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Anatomy & Sciences

94 questions
51. Which of the following acts is clearly outside the scope of a California cosmetologist's license?
a.Injecting fillers or Botox into a client✓
b.Applying temporary hair color
c.Cutting and styling hair
d.Performing a scalp massage during shampoo

Injecting any substance into the skin is the practice of medicine. Cosmetologists who perform such acts are violating California law.

BPC §7317
52. A California esthetician asks whether she can perform a 'medium-depth' chemical peel that visibly reaches the dermis. The correct answer is:
a.No, peels reaching living/dermal tissue are outside her scope✓
b.Yes, if she uses sterile gloves
c.Yes, with a signed waiver
d.Yes, if she has 5+ years of experience

Estheticians may only perform superficial peels that act on the stratum corneum. Peels reaching living layers require medical supervision.

BPC §7316
53. Which structure surrounds the lower part of the hair follicle and contains rapidly dividing cells?
a.Stratum corneum
b.Cuticle
c.Free edge
d.Hair bulb✓

The hair bulb is the swollen base of the follicle that surrounds the dermal papilla; it contains the actively dividing matrix cells that build the hair shaft.

54. Which of the following best describes the immune system's role relevant to salons?
a.It defends the body against pathogens that could enter through broken skin✓
b.It produces hair pigment
c.It controls hair growth phases
d.It regulates body temperature only

Broken skin is a path for pathogens; the immune system fights infection. Salons reduce risk by maintaining intact skin and properly disinfecting tools.

55. Eczema (atopic dermatitis) is generally:
a.A chronic, non-contagious inflammatory skin condition✓
b.A contagious bacterial infection
c.A type of cancer of the dermis
d.A fungal infection of the nail

Eczema is chronic, non-contagious, and often itchy. Cosmetologists can adapt to avoid irritation but should not diagnose or treat it.

56. Rosacea typically presents as:
a.Round bald patches on the scalp
b.Yellow, thick toenails
c.Persistent facial redness with possible visible vessels and bumps✓
d.Silvery scaly plaques on the elbows

Rosacea is a chronic facial condition with redness, flushing, and sometimes papules or visible blood vessels. Licensees adapt the service and avoid irritants.

57. If a client suffers a small cut during a service and bleeds onto a metal implement, the implement must be:
a.Rinsed with warm water only
b.Wiped with a dry towel and reused
c.Cleaned of visible debris and then disinfected with an EPA-registered, hospital-grade disinfectant per label instructions (or discarded if single-use)✓
d.Sprayed with hairspray

Implements exposed to blood must be cleaned and then disinfected with an EPA-registered, hospital-grade disinfectant used per label, or discarded if single-use.

16 CCR §979
58. An ingrown toenail (onychocryptosis) is best handled in a California salon by:
a.Applying acrylic over the entire nail
b.Cutting into the lateral nail fold to remove the spur
c.Gently smoothing the free edge and recommending the client see a podiatrist if painful or inflamed✓
d.Soaking in alcohol until soft and then digging it out

Manicurists may file and smooth nails but may not cut into living tissue. A painful or inflamed ingrown nail warrants medical referral.

59. Which sequence correctly lists the layers of the epidermis from deepest to most superficial?
a.Granulosum → basale → spinosum → lucidum → corneum
b.Basale → spinosum → granulosum → lucidum → corneum✓
c.Corneum → lucidum → granulosum → spinosum → basale
d.Lucidum → corneum → granulosum → spinosum → basale

From deepest to most superficial: stratum basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum (palms/soles only), and corneum.

60. Pathogenic microorganisms are those that:
a.Live only on inanimate surfaces
b.Help digestion in the gut
c.Are too small to be seen with any microscope
d.Cause disease in humans✓

Pathogenic microbes cause disease. Most microorganisms are non-pathogenic; only a minority cause infections that licensees must guard against.

61. Sebaceous glands open into which structure rather than directly onto the skin surface?
a.The arrector pili muscle
b.The hair follicle✓
c.The Pacinian corpuscle
d.The sweat duct

Most sebaceous (oil) glands empty their sebum into a hair follicle, lubricating the hair and skin together. Sudoriferous (sweat) glands, in contrast, have their own ducts that open onto the surface.

