a freehand painting technique where lightener is applied to surface strands to create a naturally blended, sun-kissed effect with a soft regrowth line. It is not a full base saturation, a relaxer service, or a semi-permanent gloss.

16. Why must a strand test be performed before applying a chemical relaxer to a new client?

a.To preview the final haircut shape
b.Only to choose between perfume scents
c.To measure shampoo viscosity
d.To predict processing time and confirm the hair can withstand the chemical without breaking

A strand test (also called a preliminary test) applies the product to a small section and times the result. It confirms the hair has the strength and integrity to tolerate the relaxer and reveals how long the chemical needs to process safely, reducing the risk of breakage on the whole head.

17. Before applying a chemical relaxer, the scalp shows fresh scratches and abrasions. What is the correct action?

a.Apply a base cream over the cuts and proceed
b.Proceed normally; relaxers are mild enough to ignore broken skin
c.Reschedule the service until the scalp is fully healed
d.Use a stronger relaxer to process faster over the cuts

Chemical relaxers are highly caustic. Applying them to broken skin can cause severe chemical burns, sores, and infection. The correct action is to reschedule and tell the client to come back after the scalp has fully healed. A base cream is a precaution but cannot make a cut-up scalp safe.

18. What personal protective equipment is REQUIRED for the operator when applying a chemical relaxer?

a.Single-use gloves and protective eyewear
b.Wool gloves only
c.Open-toed sandals to keep cool
d.No PPE is needed if the product is professional

Chemical relaxers can cause severe burns and eye injury. Single-use chemical-resistant gloves and protective eyewear are required to protect the operator. Wool gloves do not block chemicals, and open-toed sandals offer no protection from spills. Professional packaging does not eliminate the chemical hazard.

19. After rinsing a chemical relaxer, what is the next critical step?

a.Apply a high-volume developer to lift color
b.Use a neutralizing shampoo to stop the chemical action and rebalance pH
c.Wrap immediately for a perm
d.Skip conditioning to lock in straightness

After thorough rinsing, an acid-balanced neutralizing shampoo is applied to stop the alkaline chemical action and return the hair toward its normal pH. Skipping this step leaves residual chemical in the hair and can lead to severe damage and breakage. Perming or coloring on top would compound the damage.

20. A client has coarse, resistant hair and wants a tight curl from a permanent wave. Which rod and timing strategy fits best?

a.Larger rods, shorter processing time
b.Smaller rods, very short processing time
c.Smaller rods, longer processing time
d.Larger rods, longer processing time

Tighter curl comes from SMALLER rods. Coarse, resistant hair is harder for chemicals to penetrate, so it usually needs LONGER processing time. The combination smaller rod + longer time gives a tight curl on resistant hair. Always follow the manufacturer's directions and confirm with a test curl.

21. A client has fine hair and wants a soft, loose wave. Which rod and timing strategy fits best?

a.Larger rods, shorter processing time
b.Smaller rods, longer processing time
c.Very small rods, very long time
d.No rods, only chemicals

Looser waves come from LARGER rods. Fine hair absorbs chemicals quickly and is easily over-processed, so a SHORTER processing time is appropriate. The combination larger rod + shorter time creates a soft wave with less risk of breakage. Always test-curl and follow manufacturer instructions.

22. What is the purpose of the neutralizer in a permanent wave service?

a.To soften the hair so it can wrap around the rod
b.To lift natural pigment for a lighter shade
c.To rebuild the disulfide bonds in the new curled shape and stop processing
d.To clean the scalp before wrapping

Waving lotion (typically a thio compound) breaks the disulfide bonds so the hair can be reshaped on the rod. The neutralizer (usually a peroxide-based solution) rebuilds those bonds in the NEW curled position and stops the chemical action. Without it, the curl will not hold and damage continues.

