Duyệt tất cả câu hỏi

1. A client asks for acrylic nail enhancements applied with methyl methacrylate (MMA) monomer. What must a California-licensed manicurist do?

California prohibits the use of methyl methacrylate (MMA) liquid monomer in nail products. Licensees must use ethyl methacrylate (EMA) or other approved monomers. MMA is brittle, hard to remove, and has caused injuries; a waiver cannot override a statutory ban.

2. During lip waxing, after applying wax to one section of the lip, the esthetician should:

California sanitation rules prohibit double-dipping wax applicators. Once a stick touches the skin, it must be discarded; the next application requires a fresh, single-use stick. This prevents transferring bacteria back into the wax pot.

3. A new client mentions she started oral isotretinoin (Accutane) two months ago for acne. She requests a brow wax. The correct action is to:

Isotretinoin thins the skin and dramatically weakens its barrier. Waxing can lift live skin, leaving raw wounds and scars. The standard contraindication window is at least 6 months after the last dose. A cooler temperature or patch test does not eliminate the risk.

4. Before applying wax to a client's leg, where should the practitioner test the wax temperature?

Standard safe practice is to test wax temperature on the inside of the practitioner's own wrist, where the skin is thin and sensitive. Testing on the client risks burning them, and a paper towel does not reveal how the wax will feel on skin.

5. A client's facial skin shows enlarged pores in the T-zone but dry, tight cheeks. This skin is best classified as:

Combination skin has different conditions in different zones, typically oily forehead/nose/chin (T-zone) and drier cheeks. Treatment must be tailored zone by zone rather than treating the whole face as oily or dry.

6. Which cranial nerve provides the main motor supply to the muscles of facial expression?

The facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) controls the muscles of facial expression. The trigeminal nerve (CN V) is mainly sensory for the face and motor only to the chewing muscles. Estheticians should know this when performing facial massage.

7. Which cranial nerve carries most of the sensation from the skin of the face?

The trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V) provides sensory innervation to almost all of the face through its three branches: ophthalmic (V1), maxillary (V2), and mandibular (V3). The facial nerve is mostly motor.

8. Which is the correct general order in a basic facial?

A standard facial starts by cleansing the skin, then removes dead cells with exfoliation, optionally extracts where appropriate, moves into massage, applies a treatment mask, tones, moisturizes, and finishes with SPF for daytime sun protection.

9. A client requests a manicure. During the cuticle step, the manicurist should:

Manicurists must NOT cut living tissue. The proper technique is to soften the cuticle, gently push it back, and only trim already-loose dead skin if necessary. Cutting living cuticle or the eponychium can cause infection and is outside safe practice.

10. A client asks a California-licensed manicurist to wax her eyebrows. The manicurist should:

A California manicurist license covers care of the nails and surrounding skin of the hands and feet. Facial skin services such as eyebrow waxing are outside scope; that work requires an esthetician or cosmetology license.

11. A pedicure client has a thickened, yellow, crumbling toenail that has been worsening for months. The professional response is to:

A thickened, yellow, crumbling toenail is a likely sign of onychomycosis (nail fungus), which is a medical condition. Services on the infected nail are contraindicated. The proper action is to skip that nail and refer to a physician or podiatrist.

12. A client comes in with redness, swelling, and pus along the side of the fingernail fold. This is most consistent with:

Paronychia is a bacterial infection of the soft tissue around the nail, often causing redness, swelling, and pus. It is contraindicated for cosmetic nail services; the client should be referred to a physician for treatment.

13. Gel polish hardens (cures) primarily because of:

Gel polish contains photoinitiators that begin polymerization when exposed to specific wavelengths of UV or LED light. Without proper light exposure for the required time, the gel will not fully cure, which can cause skin allergy and lifting.

14. Between two pedicure clients, the foot spa basin must be:

California sanitation rules require foot spas to be drained, cleaned of all visible debris, and disinfected with an EPA-registered hospital-grade disinfectant between every client, leaving the disinfectant in contact for the time stated on the product label.

15. Metal cuticle nippers used on one client and then needed for the next client must be:

Reusable, non-porous metal tools must be cleaned of debris and then fully immersed in an EPA-registered hospital-grade disinfectant for the contact time stated on the label. Wiping or rinsing does not disinfect.

