NHA Patient Care Technician (CPCT) — All Questions

A patient care technician counts a resting adult patient's radial pulse and gets 78 beats per minute. How should this finding be classified?

• a.Below normal, indicating possible shock
• b.Bradycardia requiring immediate provider notification
• c.Tachycardia requiring immediate provider notification
• d.Within the normal adult range of 60-100 beats per minute✓

The normal resting heart rate for an adult is 60 to 100 beats per minute, so 78 bpm is normal. Bradycardia is a rate below 60 bpm and tachycardia is a rate above 100 bpm. No urgent notification is needed for a normal reading.

What is the normal respiratory rate range for a resting adult?

• a.6 to 10 breaths per minute
• b.30 to 40 breaths per minute
• c.12 to 20 breaths per minute✓
• d.24 to 30 breaths per minute

A normal adult resting respiratory rate is 12 to 20 breaths per minute. Rates below 12 indicate bradypnea and rates above 20 indicate tachypnea. Count respirations for a full minute for the most accurate result when the rate is irregular.

According to widely accepted guidelines, a normal adult blood pressure reading is closest to which value?

• a.140 over 90 mm Hg or higher
• b.120 to 129 over less than 80 mm Hg
• c.Less than 120 over less than 80✓
• d.About 90 over 50 mm Hg at rest

Under the 2017 ACC/AHA categories, normal adult blood pressure is a systolic below 120 mm Hg AND a diastolic below 80 mm Hg. The closest competitor, 120 to 129 over less than 80, is a real category but it is called elevated, not normal. Stage 1 hypertension begins at 130 to 139 systolic or 80 to 89 diastolic, and 140 over 90 or higher is stage 2. A reading around 90 over 50 is low and may represent hypotension in a symptomatic patient.

A technician takes an oral temperature and records 98.6°F. Which statement about this reading is correct?

• a.It is the accepted normal average oral body temperature✓
• b.Oral temperature is always 1 degree higher than rectal
• c.It is below normal and suggests hypothermia
• d.It indicates a low-grade fever

98.6°F (37°C) is the accepted average normal oral body temperature. Rectal temperatures typically run about 1°F higher than oral, and axillary temperatures run about 1°F lower. A fever is generally defined as an oral temperature of 100.4°F or higher.

A technician is checking a patient for orthostatic hypotension. After measuring blood pressure while the patient is lying down, what is the correct next step?

• a.Measure the pulse only and not the blood pressure
• b.Wait 30 minutes before taking the next reading
• c.Have the patient stand and re-measure pressure and pulse✓
• d.Give the patient fluids before any further readings

Orthostatic, or postural, vital signs are taken with the patient lying down, then repeated after the patient sits or stands, and both the blood pressure and the pulse are recorded at each position. A drop of 20 mm Hg systolic or 10 mm Hg diastolic, or a rise in pulse of about 20 beats per minute, suggests orthostatic hypotension. Recording only the pulse loses the measurement the test is built around, and waiting half an hour lets the pressure re-equilibrate so the change is missed. Fluids are a treatment decision, not part of taking the readings. Guard the patient against falling during the position change.

A pulse oximeter reads 97% on room air for a stable adult. How should the technician interpret this value?

• a.Normal only for patients receiving oxygen
• b.Abnormally high, remove the sensor
• c.Within the normal range of 95-100%✓
• d.Critically low, apply oxygen immediately

A normal oxygen saturation (SpO2) for a healthy adult on room air is 95% to 100%. Readings below 90% generally indicate hypoxemia and require prompt attention. Cold fingers, nail polish, and poor perfusion can produce falsely low readings.

A patient with difficulty breathing is most likely to be positioned in which way to ease respiration?

• a.Trendelenburg, with the head positioned lower than the feet and hips
• b.High-Fowler's, with the head of the bed at 60 to 90 degrees✓
• c.Prone, with the face turned to one side and the arms down
• d.Flat supine with no pillow under the head or the knees

High-Fowler's position raises the head of the bed to roughly 60 to 90 degrees, which lets the diaphragm drop and the lungs expand, easing the work of breathing. Semi-Fowler's, at about 30 to 45 degrees, is the milder version of the same idea. Lying flat, prone, or in Trendelenburg pushes the abdominal contents against the diaphragm and makes dyspnea worse.