62. Pacinian corpuscles, located deep in the dermis and subcutaneous layer, are specialized receptors for:
a.Light touch
b.Deep pressure and vibration✓
c.Sharp pain
d.Skin temperature

Pacinian corpuscles are large, onion-shaped encapsulated receptors that respond to deep pressure and vibration. Meissner corpuscles handle light touch, free nerve endings handle pain and temperature.

63. Sensations of pain, itch, and temperature in the skin are carried mainly by:
a.Merkel discs
b.Meissner corpuscles
c.Pacinian corpuscles
d.Free nerve endings✓

Free (unencapsulated) nerve endings detect pain, itch, and temperature. Encapsulated receptors like Meissner and Pacinian are tuned to mechanical stimuli such as light touch or deep pressure.

64. A client's intake form notes that her skin's pH is around 5.0. This slightly acidic pH primarily helps to:
a.Increase oil production on the scalp
b.Trigger faster collagen breakdown
c.Speed up melanin production
d.Inhibit growth of harmful bacteria and support the skin barrier✓

Healthy skin sits at about pH 4.5 to 5.5, called the acid mantle. This mildly acidic film discourages many pathogenic microbes and helps keep the stratum corneum's barrier and moisture intact.

65. Which pair of changes in the dermis is most characteristic of intrinsic (chronological) skin aging?
a.Higher sebum output and more sweat glands
b.Increased collagen production and thicker elastin fibers
c.Reduced collagen synthesis along with fragmented, less elastic elastin✓
d.Faster melanin turnover and tighter capillaries

With age, fibroblasts produce less collagen each year, while existing elastin fibers fragment and lose recoil. The combined loss is why aged skin appears thinner, looser, and slower to bounce back.

66. Approximately how long does the anagen (active growth) phase of scalp hair typically last in a healthy adult?
a.2 to 3 weeks
b.3 to 7 years✓
c.10 to 15 years
d.2 to 3 months

Anagen typically lasts about 3 to 7 years for scalp hair. The catagen transition is only 2 to 3 weeks, and telogen (resting/shedding) is about 2 to 3 months.

67. Within the hair root, the small cone of dermal tissue that pushes up into the hair bulb and supplies blood vessels is the:
a.Arrector pili
b.Hair shaft cortex
c.Outer root sheath
d.Dermal papilla✓

The dermal papilla is the vascular peg at the very base of the follicle. Matrix cells of the bulb surround it and divide rapidly, fed by the papilla's capillaries.

68. Black and brown hair color is produced mainly by which type of melanin?
a.Carotene
b.Pheomelanin
c.Neuromelanin
d.Eumelanin✓

Eumelanin gives black and brown shades. Pheomelanin produces red and yellow tones. The blend and total amount of these two pigments determines natural hair color.

69. A client asks why her hair is turning gray. The most accurate explanation is that:
a.Sebum production has stopped at the follicle
b.Melanocytes in the hair bulb gradually produce less melanin with age✓
c.Hair pigment is washed out by everyday shampoo over many years
d.The cuticle scales have flattened, blocking color from reaching the cortex

Graying happens when melanocytes in the hair bulb slowly lose function and deposit less melanin into new hairs. New hairs grow in with less pigment until they appear silver or white.

70. The muscle that pulls the corners of the mouth downward, helping create a frowning expression, is the:
a.Depressor anguli oris✓
b.Levator labii superioris
c.Risorius
d.Mentalis

Depressor anguli oris pulls the corners of the mouth down. Levator labii superioris lifts the upper lip; mentalis wrinkles the chin; risorius pulls the mouth corners laterally.

71. Together with the masseter, which deep muscle on the side of the head also assists in closing the jaw during chewing?
a.Buccinator
b.Sternocleidomastoid
c.Platysma
d.Temporalis✓

The temporalis is a fan-shaped muscle on the side of the head that elevates and retracts the mandible. With the masseter and medial pterygoid, it powers chewing.

72. Which branch of the facial nerve (CN VII) is most relevant when an esthetician massages the cheek and area in front of the ear?
a.The radial branch
b.The zygomatic and buccal branches✓
c.The sciatic branch
d.The phrenic branch

The zygomatic and buccal branches of the facial nerve run across the cheek and supply many muscles of facial expression in that area. Sciatic, radial, and phrenic nerves are not branches of CN VII.

