浏览所有题目

这些题目考的数字,按章节排在可打印的彩色高密度页面上: 速记册,$9.99 →

免费阅读完整 ServSafe Food Protection Manager 学习指南中的一章 →

查看每道题的答案和解析——可按主题或全部一起学习。

食源性疾病

67 道题
1. A line cook at a taquería leaves a pan of cooked carnitas on the counter at room temperature during a slow afternoon. Which range describes the Temperature Danger Zone where bacteria grow most rapidly?
a.50°F to 150°F
b.70°F to 125°F
c.32°F to 100°F
d.41°F to 135°F✓

The Temperature Danger Zone is 41°F to 135°F; bacteria multiply fastest between these limits, and growth is most rapid from 70°F to 125°F. Cold holding must stay at or below 41°F and hot holding at or above 135°F to keep food out of the zone. The other ranges are incorrect because they do not match the Food Code limits.

2. What is the maximum temperature at which cold TCS food may be held to keep it safe?
a.45°F
b.41°F✓
c.38°F
d.50°F

Cold TCS (Time/Temperature Control for Safety) food must be held at 41°F or below. At 45°F or 50°F the food is inside the danger zone and pathogens can grow. 38°F is safe but is not the maximum allowed limit the question asks for.

FDA Food Code §3-501.16
3. A cook holds a pot of chicken tortilla soup on the steam table. What is the minimum hot-holding temperature required?
a.145°F
b.125°F
c.155°F
d.135°F✓

Hot TCS food must be held at 135°F or above. 125°F is inside the danger zone and unsafe. 145°F and 155°F are cooking temperatures for certain foods, not the minimum hot-holding requirement.

FDA Food Code §3-501.16
4. A manager reheats a pan of leftover rice and beans that was properly cooled. To what internal temperature must it be reheated, and within what time?
a.135°F within 2 hours
b.155°F within 2 hours
c.145°F within 4 hours
d.165°F within 2 hours✓

TCS food reheated for hot holding must reach 165°F for 15 seconds within 2 hours. Reaching only 135°F, 145°F, or 155°F would not destroy pathogens that may have grown, and taking longer than 2 hours keeps food in the danger zone too long.

FDA Food Code §3-403.11
5. What is the minimum internal cooking temperature and hold time for chicken, turkey, and other poultry?
a.175°F for 10 seconds (stuffing)
b.165°F for <1 second (instantaneous)✓
c.145°F for 15 seconds, chicken
d.155°F for 17 seconds, turkey

Poultry is cooked to 165°F for <1 second (instantaneous) — chicken, turkey, duck, every cut light or dark — because poultry commonly carries Salmonella and Campylobacter. 145°F for 15 seconds is the whole-cut and seafood rule, so it is wrong for chicken, and 155°F for 17 seconds is the ground-meat rule, so it is wrong for turkey. Stuffing cooked inside a bird also takes 165°F, not 175°F for 10 seconds, which is not a Food Code standard at all.

FDA Food Code §3-401.11
6. A cook is grilling beef hamburger patties for lunch service. What is the minimum internal temperature and time for ground beef?
a.145°F for 15 seconds
b.155°F for 17 seconds✓
c.135°F for 17 seconds
d.165°F for 15 seconds

Ground meat such as hamburger must reach 155°F for 17 seconds because grinding spreads surface bacteria throughout the patty. Whole cuts only need 145°F since bacteria stay on the surface, and 165°F is for poultry.

FDA Food Code §3-401.11
7. A customer orders a grilled salmon fillet and a medium steak. What is the minimum internal cooking temperature for whole seafood and steaks?
a.155°F for 17 seconds
b.135°F for 15 seconds
c.145°F for 15 seconds✓
d.165°F for 15 seconds

Whole muscle seafood, steaks, chops, and shell eggs cooked for immediate service require 145°F for 15 seconds. 155°F applies to ground meat, and 165°F to poultry; 135°F is a holding temperature, not a cooking temperature.

FDA Food Code §3-401.11
8. The acronym FAT TOM describes the six conditions bacteria need to grow. What do the letters stand for?
a.Fat, Acidity, Temperature, Time, Oxygen, Moisture
b.Fat, Acidity, Time, Texture, Oxygen, Micronutrients
c.Food, Acidity, Temperature, Time, Oxygen, Moisture✓
d.Food, Air, Time, Temperature, Oxygen, Minerals

FAT TOM stands for Food, Acidity, Temperature, Time, Oxygen, and Moisture — the six conditions pathogens need, so removing even one slows growth. Temperature and time are the two a manager can actually control. Each wrong option swaps a real letter for a look-alike: Fat for Food, Texture for Temperature, Micronutrients or Minerals for Moisture, and Air for Acidity.