Before transferring a weak but weight-bearing patient from bed to a wheelchair, the technician applies a gait belt. Where should the belt be positioned?

• a.Loosely fastened around the neck and both shoulders
• b.High under the armpits and across the chest
• c.Around the patient's thighs, just above both knees
• d.Snugly around the patient's waist over clothing✓

A gait belt, also called a transfer belt, goes snugly around the patient's waist over clothing so the technician can grasp it with an underhand grip and control the transfer. Placing it under the arms puts the lifting force on the rib cage and shoulder joints, and around the neck it can strangle. A belt around the thighs gives no control over the trunk, which is where the patient's balance is lost. Clothing under the belt protects the skin.

A technician is assisting a patient to ambulate with a cane. On which side should the patient hold the cane?

• a.In whichever hand feels most comfortable
• b.Directly in front of the body, centered
• c.On the weaker side, next to the weak leg
• d.On the stronger side, opposite the weak leg✓

A cane is held on the strong side of the body, opposite the affected leg, and the cane and the weak leg move forward together so that support arrives at the same moment the weak leg takes weight. Holding it on the weak side crowds the leg it is meant to help and narrows the base of support. Holding it in front or in whichever hand feels natural gives no consistent support and is a common cause of falls.

When providing oral care to an unconscious patient, which action best prevents aspiration?

• a.Lay the patient flat on the back during care
• b.Pour a full cup of water into the mouth to rinse
• c.Position the patient side-lying with the head turned✓
• d.Use large amounts of toothpaste and foam

An unconscious patient cannot protect the airway, so oral care is given side-lying with the head turned to the side, which lets fluid drain out of the mouth instead of pooling in the throat. Only small amounts of moisture are used, with suction available. Lying flat pools fluid at the back of the throat, and flooding the mouth with water or foam gives the patient more to aspirate rather than less.

When performing perineal care on a female patient, in which direction should the technician cleanse?

• a.From side to side repeatedly with the same cloth
• b.From back to front, toward the urethra
• c.In a circular scrubbing motion
• d.From front to back, away from the urethra✓

Perineal care on a female patient is performed front to back, moving away from the urethra toward the rectum. This prevents transferring bacteria from the anal area to the urethra, reducing the risk of urinary tract infection. A clean section of the washcloth is used with each stroke.

A technician is measuring fluid intake and output (I&O). Which of the following is counted as output?

• a.Urine and emesis (vomit)✓
• b.Intravenous fluids infused
• c.Gelatin eaten at lunch
• d.Water consumed with medications

Output includes measurable fluids leaving the body such as urine, emesis, liquid stool, and wound drainage. Intake includes oral fluids, IV fluids, and foods that are liquid at room temperature like gelatin and ice cream. Accurate I&O helps monitor a patient's fluid balance.

A patient drank 240 mL of juice, 120 mL of water, and a 180 mL cup of broth. What is the total recorded intake?

• a.360 mL
• b.600 mL
• c.420 mL
• d.540 mL✓

Adding the fluids: 240 + 120 + 180 = 540 mL. Broth is a liquid and is counted as intake. Accurate addition of all consumed fluids is essential for reliable I&O documentation.

To reduce the risk of catheter-associated urinary tract infection, how should the technician position the urinary drainage bag?

• a.Below the level of the bladder at all times✓
• b.On the bed beside the patient's legs
• c.Hooked to the movable upper side rail
• d.Level with the bladder on the bed frame

The drainage bag is kept below the level of the bladder at all times so urine flows away by gravity and cannot run back into the bladder, which is how bacteria are carried upward. Hanging it level with the bladder stops the downhill flow, and hooking it to a movable side rail means the bag rises above the bladder every time the rail goes up. Putting the bag on the bed places it above bladder level and on a contaminated surface. The bag must also never touch the floor, and the tubing is kept free of kinks.

A bedbound patient is at risk for pressure injuries. How often should the technician typically reposition the patient?

• a.Only when the patient asks
• b.Once per shift
• c.At least every 2 hours✓
• d.Every 6 hours

Repositioning an immobile patient at least every 2 hours relieves prolonged pressure over bony prominences and helps prevent pressure injuries. A turning schedule and pressure-relieving surfaces support skin integrity. Frequently at-risk areas include the sacrum, heels, and hips.

