CSLB General Building (B) — All Questions

A patient care technician counts a resting adult patient's radial pulse and gets 78 beats per minute. How should this finding be classified?

• a.Bradycardia requiring immediate provider notification
• b.Tachycardia requiring immediate provider notification
• c.Within the normal adult range of 60-100 beats per minute✓
• d.Below normal, indicating possible shock

The normal resting heart rate for an adult is 60 to 100 beats per minute, so 78 bpm is normal. Bradycardia is a rate below 60 bpm and tachycardia is a rate above 100 bpm. No urgent notification is needed for a normal reading.

What is the normal respiratory rate range for a resting adult?

• a.6 to 10 breaths per minute
• b.12 to 20 breaths per minute✓
• c.24 to 30 breaths per minute
• d.30 to 40 breaths per minute

A normal adult resting respiratory rate is 12 to 20 breaths per minute. Rates below 12 indicate bradypnea and rates above 20 indicate tachypnea. Count respirations for a full minute for the most accurate result when the rate is irregular.

According to widely accepted guidelines, a normal adult blood pressure reading is closest to which value?

• a.Less than 120/80 mmHg✓
• b.140/90 mmHg
• c.160/100 mmHg
• d.90/50 mmHg

A normal adult blood pressure is a systolic reading below 120 mmHg and a diastolic reading below 80 mmHg. Readings of 130/80 mmHg or higher are classified as hypertension. Consistently low readings such as 90/50 may indicate hypotension.

A technician takes an oral temperature and records 98.6°F. Which statement about this reading is correct?

• a.It indicates a low-grade fever
• b.It is below normal and suggests hypothermia
• c.Oral temperature is always 1 degree higher than rectal
• d.It is the accepted normal average oral body temperature✓

98.6°F (37°C) is the accepted average normal oral body temperature. Rectal temperatures typically run about 1°F higher than oral, and axillary temperatures run about 1°F lower. A fever is generally defined as an oral temperature of 100.4°F or higher.

A technician is checking a patient for orthostatic hypotension. After measuring blood pressure while the patient is lying down, what is the correct next step?

• a.Measure the pulse only, not the pressure
• b.Have the patient stand or sit and re-measure blood pressure and pulse✓
• c.Give the patient fluids before any further readings
• d.Wait 30 minutes before the next reading

Orthostatic (postural) vital signs are taken by measuring blood pressure and pulse in the lying position, then again after the patient sits or stands. A drop of 20 mmHg systolic or 10 mmHg diastolic, or a rise in pulse of 20 bpm, suggests orthostatic hypotension. Guard the patient against falling during the position change.

A pulse oximeter reads 97% on room air for a stable adult. How should the technician interpret this value?

• a.Critically low, apply oxygen immediately
• b.Abnormally high, remove the sensor
• c.Within the normal range of 95-100%✓
• d.Normal only for patients receiving oxygen

A normal oxygen saturation (SpO2) for a healthy adult on room air is 95% to 100%. Readings below 90% generally indicate hypoxemia and require prompt attention. Cold fingers, nail polish, and poor perfusion can produce falsely low readings.

A patient with difficulty breathing is most likely to be positioned in which way to ease respiration?

• a.High-Fowler's position with the head of the bed raised 60-90 degrees✓
• b.Flat supine with no pillow
• c.Prone with the face turned to the side
• d.Trendelenburg with the head lower than the feet

High-Fowler's position raises the head of the bed 60 to 90 degrees, which allows the diaphragm to drop and the lungs to expand, easing breathing. Lying flat or in Trendelenburg increases pressure on the diaphragm and worsens dyspnea. Semi-Fowler's (30-45 degrees) is a milder alternative.

Before transferring a weak but weight-bearing patient from bed to a wheelchair, the technician applies a gait belt. Where should the belt be positioned?

• a.Loosely around the neck
• b.High under the armpits
• c.Snugly around the patient's waist over clothing✓
• d.Around the patient's thighs

A gait belt (transfer belt) is applied snugly around the patient's waist over clothing so the technician can grasp it and control the transfer. It should never be placed under the arms or around the neck, which can cause injury. The technician grasps the belt with an underhand grip during the transfer.