23. What is the main risk of running a flat iron at maximum heat on fine, previously bleached hair?

a.The iron will cool too quickly to be useful
b.Severe protein damage, breakage, and possible burns to the scalp or ears
c.The hair will gain weight
d.It will permanently change the natural color back to its original level

Fine and chemically lightened hair has less structural protein and a fragile cuticle. Excessive flat-iron heat literally cooks the proteins, leading to dryness, breakage, and a brittle feel, plus burn risk to skin. Lower temperatures and a heat protectant are required. Heat does not restore natural color.

24. Which step is the BEST first defense against thermal damage before blow-drying and ironing?

a.Apply a heat-protectant product evenly to towel-dried hair
b.Increase the iron temperature so the pass is shorter
c.Skip the conditioner so the hair holds the style longer
d.Hold the dryer two inches closer to the scalp

A heat protectant forms a thin barrier that distributes heat more evenly and reduces direct damage to the cuticle. Higher iron temperatures and a closer dryer worsen damage. Skipping conditioner removes moisture and protein support, making heat damage more likely.

25. Under California sanitation rules for licensees, what must happen to shears and combs between two clients?

a.Wipe with a dry towel only
b.Rinse under cold water only
c.Soak in a glass of tap water
d.Clean of debris and then disinfect with an EPA-registered hospital-level disinfectant per label directions

California sanitation rules require that nonelectrical tools that touch a client be cleaned of debris and then disinfected with an EPA-registered hospital-grade disinfectant according to label directions before they are used on another client. A dry wipe, plain water rinse, or tap water soak does not satisfy this standard.

16 CCR §979

26. A licensed Cosmetologist in California may legally perform which of the following?

a.Inject filler into a client's lips
b.Cut, color, perm, and chemically relax hair
c.Diagnose and treat a scalp infection
d.Perform laser hair removal

The Cosmetologist scope under the BBC includes services on hair (cutting, coloring, perming, chemical relaxing), skin care above the shoulders, and nails. Injections, medical diagnosis, and laser treatments are medical procedures outside the cosmetology license and require a different professional.

27. What is the safest response when a chemical product label disagrees with what a senior coworker tells you to do?

a.Follow the manufacturer's written instructions on the label
b.Follow the coworker because they have more experience
c.Mix both approaches together
d.Skip the timer to be safe

Manufacturer instructions reflect tested safety and processing guidelines for that exact product. They are also the legal and professional standard. Personal habits, even from experienced coworkers, do not override the label. Always read the label and follow it; ignoring the timer multiplies risk.

28. What is a single-process color service?

a.Lightener applied, rinsed, then a separate toner applied as step two
b.Color and perm performed together in one chair
c.One application of color that lifts and deposits in the same step
d.Two complete color applications on different days

Single-process color uses one application of a permanent or demi-permanent color that lifts (where the developer allows) and deposits pigment at the same time. Double-process is two separate steps, typically pre-lightening with bleach followed by a toner or color formula.

29. When sectioning the head for a haircut, why are clean, accurate partings important?

a.They make the haircut take three times longer
b.They are only decorative
c.They eliminate the need for guides
d.They keep elevation, tension, and guide lines consistent so the result is predictable

Clean sectioning gives the stylist control over elevation, tension, and the cutting line. With consistent sections the same guide can be carried through the head, producing a balanced, predictable shape. Sloppy partings produce uneven results no matter how good the shear work is.

30. Where on the head is the OCCIPITAL area?

a.At the lower back of the head, above the nape
b.At the very top, the highest point
c.Along the front hairline
d.Behind each ear only

The occipital is the rounded area at the lower back of the head, above the nape but below the crown. It is named for the underlying occipital bone. The highest point is the apex, the front hairline is the hairline, and the small zones behind each ear are part of the side sections.

31. Scalp massage during shampooing should be done with what part of the hand?

a.The fingernails, scratching in long strokes
b.The cushioned pads of the fingers, in slow circular motion
c.A hard plastic comb pressed against the scalp
d.The knuckles, pressing as hard as possible

Scalp massage uses the cushioned pads of the fingers in slow, circular movements to stimulate circulation, lift product, and relax the client. Fingernails can scratch and damage skin, hard combs can injure the scalp, and forceful knuckles cause discomfort and possible irritation.