9. Which of the following is a TCS (Time/Temperature Control for Safety) food that requires strict temperature control?
a.Sealed honey bottle
b.Whole uncut fresh lemons
c.Cut cantaloupe melon✓
d.Dry white rice (uncooked)

Cut cantaloupe is a TCS food: cutting the melon exposes moist, low-acid flesh where bacteria grow, so the pieces must be held at 41°F or below. Whole fresh lemons stay far too acidic to support growth while the rind is intact, dry uncooked rice has too little water activity, and a sealed bottle of honey is shelf-stable for the same reason. Rice becomes TCS only after it is cooked and hydrated.

10. A guest becomes ill after eating raw oysters and reports jaundice weeks later. Which of the Big 6 pathogens is a virus most associated with contaminated shellfish and infected food handlers?
a.Shigella spp.
b.Hepatitis A✓
c.S. Typhimurium
d.STEC strains

Hepatitis A is the only virus among the four, and it is the Big 6 virus linked to raw or undercooked shellfish and to infected food handlers with poor handwashing; jaundice appearing weeks later fits its long incubation. Shigella, Salmonella Typhimurium (a nontyphoidal Salmonella) and STEC strains such as E. coli O157:H7 are Big 6 pathogens too, but all three are bacteria — the deciding word in the stem is 'virus'.

11. Norovirus outbreaks spread rapidly in restaurants. What is the most effective way for a manager to prevent Norovirus transmission from staff?
a.Rely on alcohol hand sanitizer at each station instead of soap-and-water washing
b.Exclude ill staff and enforce proper handwashing with no bare-hand contact with ready-to-eat food✓
c.Cook every menu item to 135°F for 15 seconds and treat that as the Norovirus kill step
d.Freeze ready-to-eat food at 0°F for 24 hours to inactivate the virus before service

Norovirus is extremely contagious and travels by the fecal-oral route, so the controls that work are excluding sick employees and enforcing handwashing plus no bare-hand contact with ready-to-eat food. Alcohol hand sanitizer does not inactivate Norovirus and may never be substituted for washing. Freezing does not kill it either, so 0°F storage only preserves it. And 135°F is the hot-holding minimum, not a cook temperature and not a kill step for a virus.

12. A prep cook slices deli meat and then handles lettuce for salads without washing hands. Nontyphoidal Salmonella is most commonly associated with which foods?
a.Dry pasta, flour, sugar, and salt
b.Vinegar, pickles, and jam
c.Bottled water, bagged ice
d.Poultry, eggs, and produce✓

Nontyphoidal Salmonella is most commonly carried by poultry, eggs, meat, and fresh produce, and cross-contamination — slicing deli meat and then handling lettuce with the same unwashed hands — is how it moves. Cooking to the required temperature and keeping raw animal food away from ready-to-eat food are the controls. Dry pasta, flour, sugar, and salt have too little water activity to support growth, vinegar, pickles, and jam are too acidic or too sugary, and commercially bottled water and bagged ice are treated — none of them is a typical Salmonella vehicle.

13. Salmonella Typhi (which causes typhoid fever) differs from nontyphoidal Salmonella mainly because it:
a.Is excluded from the Big 6 because it is rarely dangerous
b.Is carried only by cattle and poultry that shed it into raw meat
c.Lives only in humans and is spread by infected food handlers✓
d.Is destroyed by refrigerating ready-to-eat food at 41°F or below

Salmonella Typhi lives only in humans — there is no animal reservoir — and it spreads when an infected food handler contaminates food or drink, which is why that worker is excluded until a medical release clears them. It is one of the Big 6 reportable pathogens precisely because typhoid fever is severe. Refrigerating at 41°F slows bacterial growth but destroys nothing, and typhoid fever is a human disease, so cattle and poultry are not its source.

14. Shigella is most often transmitted in food establishments through:
a.Cross-contact with allergens on shared cutting boards
b.Flies and food handlers with poor personal hygiene✓
c.Improper freezing of vegetables below 0°F before washing
d.Poultry served undercooked at less than 165°F internal

Shigella spreads by the fecal-oral route — flies that land on feces and then on food, contaminated water, and food handlers who do not wash their hands after using the restroom — so it turns up in ready-to-eat salads. Handwashing and excluding ill staff are the controls. Freezing does nothing about a hand-to-food route, allergen cross-contact is an allergy hazard rather than an infection route, and poultry cooked below 165°F is the classic Salmonella and Campylobacter vehicle, not a Shigella one.