A technician is assisting a patient to ambulate with a cane. On which side should the patient hold the cane?

• a.On the weaker side
• b.In whichever hand feels comfortable
• c.Directly in front of the body
• d.On the stronger side, opposite the weak leg✓

A cane is held on the strong side of the body, opposite the affected or weaker leg. The cane and the weak leg move forward together, providing support to the injured side. This creates a wider, more stable base of support during walking.

When providing oral care to an unconscious patient, which action best prevents aspiration?

• a.Pour a full cup of water into the mouth to rinse
• b.Position the patient in a side-lying position with the head turned to the side✓
• c.Lay the patient flat on the back during care
• d.Use large amounts of toothpaste and foam

An unconscious patient cannot protect the airway, so oral care is given with the patient in a side-lying position with the head turned to the side. This allows fluids to drain out of the mouth rather than pooling in the throat. Use only small amounts of moisture and suction as needed to prevent aspiration.

When performing perineal care on a female patient, in which direction should the technician cleanse?

• a.From front to back, away from the urethra✓
• b.From back to front, toward the urethra
• c.In a circular scrubbing motion
• d.From side to side repeatedly with the same cloth

Perineal care on a female patient is performed front to back, moving away from the urethra toward the rectum. This prevents transferring bacteria from the anal area to the urethra, reducing the risk of urinary tract infection. A clean section of the washcloth is used with each stroke.

A technician is measuring fluid intake and output (I&O). Which of the following is counted as output?

• a.Gelatin eaten at lunch
• b.Water consumed with medications
• c.Intravenous fluids infused
• d.Urine and emesis (vomit)✓

Output includes measurable fluids leaving the body such as urine, emesis, liquid stool, and wound drainage. Intake includes oral fluids, IV fluids, and foods that are liquid at room temperature like gelatin and ice cream. Accurate I&O helps monitor a patient's fluid balance.

A patient drank 240 mL of juice, 120 mL of water, and a 180 mL cup of broth. What is the total recorded intake?

• a.360 mL
• b.420 mL
• c.540 mL✓
• d.600 mL

Adding the fluids: 240 + 120 + 180 = 540 mL. Broth is a liquid and is counted as intake. Accurate addition of all consumed fluids is essential for reliable I&O documentation.

To reduce the risk of catheter-associated urinary tract infection, how should the technician position the urinary drainage bag?

• a.On the bed next to the patient
• b.Below the level of the bladder at all times✓
• c.Hooked to the upper side rail
• d.At the same height as the bladder

The urinary drainage bag is kept below the level of the bladder so urine flows down and away by gravity, preventing backflow into the bladder. The bag should never touch the floor or be raised above the bladder. Keeping the tubing free of kinks also promotes proper drainage.

A bedbound patient is at risk for pressure injuries. How often should the technician typically reposition the patient?

• a.Once per shift
• b.Every 6 hours
• c.At least every 2 hours✓
• d.Only when the patient asks

Repositioning an immobile patient at least every 2 hours relieves prolonged pressure over bony prominences and helps prevent pressure injuries. A turning schedule and pressure-relieving surfaces support skin integrity. Frequently at-risk areas include the sacrum, heels, and hips.

A technician notices an area of intact skin over the sacrum that is reddened and does not blanch (turn white) when pressed. This finding is most consistent with which stage of pressure injury?

• a.Stage 1✓
• b.Stage 3
• c.Stage 4
• d.Unstageable

A Stage 1 pressure injury is intact skin with non-blanchable redness, usually over a bony prominence. In darker skin, it may appear as a change in color or temperature rather than redness. It should be reported and pressure relieved immediately to prevent progression.

While assisting with a dressing change, a technician observes that the patient's wound has increased redness, warmth, swelling, and yellow-green drainage with odor. What is the most appropriate action?

• a.Cover it and say nothing since drainage is expected
• b.Cleanse the wound with alcohol independently
• c.Apply a heating pad to the area
• d.Report the findings to the nurse, as they suggest possible infection✓

Increased redness, warmth, swelling, purulent (yellow-green) drainage, and odor are classic signs of a wound infection. The technician should report these observations promptly to the nurse for assessment. Wound assessment and treatment decisions are outside the technician's scope of practice.