16. Single-use items used in nail or skin services — such as wooden orangewood sticks, emery boards (one-time-use), and cotton pads — must be:

Porous or single-use implements absorb material and cannot be effectively disinfected. California requires that any such item used on a client be discarded immediately afterward. Reusing them risks transferring fungi and bacteria.

17. A client requests a chemical peel during her facial. A California esthetician should:

Estheticians are limited to superficial, non-medical exfoliating peels (typically light AHA/BHA products meant for licensed esthetic use). Peels that penetrate to the dermis are a medical procedure outside their scope, regardless of client consent.

18. Which of the following is NOT within a California esthetician's scope of practice?

Injectables are a medical act and must be performed by appropriately licensed medical professionals. Facials, makeup, and brow waxing fall within the esthetician scope.

19. A client says her facial skin stings whenever she tries a new product and turns red easily. This skin should be treated as:

Reactive, easily flushed skin that stings with new products is classified as sensitive. Sensitive skin needs gentle, fragrance-light products, lower-strength actives, and patch testing before introducing anything new.

20. Which facial massage movement is generally light, stroking, and used to begin and end a massage?

Effleurage is a light, gliding stroke used to begin and end a massage and to apply product. Petrissage is kneading; friction is deep rubbing; tapotement is tapping or percussive movement and is generally avoided on delicate facial skin.

21. During extraction (clearing a comedone), the safest practice is to:

Extractions should only be done after the skin has been cleansed, warmed, and softened; gentle, even pressure with cotton-wrapped fingers (or a sanitized extractor) is used. If a comedone resists, stop — forcing it can damage tissue. Bare nails or needles risk cuts, infection, and scarring; inflamed/active acne should not be aggressively extracted.

22. A client returns 24 hours after a brow wax with intense redness, itching, and small lifted patches of skin where the wax was applied. The most likely cause is:

Retinoids (Retin-A, tretinoin) and other exfoliating actives thin and weaken the stratum corneum, making it easy for wax to lift live skin. This shows the importance of a thorough intake form asking about Accutane, Retin-A, and recent peels before any waxing.

23. The orbicularis oculi muscle is responsible for:

Orbicularis oculi is the circular muscle around the eye that closes the eyelid. The frontalis raises eyebrows/wrinkles the forehead, and the masseter/pterygoids move the jaw.

24. When applying SPF as the final step of a daytime facial, the esthetician should:

Broad-spectrum SPF should cover the full facial area, including ears and neckline, every time, regardless of weather or short outdoor exposure. UVA passes through clouds and windows, so daily SPF is the standard recommendation.

25. A client wants long, hard nail enhancements that are very rigid and inexpensive. A salon advertises an 'odorless liquid' product priced far below normal acrylic. What is the most important concern?

MMA is sometimes marketed deceptively or used because it is cheaper, and the resulting nails are notoriously hard, brittle, and very difficult to remove. Suspicious low prices for very hard acrylics are a red flag. California bans MMA in nail products.

26. On the Fitzpatrick skin-type scale, which type describes very fair skin that always burns and never tans?

Fitzpatrick Type I is the lightest classification: very fair skin, often with red or blond hair, that always burns and never tans. The scale runs I through VI and helps the esthetician judge risk for sun damage, peel reactions, and laser hair removal.

27. Which superficial chemical peel is generally considered the most appropriate first choice for a client with active, oily, acne-prone skin?

Salicylic acid is a BHA that is oil-soluble, so it penetrates into the sebum inside pores, making it the preferred superficial peel for oily, acneic skin. Glycolic acid is a smaller AHA but water-soluble; TCA medium peels are a medical procedure outside esthetic scope.

28. Which of the following is within a California esthetician's scope but NOT within a manicurist's scope?

Dermaplaning is a facial-skin service performed with a single-use blade to remove vellus hair and dead surface cells; it falls under esthetic scope. Filing, gel polish, and gel removal on the hands and feet are nail services within the manicurist's scope.

29. During the desincrustation phase of a galvanic facial, which pole and which product type are used to soften and emulsify sebum in the pores?