15. Shiga toxin-producing E. coli (STEC), such as E. coli O157:H7, is most strongly associated with which food?
a.Boiled jasmine rice
b.Pasteurized cow milk
c.Canned diced tomatoes
d.Undercooked ground beef✓

STEC, including E. coli O157:H7, is most strongly linked to undercooked ground beef, because grinding spreads surface bacteria through the whole patty and a very small dose can cause hemolytic uremic syndrome. Cooking ground beef to 155°F for 17 seconds controls it. Pasteurization destroys STEC in milk, commercial canning heat-treats tomatoes, and boiled rice is a Bacillus cereus concern rather than a STEC vehicle.

16. Which populations are considered highly susceptible (high-risk) to foodborne illness and should be given extra protection?
a.Adults taking daily multivitamins alongside whole-grain foods
b.Young children, the elderly, pregnant women, and immunocompromised people✓
c.Teenagers, high-performance athletes, and healthy, active adults
d.Adults in good health who eat most of their meals at restaurants or cafeterias

Highly susceptible populations are young children, older adults, pregnant women, and people with weakened immune systems, because their immune systems are still developing, declining, or compromised and a small dose of a pathogen can make them severely ill. Facilities serving these groups, such as hospitals and nursing homes, may not serve raw or undercooked animal foods or raw seed sprouts (FDA Food Code §3-801.11). A vitamin or whole-grain diet, athletic fitness, and how often someone eats out do not create this status.

17. A customer becomes flushed, dizzy, and develops a rash within minutes of eating tuna that was stored improperly. This is most likely which type of toxin illness?
a.Scombroid (histamine) poisoning✓
b.Botulism (canned-food toxin)
c.Ciguatoxin (ciguatera) poisoning
d.Paralytic shellfish poisoning (PSP)

Scombroid poisoning is caused by histamine that forms when scombroid fish — tuna, mahi-mahi, mackerel, bonito — are time-temperature abused; flushing, dizziness, and rash come on within minutes, and the histamine is heat-stable, so keeping the fish cold from receiving onward is the only control. Ciguatoxin comes from large predatory reef fish, not tuna, and causes neurological symptoms. Paralytic shellfish poisoning comes from molluscan shellfish, and botulism from Clostridium botulinum toxin in improperly canned food; both cause paralysis, not a rash within minutes.

18. Ciguatera poisoning is caused by a toxin found in certain large predatory reef fish. Which fish is a common source?
a.Barracuda and large grouper✓
b.Atlantic salmon raised on farms
c.Canned sardines in olive oil
d.Farm-raised tilapia and catfish

Ciguatera toxin builds up through the reef food chain and concentrates in large predatory reef fish such as barracuda, amberjack, and large grouper; it cannot be destroyed by cooking or freezing, so buying from approved, reputable suppliers is the only control. Farmed Atlantic salmon and farm-raised tilapia or catfish never feed on a tropical reef, and canned sardines are small plankton feeders that are heat-processed — none of them is a ciguatera source.

19. A parasite of concern in raw or undercooked fish served as sushi or ceviche is:
a.Anisakis (roundworm)✓
b.Salmonella species
c.Norovirus (virus)
d.Clostridium spores

Anisakis is a roundworm — a parasite — found in raw or undercooked marine fish, which is why fish served raw as sushi or ceviche must be frozen at the required temperature for the required time unless it is exempt; that freezing step is what destroys it. The deciding word in the stem is parasite: Salmonella species are bacteria, Clostridium botulinum spores are bacterial, and Norovirus is a virus — even though Norovirus is also linked to raw shellfish.

20. A manager finds mold on a block of cheddar cheese and on a loaf of bread. Which statement about fungi (molds and yeasts) is correct?
a.Mold on bread can be cut an inch back and the rest of the loaf served
b.Yeasts in food are pathogens that cause infection rather than spoilage
c.Mold requires the temperature danger zone, so food below 41°F cannot become moldy
d.Some molds produce toxins, so moldy soft/high-moisture foods should be discarded✓

Some molds produce mycotoxins, so moldy soft and high-moisture foods — bread, soft cheese, cooked leftovers — are discarded rather than trimmed; only hard cheese and firm produce may be cut at least an inch around and below the mold, so that trimming rule does not rescue a moldy loaf. Yeasts mostly spoil food (off odors, bubbles, slime) rather than infect the guest, and mold grows on refrigerated food below 41°F — cold slows it, it does not stop it.

21. According to the FDA Food Code, how long should the entire handwashing process take, from wetting hands to drying?
a.About 10 seconds in total
b.Exactly 60 seconds at the sink
c.At least 5 seconds of scrubbing
d.At least 20 seconds total✓

The FDA Food Code sets a minimum of at least 20 seconds for the whole process — wet, soap, scrub vigorously for 10 to 15 seconds, rinse, and dry — so 20 seconds total is the rule. About 10 seconds in total, and 5 seconds of scrubbing, are both under those minimums. And the Code sets a floor rather than a fixed duration, so 'exactly 60 seconds' misstates the requirement even though washing that long would do no harm.