32. Slithering and slide cutting are techniques used mainly to do what?

a.Create a heavier, blunter perimeter
b.Permanently change hair texture
c.Add color highlights without lightener
d.Remove bulk and create soft, blended texture inside the haircut

Slithering (an open-shear gliding technique) and slide cutting move the shears down the strand to remove bulk and blend layers without creating a hard line. They do not change chemical texture or color, and they reduce rather than build perimeter weight.

33. A client wants a one-length bob with no graduation or layering. At what cutting angle should the hair be held from the head to achieve a true blunt cut?

a.0 degrees (held straight down at natural fall)
b.45 degrees from the head
c.90 degrees from the head
d.180 degrees from the head

A blunt or one-length cut is performed with the hair at 0 degrees of elevation, meaning it falls in its natural position with no lift from the head. Elevating to 45 degrees creates graduated layering, 90 degrees produces a uniform layer, and 180 degrees creates long-layered or disconnected shapes.

34. Which elevation produces a uniform-layer haircut in which every strand is the same length when extended straight out from the scalp?

a.0 degrees
b.45 degrees
c.90 degrees
d.180 degrees

A 90-degree elevation lifts each section perpendicular to the curve of the head, so every strand is cut to the same length, producing a uniform-layer shape (round layer). 0 degrees is blunt, 45 degrees is graduation, and 180 degrees gives long layers.

35. A long-layered haircut where the interior is shorter than the perimeter (such as a shag) is achieved by holding the hair at what elevation?

a.0 degrees
b.45 degrees
c.90 degrees
d.180 degrees

180-degree elevation pulls all sections straight up toward the ceiling and cuts to a stationary guide, leaving interior lengths shorter than the perimeter. This produces long layers or disconnection effects. Lower elevations build weight along the perimeter instead.

36. Before applying an aniline-derivative oxidation hair color, how long in advance must a patch (predisposition) test be performed, and where?

a.12 hours before, on the forearm
b.24 to 48 hours before, behind the ear or on the inner elbow
c.5 minutes before, on the scalp
d.One week before, on the back of the neck

Manufacturer instructions for aniline (PPD) tints require a patch test 24 to 48 hours before service, applied behind the ear or in the bend of the inner elbow. The area is observed for redness, swelling, itching, or blistering, any of which indicates the client should not receive the service.

37. What is the purpose of a strand test performed on a small section of hair before a full color service?

a.To check the client for allergic reaction to PPD
b.To clean buildup from the hair before chemical service
c.To preview color result, processing time, and condition of the hair after the chemical
d.To set the curl pattern for a permanent wave

A strand (preliminary) test is a small swatch of hair processed with the actual color formula to preview the final shade, gauge required processing time, and confirm the hair's condition will tolerate the service. The patch test, by contrast, checks for allergic reaction on the skin, not in the hair.

38. On the standard hair-color level system used industry-wide, which numbers represent the darkest and lightest natural levels respectively?

a.Level 1 is black; level 10 is lightest blonde
b.Level 1 is lightest blonde; level 10 is black
c.Level 0 is white; level 5 is black
d.Level 5 is black; level 20 is platinum

The universal level system runs from 1 (black) to 10 (lightest blonde), measuring lightness or darkness of the hair. Tone refers to the warmth or coolness within a level. Numbering above 10 is used in some lines but the core scale is 1-10.

39. A client has level 6 natural hair and wants to go to level 8. Which volume of hydrogen peroxide developer is typically appropriate when used with a permanent color?

a.10 volume (no lift)
b.20 volume (1-2 levels of lift)
c.30 volume (2-3 levels of lift)
d.40 volume (3-4 levels of lift)

20 volume peroxide provides approximately 1-2 levels of lift and full gray coverage, matching a 2-level lift from 6 to 8. 10 volume gives no lift (deposit only), 30 volume lifts 2-3 levels, and 40 volume lifts 3-4 levels and is generally reserved for high-lift formulations.