A technician notices an area of intact skin over the sacrum that is reddened and does not blanch (turn white) when pressed. This finding is most consistent with which stage of pressure injury?

• a.Stage 1✓
• b.Unstageable
• c.Stage 4
• d.Stage 3

A Stage 1 pressure injury is intact skin with non-blanchable redness, usually over a bony prominence. In darker skin, it may appear as a change in color or temperature rather than redness. It should be reported and pressure relieved immediately to prevent progression.

While assisting with a dressing change, a technician observes that the patient's wound has increased redness, warmth, swelling, and yellow-green drainage with odor. What is the most appropriate action?

• a.Cover it and say nothing, since drainage is expected
• b.Report the findings to the nurse as possible infection✓
• c.Apply a warm heating pad to the area for comfort
• d.Cleanse the wound with alcohol independently

Increased redness, warmth, swelling, purulent yellow-green drainage, and odor together are classic signs of a wound infection, and the technician reports them promptly to the nurse. Some drainage can be expected from some wounds, which is what makes the do-nothing answer tempting, but purulent drainage with odor and spreading warmth is not the expected kind. Assessing a wound, applying heat, and choosing a cleansing agent are all outside the technician's scope.

Restorative care focuses primarily on which goal for the patient?

• a.Helping the patient regain the highest possible independence✓
• b.Completing every task for the patient so that the unit saves time
• c.Discouraging self-care so that the patient avoids fatigue
• d.Keeping the patient in bed to prevent any risk of injury

Restorative care aims at restoring and maintaining function, mobility, and dignity by having the patient do as much as they safely can for themselves. Doing everything for a capable patient is faster in the moment and is the answer that feels kind, but it produces dependence and deconditioning. Bed rest and discouraged self-care accelerate the same decline, costing muscle strength and balance within days.

A technician performs passive range-of-motion (ROM) exercises on a patient who cannot move a joint independently. What defines this type of exercise?

• a.The technician moves the joint through its normal range✓
• b.Weights are added to the joint to increase resistance
• c.The patient moves the joint without any assistance
• d.The joint is moved quickly past the resistance point

Passive range of motion means the technician moves the patient's joint through its normal range because the patient cannot do it independently. The movements are slow and gentle and stop at the point of pain or resistance, which is what prevents injury to a joint that cannot signal well. A patient moving the joint alone is active range of motion, and adding resistance is strengthening exercise. Passive range of motion helps prevent contractures and maintains joint mobility.

When feeding a patient who has had a stroke with left-sided weakness, which action promotes safe swallowing?

• a.Have the patient lie down flat while eating and drinking slowly
• b.Tilt the head back so that the food goes down more easily
• c.Feed at a quick pace to finish before the patient gets tired
• d.Place food on the stronger side and sit the patient upright✓

Food is placed on the unaffected, stronger side of the mouth and the patient sits upright at about 90 degrees, which reduces pocketing of food in the weak cheek and lowers aspiration risk. The chin is slightly tucked, not tilted back: tilting the head back opens the airway and makes aspiration more likely, even though it feels like it helps gravity. Eating flat is unsafe for the same reason, and rushing removes the time the patient needs to clear each bite.

Before assisting a patient into a tub bath, what is the safest water temperature range?

• a.About 80-85°F (cool)
• b.Whatever temperature the patient prefers, without checking
• c.About 100-105°F (comfortably warm)✓
• d.About 120-130°F (very warm)

Bath water should be about 100 to 105°F, comfortably warm but not hot enough to burn fragile skin. The technician should always check the temperature with a thermometer or the inner wrist before the patient enters. Older adults and those with reduced sensation are especially vulnerable to scald burns.

When making an occupied bed, which action best protects the technician's back and the patient's safety?

• a.Raise the bed to hip height and keep the far rail raised✓
• b.Lower the bed fully and bend at the waist to work
• c.Work alone no matter how large the patient is
• d.Keep the far side rail lowered while turning

Raising the bed to about hip height lets the technician work with a straight back instead of bending, and keeping the far side rail up stops the patient from rolling off the far edge during the turn. The bed is returned to its lowest position once care is finished. Working at a low bed forces sustained forward flexion, which is how back injuries happen, and turning a patient toward a lowered rail removes the only barrier on that side.