FDA Food Code §2-301.14
22. A cook prepares a large batch of pork stew. When cooling TCS food using the two-stage method, it must first be cooled from 135°F to 70°F within how many hours?
a.10 hours
b.12 hours
c.24 hours
d.2 hours✓

The two-stage cooling method requires 135°F to 70°F within 2 hours, then 70°F to 41°F within 4 more hours, 6 hours total. The 2-hour first stage matters because bacteria multiply fastest between 70°F and 125°F; if the stew has not reached 70°F by the 2-hour mark it must be reheated and cooled again, or discarded. Every other choice — 10, 12, or 24 hours — is longer than the 6 hours the two stages are allowed altogether, so none of them can be the limit on the first stage alone.

FDA Food Code §3-501.14
23. In the two-stage cooling method, after reaching 70°F the food must be cooled to 41°F within how many additional hours?
a.4 additional hours✓
b.8 additional hours
c.6 additional hours
d.2 additional hours

After the first stage brings food to 70°F within 2 hours, the second stage must bring it from 70°F down to 41°F within 4 more hours, for a maximum total of 6 hours. Allowing more time would keep the food in the danger zone too long and permit pathogen growth.

FDA Food Code §3-501.14
24. Clostridium botulinum is dangerous because it produces a deadly toxin under which conditions?
a.In strongly acidic preparations such as lemon juice and citrus marinades
b.In anaerobic (oxygen-free) environments such as improperly canned or ROP foods✓
c.In dehydrated pantry commodities such as flour, crackers, and dried beans
d.In aerated (aerobic) preparations such as stock simmering in an open pot

Clostridium botulinum grows and forms toxin in anaerobic, low-acid, moist environments such as improperly home-canned foods, ROP (reduced-oxygen packaged) foods, and garlic-in-oil mixtures. Each wrong option names a condition that stops it: the low pH of lemon juice or a citrus marinade inhibits it, the oxygen in a pot simmering uncovered inhibits it, and dehydrated commodities such as flour and crackers are too dry to support it. The toxin attacks the nervous system.

25. Bacillus cereus is often linked to cooked rice held at improper temperatures because it:
a.Multiplies exclusively in raw meat and poultry, never in cooked starchy leftovers
b.Forms heat-resistant spores and toxins when cooked starchy foods are time-temperature abused✓
c.Cannot survive the cooking step, leaving overnight rice entirely free of spores
d.Is eliminated by reheating the leftovers to 165°F for 15 seconds, which fully destroys its toxin

Bacillus cereus forms heat-resistant spores that survive cooking; if cooked rice or pasta is left in the 41°F–135°F danger zone, the bacteria grow and produce a heat-stable toxin, so reheating to 165°F for 15 seconds may not make the food safe. Cooked rice must therefore be cooled quickly or held at a safe temperature. Its spores do survive the cooking step, cooked starchy food is its classic vehicle, and raw meat is not its only source.

26. Listeria monocytogenes is especially dangerous because, unlike most bacteria, it:
a.Is destroyed outright by refrigeration at 41°F, making date marking unnecessary
b.Multiplies only above 135°F, thriving inside hot-held soups and brown gravies
c.Cannot survive inside refrigerated delicatessen meats or cheeses
d.Grows at refrigeration temperatures and threatens pregnant women✓

Listeria monocytogenes keeps growing at cold refrigeration temperatures and is dangerous to pregnant women, causing miscarriage, as well as to older adults and immunocompromised people. Cold holding at 41°F slows it but does not kill it, which is exactly why ready-to-eat TCS food is date-marked and discarded. It is not a hot-holding organism, and deli meats, soft cheeses, and smoked seafood are its most common ready-to-eat vehicles.

27. A deli makes chicken salad on Monday and holds it cold at 41°F. Under the Food Code, ready-to-eat TCS food held cold must be date-marked and used within how many days, counting the day of preparation as day 1?
a.10 days
b.7 days✓
c.14 days
d.30 days

Ready-to-eat TCS food held at 41°F or below may be kept for a maximum of 7 days, with the day of preparation counted as day 1, so chicken salad made on Monday is discarded at the end of Sunday. Every other choice runs past the Code maximum: 10, 14, and 30 days all leave the food on hand while Listeria and other pathogens slowly grow under refrigeration.

FDA Food Code §3-501.17
28. When using time as a public health control instead of temperature, cold TCS food removed from refrigeration may be held without temperature control for a maximum of how long before it must be used or discarded?
a.12 hours, regardless of the starting temperature
b.8 hours, if the pan is re-iced every hour
c.24 hours, if the food is covered and labeled
d.6 hours, if it starts at 41°F and never exceeds 70°F✓

Under time as a public health control, cold TCS food may be held up to 6 hours if it begins at 41°F or below and does not exceed 70°F, after which it must be discarded. A separate option in the same section allows 4 hours with no temperature limit. The item must be marked with its discard time. Nothing in the section permits 8, 12, or 24 hours, and re-icing, covering, or labeling does not extend the clock.