40. What volume of hydrogen peroxide developer deposits color without lifting natural pigment?

a.10 volume
b.20 volume
c.30 volume
d.40 volume

10 volume peroxide is a deposit-only developer used when the goal is to add tone or darken without lightening the natural pigment. Higher volumes progressively lift more underlying pigment as the percentage of hydrogen peroxide rises.

41. What is the primary difference between a single-process and a double-process hair color service?

a.Single-process uses semipermanent dye; double-process uses temporary dye
b.Single-process is performed by barbers; double-process is performed only by cosmetologists
c.Single-process requires a patch test; double-process does not
d.Single-process lifts and deposits in one step; double-process pre-lightens first, then deposits tone in a second step

A single-process color combines lift and deposit in one application. A double-process requires first pre-lightening (bleaching) the hair to remove pigment and then applying a separate toner or color in a second step. Double-process is used for dramatic light blondes or fashion shades.

42. Which highlighting technique uses a perforated plastic cap and a crochet hook to pull strands through holes for lightening?

a.Foil highlighting
b.Cap highlighting
c.Balayage
d.Ombré sweep

Cap highlighting places a perforated cap over clean hair, and a crochet hook pulls selected strands through the holes for lightener application. Foil highlighting wraps sections in foil for greater precision. Balayage is freehand surface painting; ombré is a graduated dark-to-light effect.

43. What is the chemical difference between highlights and lowlights?

a.Highlights deposit color; lowlights remove color
b.Highlights are temporary; lowlights are permanent
c.Highlights lighten strands using an oxidative lightener; lowlights deposit a darker shade than the natural base
d.Highlights are only for blondes; lowlights are only for brunettes

Highlights chemically lighten selected strands using a lightener or high-lift color (oxidation removes pigment). Lowlights use deposit-only or oxidative color to add strands darker than the existing base for depth and dimension. Either may be applied via foil, balayage, or cap.

44. After pre-lightening, a typical demi-permanent toner is processed for how long, and the operator monitors visually?

a.30 to 45 minutes under heat
b.5 to 15 minutes at room temperature with frequent visual checks
c.60 minutes covered with a plastic cap
d.Overnight

Toners are typically demi-permanent or semipermanent products processed 5 to 15 minutes at room temperature, with the operator checking the color development every few minutes because over-processing leads to muddy or undesired tones. Manufacturer instructions always govern exact timing.

45. Within hair-texture classification systems, what does "type 4" describe?

a.Straight hair with no curl pattern
b.Wavy hair with a loose S pattern
c.Curly hair with a defined spiral
d.Coily or kinky hair with very tight zig-zag or spring-like pattern

Common hair-typing systems describe type 1 as straight, type 2 as wavy, type 3 as curly, and type 4 as coily or kinky with a tight zig-zag, spring, or Z-pattern. Each type has subcategories (a/b/c) reflecting tightness. Texture (strand diameter) is separate from wave pattern.

46. Before any chemical service, a scalp examination is required. Which finding requires the licensee to postpone or refuse the service?

a.Abrasions, scratches, open sores, or irritated skin on the scalp
b.Slight oiliness near the hairline
c.A few flakes of dandruff
d.Recently shampooed hair

Chemicals applied to broken or irritated skin can cause burns, systemic absorption, or severe reactions. Abrasions, scratches, open sores, or any signs of disease or irritation require the licensee to postpone or refuse the chemical service. Minor oiliness or normal dandruff alone is not a contraindication.

16 CCR §979

47. Resistant gray hair often refuses to absorb color evenly. Which preparation technique helps the cuticle accept the color?

a.Pre-shampoo with sulfate-free conditioner
b.Apply 40 volume peroxide to the gray strands first
c.Pre-soften or pre-pigment the resistant area before applying the final color formula
d.Skip the patch test

Resistant gray has tightly compacted cuticle scales. Pre-softening (mild peroxide application) gently raises the cuticle, and pre-pigmentation deposits a warm base so the final permanent color penetrates and looks balanced. Higher peroxide volumes alone risk damage and do not solve cuticle resistance.