Restorative care focuses primarily on which goal for the patient?

• a.Completing all tasks for the patient to save time
• b.Helping the patient regain and maintain the highest possible level of independence✓
• c.Keeping the patient in bed to prevent injury
• d.Discouraging self-care to avoid fatigue

Restorative care promotes the patient's independence and self-care by encouraging them to do as much as they safely can. The goal is to restore or maintain function, mobility, and dignity. Doing everything for a capable patient promotes dependence and deconditioning.

A technician performs passive range-of-motion (ROM) exercises on a patient who cannot move a joint independently. What defines this type of exercise?

• a.The patient moves the joint without any help
• b.The joint is moved rapidly past the point of resistance
• c.The technician moves the joint for the patient through its normal range✓
• d.Weights are added to increase resistance

Passive ROM is performed by the technician moving the patient's joint through its normal range because the patient cannot do so independently. The movements are slow, gentle, and stopped at the point of pain or resistance. Passive ROM helps prevent contractures and maintains joint mobility.

When feeding a patient who has had a stroke with left-sided weakness, which action promotes safe swallowing?

• a.Place food on the stronger (right) side of the mouth and keep the patient sitting upright✓
• b.Feed rapidly to finish before the patient tires
• c.Have the patient lie flat while eating
• d.Tilt the head back to help food go down

Placing food on the unaffected (stronger) side of the mouth and keeping the patient upright at 90 degrees reduces pocketing of food and lowers aspiration risk. The patient should be given time to chew and swallow, and the chin should be slightly tucked, not tilted back. Tilting the head back opens the airway and increases aspiration risk.

Before assisting a patient into a tub bath, what is the safest water temperature range?

• a.About 120-130°F (very warm)
• b.About 100-105°F (comfortably warm)✓
• c.About 80-85°F (cool)
• d.Whatever temperature the patient prefers, without checking

Bath water should be about 100 to 105°F, comfortably warm but not hot enough to burn fragile skin. The technician should always check the temperature with a thermometer or the inner wrist before the patient enters. Older adults and those with reduced sensation are especially vulnerable to scald burns.

When making an occupied bed, which action best protects the technician's back and the patient's safety?

• a.Lower the bed to its lowest position and bend at the waist
• b.Keep the far side rail down while turning the patient
• c.Work alone regardless of the patient's size
• d.Raise the bed to hip height and keep the far side rail up while turning the patient✓

Raising the bed to hip height lets the technician work without bending the back, using proper body mechanics. Keeping the far side rail up while turning the patient prevents the patient from rolling off the bed. The bed is returned to its lowest position when care is complete.

Where is the apical pulse best auscultated with a stethoscope?

• a.Over the carotid artery in the neck
• b.At the wrist on the thumb side
• c.At the fifth intercostal space, left midclavicular line✓
• d.At the antecubital fossa of the arm

The apical pulse is heard over the apex of the heart, located at the fifth intercostal space at the left midclavicular line. It is counted for a full 60 seconds and is the most accurate site for patients with irregular rhythms. The carotid and radial sites are palpated, not auscultated for apical rate.

A technician palpates a patient's radial pulse and notes it is regular. For how long may the pulse be counted, and what is done with the result?

• a.Count for 30 seconds and multiply by 2✓
• b.Count for 10 seconds and multiply by 4
• c.Count for 15 seconds and multiply by 3
• d.Estimate without counting

A regular radial pulse may be counted for 30 seconds and multiplied by 2 to obtain the rate per minute. If the pulse is irregular, it must be counted for a full 60 seconds for accuracy. The radial pulse is palpated with the fingertips, never the thumb, which has its own pulse.

A patient states they feel dizzy and unsteady while walking in the hallway. What should the technician do first?

• a.Tell the patient to keep walking to the room
• b.Ease the patient to the floor or a nearby chair and stay with them✓
• c.Leave to get the nurse immediately
• d.Have the patient bend forward and keep moving

If a patient becomes dizzy or begins to fall, the technician should ease them to the floor or into a nearby chair using the gait belt while protecting the head, then stay with the patient and call for help. Attempting to hold the patient fully upright risks injury to both. Never leave an unsteady patient unattended.

The Sims' position is most commonly used for which purpose?