FDA Food Code §3-501.19
29. A cook has been diagnosed with a Norovirus infection. Under the Food Code, the manager must:
a.Keep the cook on the line but require single-use gloves and a face mask
b.Reassign the cook to washing the clean dishes and glassware
c.Let the cook prep food but hand plating to another employee
d.Exclude the cook from the establishment until cleared per the Code✓

A food employee diagnosed with Norovirus, one of the Big 6, must be excluded from the food establishment and may return only when cleared under the Food Code, typically after being symptom-free for at least 24 to 48 hours and with regulatory approval. Because the diagnosis itself triggers exclusion, every half-measure that keeps the person in the operation fails: gloves and a mask do not stop the fecal-oral route, clean dishes and glassware are food-contact items a sick worker may not handle, and handing off plating still leaves the cook touching food.

FDA Food Code §2-201.12
30. Which set of symptoms requires a food handler to be excluded or restricted and reported to the manager?
a.A paper cut completely sealed beneath a clean bandage and a disposable finger cot
b.Mild headache, tiredness, and aching muscles after a double shift
c.Sneezing, a runny nose, watery eyes, itchy skin, or a seasonal pollen allergy
d.Vomiting, diarrhea, jaundice, sore throat with fever, or an infected wound✓

Food handlers must report to the manager and be restricted or excluded when they have vomiting, diarrhea, jaundice, a sore throat with fever, or an infected open wound with pus, because these signal pathogens that can reach food. None of the other sets is on the Food Code reporting list: a paper cut sealed under a bandage and a finger cot is the control the Code itself calls for, and headache, aching muscles, sneezing, watery eyes, and itchy skin from a pollen allergy are not reportable symptoms on their own.

FDA Food Code §2-201.11
31. A food handler at a seafood counter must understand that paralytic shellfish poisoning (PSP) toxins in mollusks like clams and mussels:
a.Produce a skin rash within a few minutes, in the same way that a true shellfish allergy does
b.Are not destroyed by cooking or freezing, so shellfish must come from approved sources✓
c.Reach a harmful level only when the mollusks are eaten raw, so steaming the clams is safe
d.Break down at 145°F for 15 seconds, the cook temperature the Code requires for shellfish

Paralytic shellfish poisoning toxins are naturally occurring and heat-stable, so neither cooking to 145°F for 15 seconds nor freezing destroys them, and steaming a clam does not make it safe. The only control is buying shellfish from approved, reputable suppliers and keeping the shellstock tags on file for 90 days. PSP causes numbness and other neurological symptoms, not the skin rash of a shellfish allergy.

32. A cook prepares a large beef roast. What is the acceptable minimum internal temperature and hold time for a whole-muscle roast cooked in an oven (using an approved time-temperature combination)?
a.165°F for 15 seconds (the minimum required for any cut of beef)
b.155°F for 17 seconds, because a roast is treated like ground beef
c.145°F for 4 minutes (or an approved lower-temp/longer-time combination)✓
d.135°F for 4 minutes, since a roast goes straight to hot holding

Whole-muscle roasts may be cooked to 145°F held for 4 minutes, or to an approved lower temperature held for a longer time, because the interior of an intact roast has few bacteria. The other combinations belong elsewhere: 165°F is for poultry and stuffed foods, 155°F for 17 seconds is for ground meat, which a whole-muscle roast is not, and 135°F is a hot-holding minimum, never a cook temperature for a roast.

FDA Food Code §3-401.11
33. An intoxication (like Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning) differs from an infection because:
a.The bacteria must keep multiplying inside the body before any symptoms appear
b.Handwashing cannot stop it, since the toxin is made in the pan while the food is being cooked
c.It is caused only by viruses such as Norovirus, which make their own toxin in the food
d.The illness is caused by a toxin already present in the food, so symptoms come on quickly✓

In an intoxication the person swallows a toxin that was already formed in the food, for example by Staphylococcus aureus after bare-hand contact and time-temperature abuse, so symptoms can appear within a few hours. Multiplying inside the body is what defines an infection, not an intoxication. Handwashing and no bare-hand contact do prevent Staph intoxication, the toxin builds up in the food during temperature abuse rather than during cooking, and viruses are not the cause of a Staph intoxication.