73. Sensation from the lower lip, chin, and lower jaw is carried by which division of the trigeminal nerve (CN V)?
a.Facial (VII)
b.Maxillary (V2)
c.Mandibular (V3)✓
d.Ophthalmic (V1)

Trigeminal nerve has three sensory divisions: V1 (ophthalmic) for forehead, V2 (maxillary) for cheek/upper lip, V3 (mandibular) for lower lip, chin, and jaw. CN VII is motor, not part of these divisions.

74. When performing a facial lymph drainage massage, the parotid nodes and submandibular nodes ultimately drain toward which deeper group of nodes in the neck?
a.Deep cervical nodes✓
b.Inguinal nodes
c.Popliteal nodes
d.Axillary nodes

Facial lymph flows through superficial nodes such as parotid and submandibular, then into the deep cervical chain along the neck. Inguinal, axillary, and popliteal nodes drain other body regions.

75. The adult human skull is commonly described as having how many cranial bones and how many facial bones?
a.12 cranial and 10 facial
b.8 cranial and 14 facial✓
c.6 cranial and 12 facial
d.10 cranial and 16 facial

The adult skull is typically described as 8 cranial bones (frontal, two parietal, two temporal, occipital, sphenoid, ethmoid) and 14 facial bones, including the maxillae, mandible, zygomatics, and nasal bones.

76. New nail plate is produced in which part of the nail unit?
a.The matrix, under the lunula and proximal nail fold✓
b.The hyponychium
c.The eponychium
d.The free edge

The matrix is the only living, growth-producing portion of the nail unit. Damage there can permanently alter the nail. The free edge, hyponychium, and eponychium are not where new plate is created.

77. The pinkish surface beneath the nail plate that supplies nutrients and gives the plate its color is the:
a.Eponychium
b.Free edge
c.Matrix
d.Nail bed✓

The nail bed is the living tissue directly under the nail plate; its rich blood supply gives the plate its pink color. The matrix lies further back beneath the lunula; the eponychium is the proximal skin fold.

78. A client habitually bites her fingernails down to the skin. The proper term for this is:
a.Onychophagia✓
b.Beau's lines
c.Leukonychia
d.Koilonychia

Onychophagia is chronic nail biting. Leukonychia refers to white spots, koilonychia to spoon-shaped nails, and Beau's lines to transverse depressions on the plate after illness or trauma.

79. A manicurist notices a deep horizontal groove running across a client's nail plate. This finding, often appearing after a serious illness or injury, is called:
a.Beau's lines✓
b.Leukonychia
c.Koilonychia
d.Onycholysis

Beau's lines are transverse depressions in the plate caused by temporary disruption of matrix growth during illness, high fever, chemotherapy, or trauma. They grow out as the nail grows.

80. Small white spots on the nail plate caused by minor trauma to the matrix during nail formation are called:
a.Leukonychia✓
b.Onychophagia
c.Koilonychia
d.Paronychia

Leukonychia is the term for white spots or marks within the plate, usually from minor matrix trauma. They are harmless and grow out with the nail.

81. A client's fingernails appear concave, like small spoons that can hold a drop of water. This shape is called:
a.Koilonychia✓
b.Leukonychia
c.Onychomadesis
d.Beau's lines

Koilonychia is a spoon-shaped nail. It may be associated with iron-deficiency anemia or chronic irritation. The licensee should not treat it but may suggest the client consult a physician.

82. A client shows red, greasy-looking scales along the scalp, eyebrows, and sides of the nose that come and go. This is most consistent with:
a.Seborrheic dermatitis✓
b.Tinea capitis (scalp ringworm)
c.Pediculosis capitis (head lice)
d.Folliculitis

Seborrheic dermatitis is a chronic, non-contagious inflammatory condition seen in oil-rich areas, with red skin and greasy yellow-white scales. Ringworm is fungal and contagious; folliculitis affects follicles with pustules; lice are visible parasites.

83. After a shave service, a client returns with multiple small red bumps and pustules centered on hair follicles along the jaw. The most likely condition is:
a.Rosacea
b.Psoriasis
c.Eczema
d.Folliculitis✓

Folliculitis is inflammation of hair follicles, often bacterial, that appears as small red bumps or pustules at each follicle. Service should be paused and the client referred for medical evaluation if needed.