Where is the apical pulse best auscultated with a stethoscope?

• a.Fifth intercostal space, left midclavicular line✓
• b.At the wrist, on the thumb side of the forearm
• c.Over the carotid artery in the neck
• d.At the antecubital fossa of the inner arm

The apical pulse is heard over the apex of the heart at the fifth intercostal space in the left midclavicular line, and it is counted with a stethoscope for a full 60 seconds. It is the most accurate site when the rhythm is irregular, because irregular beats that are too weak to reach the wrist are still heard at the chest. The radial site at the wrist, the carotid in the neck, and the brachial site at the antecubital fossa are palpated or used for blood pressure rather than for an apical count.

A technician palpates a patient's radial pulse and notes it is regular. For how long may the pulse be counted, and what is done with the result?

• a.Count for 15 seconds and multiply by 3
• b.Count for 30 seconds and multiply by 2✓
• c.Count for 10 seconds and multiply by 4
• d.Estimate without counting

A regular radial pulse may be counted for 30 seconds and multiplied by 2 to obtain the rate per minute. If the pulse is irregular, it must be counted for a full 60 seconds for accuracy. The radial pulse is palpated with the fingertips, never the thumb, which has its own pulse.

A patient states they feel dizzy and unsteady while walking in the hallway. What should the technician do first?

• a.Have the patient bend forward and keep moving
• b.Leave the patient to go and get the nurse
• c.Tell the patient to keep walking to the room
• d.Ease the patient to the floor or a chair and stay✓

A patient who becomes dizzy while walking is eased to the floor or into a nearby chair, using the gait belt and protecting the head, and the technician stays with the patient and calls for help. Trying to hold a falling adult fully upright injures both people. Leaving an unsteady patient alone to fetch help is the answer that sounds responsible and is the one that produces an unwitnessed fall.

The Sims' position is most commonly used for which purpose?

• a.Administering an enema or rectal care✓
• b.Measuring blood pressure accurately
• c.Feeding a patient an entire meal
• d.Promoting maximal lung expansion

Sims' position is a left side-lying position with the upper knee flexed toward the chest, used for enemas, rectal examinations, and rectal care, because it gives access to the rectal area and follows the natural curve of the sigmoid colon. Lung expansion is promoted by Fowler's positions, and a patient is fed sitting upright. Pillows are used to support the upper arm and leg so the patient stays comfortable and aligned.

A patient lying flat on the back facing upward is in which position?

• a.Fowler's
• b.Lateral
• c.Supine✓
• d.Prone

Supine is lying flat on the back facing upward. Prone is lying on the abdomen facing downward, and lateral is side-lying. Knowing standard positioning terms ensures clear communication and correct patient care.

When a patient is in the lateral (side-lying) position, which bony areas require padding to prevent pressure injuries?

• a.The greater trochanter, the shoulder, and the ankles✓
• b.The abdomen and the entire front surface of the chest wall
• c.The sacrum, the heels, and the back of the head and ears
• d.The elbows and the back of the head alone

Side-lying puts the body weight on the greater trochanter of the hip, the shoulder, the ear, and the ankles, so those are the points that need padding. The sacrum, heels, and back of the head are the pressure points of the supine position, which is why that answer is close but describes a different position. Pillows placed between the knees and behind the back hold the alignment and take load off the bony points.

A patient with dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) is about to eat. Which position best reduces the risk of aspiration during and after the meal?

• a.Lying flat on the back with the head turned to one side
• b.Upright at 90 degrees, and upright 30 minutes after✓
• c.Reclined at about 30 degrees throughout the entire meal
• d.Lying on the left side during and after the whole meal

A patient with dysphagia sits fully upright at about 90 degrees to eat and stays upright for at least 30 minutes afterward, so gravity carries food and fluid down and reflux does not reach the airway. Reclining part way is the near-miss: it is better than flat but still allows pooling and reflux in a patient who cannot protect the airway. Thickened liquids, small bites, and a slow pace may also be ordered by the care team.