34. Staphylococcus aureus is commonly carried by humans and transferred to food through:
a.Freezing raw meat too slowly, which drives the bacteria deep into the cut
b.Bare-hand contact by carriers who touch ready-to-eat food✓
c.Vinegar-based dressings, whose acidity feeds the bacteria
d.Vegetables that were undercooked and then never rinsed in the prep sink

Staphylococcus aureus lives in the nose, mouth, skin, and infected cuts of many healthy people and reaches ready-to-eat food when a carrier touches it with bare hands; the toxin it then forms is heat-stable and survives cooking. Controls are handwashing, no bare-hand contact with ready-to-eat food, and keeping food out of the 41°F–135°F danger zone. Freezing rate, dressing acidity, and undercooked vegetables are not routes by which a human carrier transfers this organism.

35. A guest at a hospital cafeteria is immunocompromised. Which menu item should a manager avoid serving this high-risk guest?
a.Hot soup held at 140°F on the line
b.A cup of juice that was pasteurized
c.A well-cooked chicken breast at 165°F
d.Raw oysters on the half shell✓

Highly susceptible guests such as immunocompromised patients must not be served raw or undercooked animal food, and raw oysters are the classic example, because a weakened immune system cannot fight Vibrio or Norovirus. The other three are already controlled: soup hot-held at 140°F is above the 135°F minimum, the juice is pasteurized, and the chicken has reached 165°F.

36. A brunch cook prepares scrambled eggs that will be hot-held on a buffet, rather than cooked to order. What minimum internal temperature applies to eggs that will be hot-held?
a.155°F for 17 seconds✓
b.135°F for 15 seconds
c.165°F for 1 second
d.145°F for 15 seconds

Shell eggs that are pooled or will be hot-held (not cooked to order for immediate service) must reach 155°F for 17 seconds, the same as ground meat, because pooling and holding increase risk. Eggs cooked to order for immediate service only need 145°F. 135°F is a holding temperature, not a cooking temperature.

FDA Food Code §3-401.11
37. A restaurant cooks food in a microwave oven. When cooking raw animal foods in a microwave, the food must be heated to a minimum internal temperature of:
a.135°F
b.165°F✓
c.145°F
d.155°F

Raw animal foods cooked in a microwave must reach 165°F, and the food should be rotated or stirred, covered, and allowed to stand for 2 minutes after cooking to even out cold spots. Microwaves heat unevenly, so the higher 165°F standard and the standing time add a safety margin. Lower temperatures like 145°F or 155°F apply to conventional cooking of certain foods, not microwaving raw animal foods.

FDA Food Code §3-401.11
38. A cook wants to know which pathogen has the smallest infectious dose, meaning even a tiny amount can make someone sick. Which of these is known for a very low infectious dose?
a.Bacillus cereus and Clostridium botulinum
b.Shiga toxin-producing E. coli and Shigella✓
c.Clostridium perfringens in warm beef gravy
d.Staphylococcus aureus on a cook's hands

STEC and Shigella are the pathogens known for very low infectious doses, so even slight contamination of ready-to-eat food can cause serious illness, which is why handwashing and no bare-hand contact are critical. Bacillus cereus and Clostridium perfringens must reach very high cell counts before anyone gets sick, Staph illness depends on toxin building up during time-temperature abuse, and Clostridium botulinum causes an intoxication rather than a low-dose infection.

39. Cyclospora and Giardia are examples of which type of foodborne biological hazard?
a.Parasites✓
b.Bacteria
c.Mycotoxins
d.Allergens

Cyclospora and Giardia are parasites: single-celled organisms that need a host and spread mainly through contaminated water or produce irrigated or washed with it, so approved suppliers and safe water are the controls. They are not bacteria, which multiply on their own in the food; not mycotoxins, which are poisons made by molds; and not allergens, which are proteins that trigger an immune reaction rather than an infection.

40. A manager suspects a foodborne illness outbreak after several customers report similar symptoms from the same meal. What should the manager do first?
a.Throw out the suspect food, scrub the pans, and reopen the line so nothing tainted is served
b.Gather information, set aside the suspect food, and contact the local regulatory authority✓
c.Tell staff to say nothing and settle the complaints privately, without alerting the regulator
d.Wait for a physician or the county health department to telephone first

When an outbreak is suspected the manager acts first, not last: gather details from the affected guests, then isolate and label the suspect food so it is neither served nor discarded, and call the local health department. Note the word first in the stem — the suspect food is the evidence, so throwing it out, scrubbing the pans, and reopening the line destroys it, settling complaints privately hides a hazard the regulator has to see, and waiting for a physician or the county to telephone lets more guests be served.