84. A client develops itchy, blistering hand eczema only after she begins wearing nitrile gloves with a specific accelerator chemical. This delayed reaction, mediated by T-cells, is best classified as:
a.Bacterial folliculitis
b.Acute anaphylaxis (Type I hypersensitivity)
c.Allergic contact dermatitis (Type IV hypersensitivity)✓
d.Irritant contact dermatitis from soap dryness

Allergic contact dermatitis is a T-cell-mediated, delayed (Type IV) reaction to a specific allergen, often appearing 24-72 hours after exposure. Irritant contact dermatitis is not immune-mediated and usually appears quickly with strong irritants.

85. A new licensee plans to use a strong acid peel that, by visible inspection, removes part of the dermis to 'treat' deep wrinkles. Under California's cosmetology scope of practice, this is:
a.Allowed if a client signs a consent form
b.Outside the scope of practice because licensees may only act on nonliving epidermal layers✓
c.Allowed because peels are considered cosmetic, not medical
d.Allowed if the licensee has more than ten years of experience

California cosmetology, esthetics, and barbering licenses are limited to the nonliving outer layers of the skin and superficial work. Procedures that intentionally injure or remove the dermis cross into the practice of medicine, regardless of consent or experience.

BPC §7316
86. Sebaceous glands in the dermis empty their secretion into which structure, and what is the secretion called?
a.Into a sweat duct; the secretion is histamine
b.Into the dermal blood vessels; the secretion is collagen
c.Into the hair follicle just above the bulb; the secretion is sebum, an oily mixture of lipids and dead sebaceous cells✓
d.Directly onto the skin surface through their own pore; the secretion is sweat

Sebaceous glands are holocrine glands attached to nearly every hair follicle on the body except the palms and soles. They release sebum, an oily lipid mixture (triglycerides, wax esters, squalene) made by the breakdown of the gland's own cells, into the upper portion of the hair follicle. Sebum then travels up the follicular canal and lubricates the hair and skin surface. Recognizing the anatomy supports safe extraction technique and product selection, both within the scope of California licensees under Bus. & Prof. Code §7320. Option D confuses sebaceous with sudoriferous (sweat) glands. Option A names an unrelated cellular mediator. Option B confuses sebum with collagen, a structural fiber made by fibroblasts.

Bus. & Prof. Code §7320
87. Which structure of the nail unit is the LIVING tissue responsible for producing new nail plate cells?
a.Nail matrix (the living tissue beneath the proximal nail fold, partly visible as the lunula)✓
b.Eponychium (the cuticle skin overlying the matrix)
c.Nail plate (the visible, hardened nail)
d.Hyponychium (the seal under the free edge)

The nail matrix is the only LIVING part of the nail unit that actively divides to produce new nail plate. It lies under the proximal nail fold; the visible white half-moon (lunula) is the distal edge of the matrix showing through. Damage to the matrix from aggressive filing, trauma, or chemical injury can produce ridges, splits, or permanent nail deformity. The nail plate itself is dead, keratinized tissue. The hyponychium and eponychium are protective seals of skin. Manicurists who understand this anatomy are practicing safely within the scope California sets under Bus. & Prof. Code §7320 and §7321.

Bus. & Prof. Code §7320
88. Which list correctly orders the three phases of the hair growth cycle, from longest to shortest?
a.Anagen, catagen, telogen, all equal in length
b.Anagen (active growth, 2 to 6 years on the scalp), telogen (resting, about 2 to 4 months), catagen (transition, about 2 to 3 weeks)✓
c.Catagen, telogen, anagen
d.Telogen, anagen, catagen

Hair grows in a repeating cycle of three phases. Anagen is by far the longest, lasting 2 to 6 years for scalp hair and defining the maximum length a person can grow. Telogen is the resting and shedding phase, lasting roughly 2 to 4 months, during which the hair sits in the follicle until pushed out by a new anagen hair. Catagen is the brief transitional phase, lasting only about 2 to 3 weeks, in which the follicle prepares to regress. Knowing the durations supports honest consultation about hair loss and growth expectations under the licensee's general competence duties at Bus. & Prof. Code §7320. Options A, C, and D misorder or equalize the phases.