A patient drank 4 ounces of water. How many milliliters should the technician record, knowing that 1 ounce equals approximately 30 mL?

• a.90 mL
• b.60 mL
• c.40 mL
• d.120 mL✓

Multiplying 4 ounces by 30 mL per ounce gives 120 mL. Converting household measures to milliliters ensures consistent I&O documentation. One ounce is roughly 30 mL, one cup (8 oz) is about 240 mL.

A patient's chart states 'NPO after midnight' for a scheduled procedure. In the morning the patient asks for water. What should the technician do?

• a.Offer ice chips freely, because ice is not counted as fluid
• b.Provide the full breakfast tray, since the patient is hungry
• c.Withhold food and fluids and tell the nurse of the request✓
• d.Give a small glass of water, because water is not really food

NPO means nothing by mouth, and that includes water and ice chips, which melt into fluid in the stomach exactly like a drink. The technician explains the reason kindly and tells the nurse that the patient is asking, so the team can decide whether anything may be given. Giving fluid can force the procedure to be cancelled or, under anesthesia, cause aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs.

A patient reports constipation. Which intervention, within the technician's role, generally supports normal bowel elimination?

• a.Discourage movement until the constipation resolves
• b.Encourage fluids, fiber, and activity as allowed✓
• c.Restrict all oral fluids until the bowel moves again
• d.Encourage prolonged bed rest until the problem resolves

Adequate fluid intake, fiber-rich foods, and as much activity as the patient is allowed all promote normal bowel function, and all three are within the technician's role. Immobility and dehydration are two of the most common causes of constipation in a hospitalized patient, so restricting fluids or enforcing rest makes the problem worse. Laxatives and enemas require an order and are given per facility policy.

To obtain the most accurate and consistent daily weight for a patient, the technician should weigh them:

• a.At the same time daily, before breakfast, similar clothing✓
• b.At different times each day, whenever the unit happens to be quiet
• c.Only when the patient reports feeling bloated or newly swollen
• d.Immediately after the patient finishes drinking fluids

Daily weights are taken at the same time each day, usually in the morning before breakfast, on the same scale and in similar clothing, and the patient voids first when possible. That consistency is the whole point: a two-pound change only means something if nothing else changed. Weighing at scattered times, or right after a drink, buries a real trend under normal daily variation, and weighing only when the patient feels swollen produces no trend at all.

Before ambulating a patient who has been on bed rest, the technician has the patient sit on the edge of the bed and dangle the legs for a few minutes. What is the main purpose of dangling?

• a.To count the patient’s respiratory rate before standing up
• b.To measure the patient’s leg strength before walking
• c.To give the patient’s feet time to warm up first
• d.To let the body adjust and avoid a dizzy spell✓

Dangling lets the patient sit with the legs over the side of the bed so the cardiovascular system can adjust to being upright, which is what prevents the orthostatic drop in pressure that causes dizziness and falls. The technician uses the time to ask about lightheadedness and to watch the patient's color before assisting to stand. Checking leg strength is a reasonable thing to notice but is not why the patient dangles, and respirations and warmth are not the purpose at all.

According to CDC guidance, which practice is considered the single most effective way to prevent the spread of infection in healthcare settings?

• a.Using a face mask during all care
• b.Performing proper hand hygiene✓
• c.Wearing a gown for every patient
• d.Wearing gloves at all times

Hand hygiene is recognized by the CDC as the single most effective measure to prevent the spread of healthcare-associated infections. It should be performed before and after patient contact, after glove removal, and after touching contaminated surfaces. Gloves and gowns supplement, but never replace, hand hygiene.CDC

A technician has cared for a patient with Clostridioides difficile (C. diff), whose spores are not killed by alcohol. What is the correct hand hygiene method after this care?

• a.A quick water rinse
• b.No hand hygiene is needed if gloves were worn
• c.Alcohol-based hand rub only
• d.Wash hands with soap and running water✓

C. diff spores are resistant to alcohol-based hand rubs, so hands must be washed with soap and running water to physically remove them. The friction and rinsing action mechanically removes spores that alcohol cannot destroy. Alcohol rubs are appropriate for most other organisms when hands are not visibly soiled.CDC

Standard precautions are applied to which patients?