41. A line cook tells the person in charge she has just been diagnosed with an illness. Which diagnosis is NOT one of the six the Food Code requires a food employee to report?
a.Listeria monocytogenes infection✓
b.Shiga toxin-producing E. coli infection
c.Hepatitis A virus infection
d.Shigella spp. infection

The six reportable diagnoses are Norovirus, hepatitis A virus, Shigella spp., Shiga toxin-producing E. coli, typhoid fever caused by Salmonella Typhi, and nontyphoidal Salmonella. Listeria monocytogenes causes severe illness in pregnant guests and older adults, but a Listeria diagnosis is not on the employee reporting list.

FDA Food Code §2-201.11
42. A dishwasher is diagnosed with a hepatitis A virus infection and became jaundiced yesterday. What does the Food Code require of the person in charge?
a.Restrict him to warewashing until all the jaundice clears
b.Reassign him to bussing tables in the dining room only
c.Allow him to work if he always wears gloves on both hands
d.Exclude him from the operation and notify the regulator✓

A food employee diagnosed with hepatitis A must be excluded from the establishment, and the person in charge must notify the regulatory authority. Restriction, reassignment, or gloves are not enough, because hepatitis A spreads by the fecal-oral route and a worker sheds virus before and after jaundice appears.

FDA Food Code §2-201.12
43. A server ate at a wedding where a confirmed Norovirus outbreak occurred. Within how many hours of that exposure must she report it to the person in charge?
a.24 hours of the last exposure
b.48 hours of the last exposure✓
c.72 hours of the last exposure
d.14 days of the last exposure

Norovirus exposure is reportable within the past 48 hours of the last exposure. The other windows belong to different pathogens: Shigella and Shiga toxin-producing E. coli use 3 days, typhoid fever uses 14 days, and hepatitis A uses 30 days.

FDA Food Code §2-201.11
44. A prep cook lives with a household member who was just diagnosed with a Shigella infection. What is the reporting window the Food Code sets for that exposure?
a.Within the past 24 hours of the last exposure
b.Within the past 2 days of the last exposure
c.Within the past 3 days of the last exposure✓
d.Within the past 30 days of the last exposure

Exposure to Shigella spp. or Shiga toxin-producing E. coli is reportable within the past 3 days of the last exposure. Norovirus uses a 48-hour window, typhoid fever uses 14 days, and hepatitis A uses 30 days, so the length of the window depends on the pathogen's incubation period.

FDA Food Code §2-201.11
45. A new hire discloses that he had typhoid fever, diagnosed by a doctor, and never received antibiotic therapy. How far back does the Food Code make that past illness reportable?
a.Within the past 3 weeks
b.Within the past 30 days
c.Within the past 3 months✓
d.Within the past 3 years

A past illness with typhoid fever diagnosed by a health practitioner, without antibiotic therapy, is reportable if it occurred within the past 3 months. Salmonella Typhi can be shed by a person who feels completely well, which is why the reporting reach for this one pathogen extends past recovery.

FDA Food Code §2-201.11
46. Which combination of complaints from a food employee is one of the five symptoms the Food Code makes reportable to the person in charge?
a.A headache along with muscle aches
b.A sore throat along with a fever✓
c.A runny nose along with sneezing
d.A skin rash along with dry cough

The five reportable symptoms are vomiting, diarrhea, jaundice, sore throat with fever, and a lesion containing pus. Sore throat with fever matters because it can signal a streptococcal infection that spreads through food. Headache, runny nose, or rash alone are not on the reporting list, though a persistent runny nose does keep an employee away from exposed food.

FDA Food Code §2-201.11
47. A cook has an infected, draining boil on the back of his hand. Under what condition does the Food Code let him keep working with food?
a.A dry gauze pad is taped over the boil each morning
b.The boil is rinsed clean and then left open to the air
c.A cloth bandage covers the boil for the shift
d.An impermeable cover and a glove cover the boil✓

A lesion containing pus on the hand or wrist is reportable unless an impermeable cover such as a finger cot or stall protects it and a single-use glove is worn over that cover. Gauze, an open wound, or a cloth bandage all let fluid through, and a lesion on the hand contaminates everything the cook touches.

FDA Food Code §2-201.11
48. A banquet kitchen cools 20 gallons of beef gravy overnight in a deep covered pot. Which pathogen is this practice most likely to grow?
a.Clostridium perfringens, from slow cooling✓
b.Hepatitis A virus, from an infected worker
c.Vibrio vulnificus, from a warm-water harvest
d.Salmonella Typhi, from a human carrier

Clostridium perfringens survives cooking as a spore and multiplies when large batches of meat, gravy, or beans sit for hours in the danger zone, which is why it is often called the cafeteria germ. Hepatitis A and Salmonella Typhi come from people, and Vibrio comes from shellfish harvest waters, so none of them is created by slow cooling.