Bus. & Prof. Code §7320
89. Which list correctly orders the three layers of the hair shaft from the OUTSIDE in?
a.Cuticle (outer overlapping scales), cortex (middle, with pigment and keratin fibers; the strongest layer that gives hair color and elasticity), medulla (innermost core, often absent in very fine hair)✓
b.Medulla, cortex, cuticle
c.Cortex, medulla, cuticle
d.Cuticle, medulla, cortex

From outside to inside the hair shaft is: CUTICLE (overlapping translucent keratin scales that protect the strand and reflect light when smooth), CORTEX (the bulky middle layer containing the keratin fiber bundles, melanin pigment, and most of the side bonds; responsible for strength, elasticity, and color), and MEDULLA (the innermost honeycomb-like core, sometimes fragmentary or absent, especially in fine or blonde hair). Chemical services target the cortex but must first pass through the cuticle. Cosmetologists rely on this anatomy daily under the general competence duties at Bus. & Prof. Code §7320. Options B, C, and D scramble the order in ways the exam tests directly.

Bus. & Prof. Code §7320
90. The arrector pili muscle is associated with which structure, and what does it do?
a.It is the muscle of the nail matrix that pushes the nail plate forward
b.It is the muscle that opens and closes the iris of the eye
c.It is a tiny smooth-muscle slip attached to the side of the hair follicle; when it contracts it pulls the follicle upright and produces 'goosebumps' (cutis anserina) and helps squeeze the sebaceous gland to release sebum onto the hair✓
d.It is a striated voluntary muscle the client can contract on command to grow hair faster

The arrector pili is a small SMOOTH (involuntary) muscle that originates on the dermis and inserts on the side of the hair follicle. When it contracts in response to cold or fear, it stands the hair upright and dimples the surrounding skin to produce goosebumps. Its contraction also helps express sebum from the attached sebaceous gland up the follicle to the surface. It is not voluntary, not involved in nail anatomy, and not in the eye. Cosmetologists rely on integumentary anatomy daily under the general competence duties at Bus. & Prof. Code §7320. Options A, B, and D describe entirely different structures.

Bus. & Prof. Code §7320
91. Hair color is determined by two melanin pigments produced by melanocytes in the hair bulb. Which pairing is correct?
a.Both eumelanin and pheomelanin produce identical brown only; tone differences come entirely from the cuticle
b.Eumelanin (a larger, oval-shaped granule) produces brown to black tones; pheomelanin (a smaller, more granular pigment) produces red to yellow tones; their relative ratio explains the spectrum from black to platinum✓
c.Both are produced in the cuticle, not in the bulb, and only after age 30
d.Eumelanin produces red/yellow tones; pheomelanin produces brown/black tones

Two melanins are made in the hair bulb by melanocytes adjacent to the dermal papilla. EUMELANIN is the larger oval-shaped pigment responsible for brown and black tones; the more eumelanin and the larger the molecules, the darker the hair. PHEOMELANIN is the smaller, granular pigment responsible for red, orange, and yellow tones. Every hair has BOTH, in varying ratios; that ratio (plus melanin quantity overall) produces the entire natural spectrum. Knowing eumelanin breaks down first during lifting explains why lifted hair always pulls through warm intermediate stages. Cosmetologists apply this under the general competence duties at Bus. & Prof. Code §7320.

Bus. & Prof. Code §7320
92. Which list correctly identifies the THREE main layers of the integumentary system from superficial to deep?
a.Epidermis, subcutaneous, dermis
b.Subcutaneous, dermis, epidermis
c.Dermis, epidermis, subcutaneous (hypodermis)
d.Epidermis (outermost), dermis (middle, with most blood vessels, nerves, glands, and hair follicles), subcutaneous / hypodermis (deepest, mostly adipose / fat tissue providing insulation and cushioning)✓

From the outside in, the integumentary system has three principal layers: the EPIDERMIS (avascular, multi-layered keratinized epithelium with melanocytes), the DERMIS (vascularized connective tissue containing blood vessels, sensory nerves, sebaceous and sudoriferous glands, and hair follicles), and the SUBCUTANEOUS or HYPODERMIS layer (mainly adipose tissue plus larger vessels and nerves, providing insulation, energy storage, and cushioning). Cosmetic services act on the epidermis and at most the upper papillary dermis; cosmetologists may not legally penetrate the dermis. Options A, B, and C scramble the order in ways the exam tests directly. Scope and competence sit under Bus. & Prof. Code §7320.