• a.Only patients known to have an infection
• b.Only patients who are actively bleeding
• c.Only patients placed in isolation rooms
• d.All patients, regardless of diagnosis or status✓

Standard precautions are used for every patient at all times, because a patient who is infectious is often not yet known to be. They treat blood and all body fluids as potentially infectious and include hand hygiene, appropriate personal protective equipment, and safe handling of sharps and contaminated equipment. Transmission-based precautions, including isolation, are added on top for specific known or suspected infections.CDC

A patient is placed on contact precautions for a multidrug-resistant organism. What PPE should the technician don before entering the room to provide direct care?

• a.Surgical mask and goggles only
• b.No PPE is required
• c.Gown and gloves✓
• d.N95 respirator only

Contact precautions require a gown and gloves for direct patient contact or contact with the patient's environment. This prevents transfer of organisms spread by touch, such as MRSA and VRE. Dedicated or disposable equipment is also used and cleaned between patients.CDC

Droplet precautions are used for organisms spread by respiratory droplets. How far do these large droplets typically travel?

• a.Roughly 20 feet, carried on air currents
• b.Roughly 30 feet, throughout the room
• c.They stay suspended and travel building-wide
• d.Roughly 3 to 6 feet before falling✓

Large respiratory droplets are heavy enough that gravity pulls them out of the air within about 3 to 6 feet, which is why droplet precautions call for a surgical mask when working within that distance of the patient. Influenza and pertussis are the standard examples. The longer distances describe airborne transmission, where droplet nuclei are small enough to stay suspended and travel on air currents through a room or a ventilation system, and those organisms need an N95 respirator and a negative-pressure room instead.CDC

A technician must enter the room of a patient with active pulmonary tuberculosis, which spreads by airborne transmission. Which respiratory protection is required?

• a.No mask if staying near the door
• b.A standard surgical procedure mask
• c.A fit-tested N95 respirator or higher✓
• d.A cloth face covering worn snugly

Airborne precautions for tuberculosis require a fit-tested N95 or higher-level respirator, because the infectious particles are small enough to stay suspended in the room air and travel on air currents. A surgical mask is designed to catch large droplets and to protect the patient from the wearer, so it does not filter these particles; a cloth covering does even less. The patient is also placed in an airborne infection isolation room with the door kept closed, and distance from the patient does not substitute for a respirator.CDC

What is the correct sequence for donning (putting on) personal protective equipment?

• a.Mask or respirator, then gown, goggles, gloves
• b.Gown, mask or respirator, goggles, gloves✓
• c.Gown, gloves, then mask and goggles last
• d.Goggles, gown, gloves, then mask last

The donning order is gown first, then mask or respirator, then goggles or face shield, and gloves last, so the gloves can be pulled over the gown cuffs and seal them. Any order that puts gloves on before the mask and eye protection means touching the face with gloved hands, and any order that starts with the mask leaves the gown to be tied afterward over already-protected equipment. Doffing runs in a different order, with gloves removed first.CDC

When doffing (removing) PPE after patient care, which item is generally removed first?

• a.The goggles, before anything else
• b.The gown, with the gloves still on
• c.The mask or respirator, at the doorway
• d.The gloves, still at the bedside✓

Gloves come off first because they are the most contaminated item and everything they touch afterward becomes contaminated too. The usual sequence is gloves, then goggles or face shield, then gown, and the mask or respirator last, removed outside the room so the wearer is still protected while inside it. The gown-before-gloves answer is the near miss: gown and gloves may be peeled off together as one bundle, but the gown is not removed while gloved hands are still bare to the room. Hand hygiene follows immediately.CDC

Under the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard, what is the correct way to handle a contaminated needle after use?

• a.Place it in the regular trash can at the bedside
• b.Do not recap it; use the sharps container✓
• c.Bend the needle before placing it in the trash
• d.Recap it by hand and set it aside for later

The OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard prohibits recapping, bending, or breaking contaminated needles by hand and requires immediate disposal into a labeled, puncture-resistant, leak-proof sharps container. Most needlesticks happen in the seconds between use and disposal, which is why the needle goes straight into the container rather than onto a tray. Regular trash exposes housekeeping staff, and hand-recapping points the needle back at the technician's own fingers.OSHA 29 CFR 1910.1030

A sharps container is about three-quarters full. What is the appropriate action?