Desincrustation uses the negative pole together with a negatively charged, alkaline solution. Like charges repel, driving the product into the skin and softening hardened sebum so that comedones release more easily. The positive pole (iontophoresis) is used later with positively charged serums.

30. What is the main difference between direct and indirect application of high-frequency current during a facial?

In DIRECT high-frequency, the electrode is glided over the client's skin and produces small amounts of ozone with an antibacterial/drying effect, helpful on oily and acneic skin. In INDIRECT, the client holds the electrode while the esthetician massages the face with hands, producing a gentle stimulating/toning effect.

31. Which color of LED light therapy is most commonly associated with stimulating collagen and addressing fine lines on aging skin?

Red LED light is most commonly associated with stimulating fibroblasts and collagen production, supporting anti-aging treatments. Blue LED targets P. acnes bacteria for acne, and green LED is often promoted for pigmentation and redness.

32. Before performing eyebrow tinting with a semi-permanent dye, the esthetician should:

Brow tints often contain ingredients such as PPD that can trigger severe allergic contact dermatitis. A patch test 24-48 hours before the service is the standard precaution; skipping it can put the client at risk of swelling, blistering, and anaphylaxis.

33. What is the key chemistry-and-application difference between traditional acrylic and dip-powder nail enhancements?

Acrylic combines a liquid methacrylate monomer with a polymer powder, polymerizing in air without a lamp. Dip powder uses a cyanoacrylate (resin/glue) base in which colored powder is embedded layer by layer and sealed. Neither cures with light in the typical sense, unlike gel polish.

34. Compared with traditional UV gel polish, modern LED gel polish typically:

LED gels are formulated with photoinitiators tuned to the narrow LED wavelength and typically cure in about 30-60 seconds per layer, much faster than older UV gels which often need 2 minutes. Application steps (base, color, top) remain similar.

35. A client presents with the free edge of a fingernail visibly lifting away from the nail bed, with a whitish space underneath, but no obvious infection. This condition is best described as:

Onycholysis is separation of the nail plate from the bed, usually starting at the free edge, creating a whitish gap. Onychomadesis is shedding of the whole nail from its base. Pterygium is abnormal forward growth of skin onto the plate.

36. When a client has a pterygium (skin growing forward over the nail plate), the manicurist should:

A true pterygium is living tissue that has grown abnormally onto the nail plate. Cutting it causes bleeding, severe pain, and risk of infection, and may make the condition worse. The licensee should not cut and should refer unusual or symptomatic cases for medical evaluation.

37. The main practical difference between hard wax and soft wax during a service is:

Hard (stripless) wax is applied in a thicker layer, allowed to set, and peeled off in one piece, which is gentler on delicate areas such as the face, underarms, and bikini. Soft wax is spread thin and pressed onto a muslin or pellon strip, then pulled off.

38. When applying eyelash extensions, what is the most important safety practice regarding the cyanoacrylate-based adhesive?

Cyanoacrylate adhesive is for lash-to-lash bonding only. The technician must isolate each natural lash and apply adhesive to the extension so the bond sits a tiny distance from the lid. Contact with the lid causes burning, swelling, allergic reactions, and potential corneal injury.

39. Before using a hot wax pot, the practitioner tests the wax on the inside of the wrist and feels comfortable warmth without burning. The recommended safe application temperature range for body waxing is approximately:

A practical, comfortable application range for body wax is roughly 110-115 F (43-46 C) — warm enough to flow but never hot enough to burn. The wrist test is the recommended verification before applying to the client.

40. After the end of every business day, the screen, pump, drain, and other parts that contact water in a whirlpool foot spa must be:

California rules for whirlpool foot spas require disassembly and cleaning of the removable parts (screen, filter, etc.), then circulation of an EPA-registered hospital-grade disinfectant through the unit at the end of each day. A written cleaning log must be maintained for inspection.

41. Under BPC §7320, sanitation duties of a licensee during a service primarily mean that the licensee must:

California law assigns infection-control responsibility directly to the licensee performing the service. The licensee must follow BBC sanitation rules (16 CCR §979 et seq.) at every service: hand hygiene, properly disinfected reusable tools, immediate disposal of single-use items, and clean linens and surfaces. Owner instructions do not override this personal duty.