• a.Feeding a patient a meal
• b.Measuring blood pressure
• c.Promoting lung expansion
• d.Administering an enema or rectal care✓

Sims' position is a left side-lying position with the upper knee flexed toward the chest, used for enemas, rectal examinations, and rectal care. It provides access to the rectal area and follows the natural curve of the colon. Proper support with pillows keeps the patient comfortable and safe.

A patient lying flat on the back facing upward is in which position?

• a.Supine✓
• b.Prone
• c.Lateral
• d.Fowler's

Supine is lying flat on the back facing upward. Prone is lying on the abdomen facing downward, and lateral is side-lying. Knowing standard positioning terms ensures clear communication and correct patient care.

When a patient is in the lateral (side-lying) position, which bony areas require padding to prevent pressure injuries?

• a.The sacrum and heels
• b.The back of the head only
• c.The hip (greater trochanter), shoulder, and ankles✓
• d.The abdomen and chest

In the lateral position, pressure concentrates on the hip (greater trochanter), shoulder, ear, and ankles, so these areas need padding and protection. The sacrum and heels are more at risk in the supine position. Pillows placed between the knees and behind the back maintain alignment and offload pressure.

A patient with dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) is about to eat. Which position best reduces the risk of aspiration during and after the meal?

• a.Reclined at 30 degrees
• b.Upright at 90 degrees, remaining upright for at least 30 minutes after eating✓
• c.Flat on the back
• d.Lying on the left side

A patient with dysphagia should sit fully upright at 90 degrees to eat and remain upright for at least 30 minutes afterward. This uses gravity to help food and fluids pass safely and prevents reflux and aspiration. Thickened liquids and small bites may also be ordered by the care team.

A patient drank 4 ounces of water. How many milliliters should the technician record, knowing that 1 ounce equals approximately 30 mL?

• a.40 mL
• b.60 mL
• c.90 mL
• d.120 mL✓

Multiplying 4 ounces by 30 mL per ounce gives 120 mL. Converting household measures to milliliters ensures consistent I&O documentation. One ounce is roughly 30 mL, one cup (8 oz) is about 240 mL.

A patient's chart states 'NPO after midnight' for a scheduled procedure. In the morning the patient asks for water. What should the technician do?

• a.Withhold food and fluids and explain the patient is NPO, then notify the nurse of the request✓
• b.Give a small glass of water since it is only water
• c.Offer ice chips freely
• d.Provide a full breakfast

NPO means nothing by mouth, so the patient must not receive food or fluids, including water and ice chips, until cleared. The technician should explain the reason kindly and inform the nurse of the patient's request. Giving fluids could force cancellation of the procedure or cause aspiration during anesthesia.

A patient reports constipation. Which intervention, within the technician's role, generally supports normal bowel elimination?

• a.Restricting all fluids
• b.Encouraging prolonged bed rest
• c.Encouraging fluids, fiber-rich foods, and activity as allowed✓
• d.Discouraging any movement

Adequate fluid intake, fiber-rich foods, and physical activity promote normal bowel function and help relieve constipation. Immobility and dehydration worsen constipation. Any laxatives or enemas require an order and are given per facility policy.

To obtain the most accurate and consistent daily weight for a patient, the technician should weigh them:

• a.At different times each day after meals
• b.At the same time each day, ideally before breakfast, wearing similar clothing✓
• c.Only when the patient feels bloated
• d.Immediately after the patient drinks fluids

Daily weights should be taken at the same time each day, usually in the morning before breakfast, using the same scale and similar clothing. This consistency makes changes meaningful for tracking fluid balance and nutritional status. The patient should void before weighing when possible.

Before ambulating a patient who has been on bed rest, the technician has the patient sit on the edge of the bed and dangle the legs for a few minutes. What is the main purpose of dangling?

• a.To allow the body to adjust and prevent dizziness from orthostatic hypotension✓
• b.To measure the patient's height
• c.To warm the patient's feet
• d.To count the respiratory rate

Dangling lets the patient sit upright with the legs over the side of the bed so the cardiovascular system can adjust to the upright position. This helps prevent orthostatic hypotension and dizziness that can cause a fall. The technician assesses for lightheadedness before assisting the patient to stand.