• a.Continue filling it until it overflows
• b.Empty it into the regular trash and reuse it
• c.Close and replace it before it becomes overfilled✓
• d.Push the contents down to make more room

Sharps containers should be replaced when they reach the fill line, generally about two-thirds to three-quarters full, and never overfilled. Overfilling increases the risk of needlestick injury when adding or removing items. Containers must never be emptied by hand or reused, per OSHA requirements.OSHA 29 CFR 1910.1030

Using proper body mechanics, how should a technician lift a heavy object from the floor?

• a.Keep the legs straight and twist the trunk while lifting
• b.Bend at the waist and lift with the back muscles
• c.Bend at the knees and hips and lift with the legs✓
• d.Hold the object away from the body while lifting

Proper lifting means bending at the knees and hips with the back straight and letting the strong leg muscles do the work, with the object held close to the body and the feet about shoulder-width apart for a stable base. Holding a load away from the body multiplies the force on the lower back even when the knees are bent, which is what makes that answer tempting and still wrong. Twisting while loaded is a common mechanism of back injury; the whole body is turned instead.

A technician enters a room and finds a patient's call light out of reach and the bed in a high position. Which action reduces this patient's fall risk?

• a.Leave the bed raised so that care access is easier
• b.Lower the bed and put the call light within reach✓
• c.Keep the room dimly lit throughout the day and night
• d.Remove the patient's non-slip footwear

Both problems in the scenario are fixed by the same action: the bed goes to its lowest position so a patient who does get up has a short distance to the floor, and the call light goes within reach so the patient can ask for help instead of climbing out. A raised bed is genuinely easier for staff to work at, which is why it is left up, and that is exactly the habit that causes falls when the room is left. Adequate lighting, non-slip footwear, and clear pathways are the rest of the fall-prevention package.

During a fire, the acronym RACE guides the response. What does RACE stand for?

• a.Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Evacuate in reverse order
• b.Report, Assist, Cover, Exit
• c.Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish✓
• d.Run, Alert, Contain, Escape

RACE stands for Rescue anyone in immediate danger, Alarm by activating the fire alarm and calling for help, Confine the fire by closing doors, and Extinguish the fire if small and safe or Evacuate. Following RACE provides an organized response that protects patients and staff. Staff should know the location of alarms and extinguishers.

When using a fire extinguisher, the acronym PASS is followed. What does PASS stand for?

• a.Point, Alarm, Squeeze, Stop
• b.Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep✓
• c.Pull, Alert, Spray, Signal
• d.Push, Aim, Slide, Sweep

PASS stands for Pull the pin, Aim at the base of the fire, Squeeze the handle, and Sweep from side to side. Aiming at the base rather than the flames targets the fuel source. This technique should be used only on small, contained fires when it is safe to do so.

A technician finds a patient unresponsive and not breathing. After ensuring scene safety, what is the immediate priority action?

• a.Offer the patient a sip of water and try to rouse him
• b.Activate the emergency response and start CPR✓
• c.Leave the room to document the finding before anything else
• d.Wait ten minutes to see whether the patient recovers alone

An unresponsive patient who is not breathing is in cardiac arrest until proven otherwise, so the emergency response system is activated at once and CPR is started if the technician is trained and it is within scope. Survival falls with every minute without compressions. Nothing is given by mouth to an unresponsive patient, and leaving to document or waiting to see what happens spends the only minutes that matter.

A confused patient keeps trying to climb out of bed. According to safe practice, restraints should be:

• a.Used as a last resort, with a provider's order✓
• b.Applied whenever the unit happens to be short of staff
• c.Applied right away for any confused patient
• d.Tied to the movable side rail for quick release

Restraints are a last resort used only after less restrictive alternatives such as a bed alarm, closer observation, and frequent toileting have been tried, and they require a provider's order. They are never applied for staff convenience or as discipline, and confusion alone is not an indication. When one is used it is secured to the non-movable part of the bed frame with a quick-release knot, because a restraint tied to a side rail is pulled and tightened every time the rail is raised or lowered.