49. A guest with liver disease eats raw oysters and develops a severe bloodstream infection. Which pathogen is the most likely cause?
a.Bacillus cereus from a starch that was held warm
b.Staphylococcus aureus from bare-hand contact
c.Vibrio vulnificus from raw molluscan shellfish✓
d.Clostridium botulinum from a swollen canned good

Vibrio species live naturally in coastal waters and concentrate in filter-feeding oysters, and Vibrio vulnificus is especially dangerous for guests with liver disease or a weakened immune system. Bacillus cereus is tied to starches, Staphylococcus aureus to hand contact, and Clostridium botulinum to anaerobic conditions such as damaged cans.

50. A chef acidifies a sauce so that it no longer supports pathogen growth. At or below which pH does a food stop being time/temperature control for safety on acidity alone?
a.A pH of 7.5 or lower
b.A pH of 4.6 or lower✓
c.A pH of 5.6 or lower
d.A pH of 6.5 or lower

Pathogens grow best in food that is close to neutral, and a pH of 4.6 or lower is the acidity threshold used to classify a food as not requiring time and temperature control on that basis. A pH of 5.6, 6.5, or 7.5 is still hospitable to bacteria, and changing a recipe's acidity to preserve food requires a variance from the regulatory authority.

最近核对: · 审核流程

PrepPass 团队 · 依据官方资料核对 FDA Food Code 2022 · 我们如何核对

ServSafe Food Protection Manager Certification Exam 考什么?

ServSafe Food Protection Manager Certification Exam 由 National Restaurant Association (ANAB-CFP accredited, proctored via Pearson VUE) 主办。下面的主题权重是 PrepPass 的估算,并非 National Restaurant Association (ANAB-CFP accredited, proctored via Pearson VUE) 公布的数字。

题目数量
90 道题 (80 道计分,10 道不计分预试题)
考试时限
120 分钟
及格标准
70% (80 道计分题中至少答对 56 道)

以上每项数字均附来源文件与查阅日期 →

考试大纲(按权重)

  • 15%
    食源性疾病
  • 15%
    备制与烹饪
  • 13%
    个人卫生
  • 13%
    保温与供餐
  • 12%
    污染与过敏原
  • 12%
    收货与储存
  • 10%
    管理与 HACCP
  • 10%
    设施、清洁与虫害
PrepPass 团队 · 依据官方资料核对 National Restaurant Association (ANAB-CFP accredited, proctored via Pearson VUE) · 我们如何核对

这门考试有多难?

中等难度。ServSafe 食品安全经理考试为 90 道选择题(80 道计分),2 小时,70% 通过(80 题中至少答对 56 题)。监考、闭卷——比食品处理员证难,考查经理级别对 FDA 食品法典的判断,而非基础常识。

推荐学习时间
多数考生 8-20 小时,约 1-3 周,另需复习 FDA 食品法典的温度要求
通过率
我们在 2026 年 9 月查阅了 National Restaurant Association (ServSafe) 自己公布的材料,其中没有通过率。考生手册对题量、75% 及格分与重考政策都写得很具体,却完全没有统计数据一节。网上流传的「65%」「70-80%」来自培训机构,而非该协会。来源: ServSafe — Food Protection Manager Certification Examinee Handbook (PDF), National Restaurant Association
重点学习方向
时间-温度控制(烹饪、冷却、保温)与食源性疾病(六大病原体)——合计占考试最大比重。

费用与薪资为近似值,会随时间变动。上方的通过率引自旁边链接的来源,并限于该来源覆盖的期间——凡是我们尚未核实来源的,都会直接说明并且不给数字。

常见问题

How many ServSafe Manager practice questions are here?+

500 original practice questions across all 8 exam domains, in English and Español, with an FDA Food Code citation on 357 of the 500 answers.

Is this ServSafe Manager practice test free?+

Yes — completely free, no signup. Unlimited rounds, a full 90-question timed mock exam, and explanations all included.

Are these real ServSafe exam questions?+

No. All 500 questions are original prose written from the public-domain FDA Food Code 2022 and its 2024 Supplement.

How many questions is the real ServSafe Manager exam and what's the passing score?+

90 multiple-choice questions (80 scored), 2 hours, 70% to pass — at least 56 of 80 scored. Proctored and closed-book.

How long is the ServSafe Manager certification valid?+

5 years in most jurisdictions. ANAB-CFP accredited; satisfies the Certified Food Protection Manager (CFPM) requirement nationwide.

What languages is the ServSafe Manager exam available in?+

English, Spanish, French Canadian, and Simplified Chinese. PrepPass practice is in English and Español.

有 ServSafe Food Protection Manager 的学习指南吗?+

有 —— PrepPass 出售 ServSafe Manager Exam — Complete Study Guide (2026)(PDF + EPUB 下载版),$19.99,一次性付费;本页的练习不需要它,依然免费。 查看学习指南 →

反馈