48. Which chemical relaxer is classified as a no-lye relaxer and is commonly marketed for at-home or sensitive-scalp use?

a.Sodium hydroxide
b.Lithium hydroxide
c.Potassium hydroxide
d.Guanidine hydroxide

Guanidine hydroxide is a no-lye relaxer formed by mixing calcium hydroxide with a guanidine carbonate activator. It is gentler on the scalp than sodium hydroxide (lye) relaxers but can leave hair drier. Sodium, lithium, and potassium hydroxide are lye relaxers.

49. Which reducing agent is commonly used in thio relaxers, which are milder than hydroxide-based relaxers?

a.Ammonium thioglycolate
b.Sodium hydroxide
c.Hydrogen peroxide
d.Guanidine hydroxide

Ammonium thioglycolate (thio) breaks disulfide bonds via reduction rather than the higher-pH hydroxide cleavage. Thio relaxers are milder and often used on previously color-treated or finer hair. Hydroxide relaxers (sodium, guanidine) are stronger and work by lanthionization.

50. Compared with acid permanent waves, what pH range and characteristics define alkaline (cold) waves?

a.pH 4.5 to 7.0, requires external heat, slower processing
b.pH 9.0 to 9.6, processes at room temperature, produces firm curl
c.pH 6.5 to 7.0, requires no neutralizer
d.pH 11.0 to 14.0, processes in five seconds

Alkaline or cold permanent waves run pH 9.0 to 9.6 with ammonium thioglycolate, process at room temperature, and create a firm curl. Acid waves run pH 4.5 to 7.0 using glyceryl monothioglycolate, usually require heat, process more slowly, and produce a softer curl.

51. A razor-cutting technique that removes bulk and softens ends by gliding the razor along a section of hair is best described as:

a.Blunt cutting on wet hair
b.Point cutting with shears at 90 degrees
c.Slithering (effilating) along the strand
d.Clipper-over-comb

Slithering, also called effilating, glides the razor (or open shears) along a section to taper and remove bulk while softening ends. Point cutting jabs the tips of the shears into the ends for texture. Razor work is generally performed on wet hair to avoid splitting the cuticle.

52. Which thermal styling temperature range is most appropriate for fine, fragile, or chemically treated hair?

a.400 to 450°F (205-232°C)
b.375 to 400°F (190-205°C)
c.350 to 375°F (175-190°C)
d.Under 300°F (under 150°C)

Fine, fragile, or chemically processed hair should be styled under 300°F (about 150°C) to limit cuticle damage. Medium hair generally tolerates 300-380°F, and very coarse or resistant hair may need up to 400-450°F, but the lowest effective temperature is always preferred to preserve hair integrity.

53. A client received a patch test 48 hours ago and the test site now shows redness, swelling, and itching. What is the correct action?

a.Do not perform the color service; advise the client to consult a physician
b.Perform the service but dilute the color with conditioner
c.Switch to 10-volume developer and proceed
d.Perform a second patch test on the other arm and continue

A positive patch test (redness, swelling, itching, blistering) means the client is sensitive to ingredients in the formula, most often PPD. The service must not be performed; the client should be advised to consult a physician. Diluting or changing developer does not eliminate the allergen.

54. After completing a chemical service that touched the comb, neck strip, and cape, what must the licensee do before the next client?

a.Wipe the comb with a dry towel only
b.Discard single-use items and clean and disinfect all multi-use tools with an EPA-registered hospital-grade disinfectant
c.Rinse tools in warm tap water
d.Spray the cape with cologne

Board sanitation rules require single-use items (neck strips, applicator brushes, etc.) to be discarded and multi-use tools (combs, clips, shears) to be cleaned and then disinfected with an EPA-registered, hospital-grade disinfectant before reuse. Capes that touch skin must be laundered or covered with a clean neck strip.

16 CCR §979