Bus. & Prof. Code §7320
93. A client mentions during consultation that she takes blood-thinner medication (warfarin) after a heart-valve replacement. The MOST relevant cardiovascular consideration for the licensee is to:
a.Refuse all service because every service is unsafe for cardiac clients
b.Proceed without modification because cosmetic services have nothing to do with cardiology
c.Take extra care to avoid any service that breaks skin or aggressively pushes cuticle, since anticoagulation prolongs bleeding from even small nicks; avoid invasive electrotherapy contraindicated by pacemakers, and document the disclosure on the consultation form, referring questions back to her physician✓
d.Apply pressure to the carotid artery to slow her pulse during the service

Clients on anticoagulants such as warfarin, apixaban, or aspirin therapy bleed longer and more easily from minor nicks (cuticle, shave, brow tweezing) than the general population. The licensee should document the disclosure on the consultation form, avoid any service that breaks skin or aggressively pushes the cuticle, and avoid services contraindicated by the underlying condition (for example, high-frequency current is contraindicated for pacemakers). The licensee may not diagnose, advise about medication, or perform medical maneuvers (option D is unsafe and outside scope). Refusing all services (option A) and ignoring the disclosure (option B) are both extreme. Competence and scope are set under Bus. & Prof. Code §7320.

Bus. & Prof. Code §7320
94. The sudoriferous glands and the sebaceous glands have different secretions, structures, and purposes. Which pairing is correct?
a.Sudoriferous glands secrete sebum directly onto the hair; sebaceous glands secrete sweat through pores
b.Sudoriferous (sweat) glands secrete a watery solution of water, salts, and urea for thermoregulation through coiled tubular glands opening directly onto the skin via sweat pores; sebaceous (oil) glands are saclike holocrine glands that empty oily sebum into the upper hair follicle✓
c.Both secrete melanin
d.Both are identical glands with different names

Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are coiled tubular structures in the dermis that secrete a thin watery fluid of water, sodium chloride, and urea directly onto the skin surface through their own pores; their main job is thermoregulation, with apocrine variants in the axilla and groin contributing to body odor. Sebaceous (oil) glands are saclike, holocrine, attached to nearly every hair follicle except palms and soles; they secrete sebum (a lipid mixture from the breakdown of the gland's own cells) into the upper portion of the hair follicle, lubricating skin and hair. Neither secretes melanin. Cosmetologists rely on this anatomy under Bus. & Prof. Code §7320.

Bus. & Prof. Code §7320

Chemistry & Products

64 questions
1. On the pH scale, which value represents a neutral solution at room temperature?
a.0
b.14
c.7✓
d.10

The pH scale runs from 0 to 14. A value of 7 is neutral (the pH of pure water). Below 7 is acidic; above 7 is alkaline.

2. What is the approximate natural pH range of healthy hair and skin?
a.3.5 to 4.0
b.7.0 to 8.0
c.4.5 to 5.5✓
d.1.5 to 3.0

Healthy hair and skin sit in a slightly acidic range of about 4.5 to 5.5. This is often called the acid mantle and helps protect against bacteria and moisture loss.

3. A change from pH 5 to pH 7 represents how much of a change in hydrogen ion concentration?
a.2 times less acidic
b.10 times less acidic
c.100 times less acidic✓
d.No change

The pH scale is logarithmic, so each whole number is a tenfold change. Two units (pH 5 to pH 7) means the solution is 10 x 10 = 100 times less acidic.

4. Sodium hydroxide hair relaxers (commonly called 'lye relaxers') typically have a pH of approximately:
a.7 to 8
b.5 to 6
c.12 to 14✓
d.9 to 10

Sodium hydroxide relaxers are very alkaline, with a pH of about 12 to 14. The high pH swells and breaks disulfide bonds quickly, so processing must be timed carefully to avoid scalp burns.

5. Which statement best describes a 'no-lye' relaxer compared to a 'lye' relaxer?
a.No-lye relaxers are stronger than lye relaxers
b.No-lye relaxers use guanidine hydroxide and tend to be gentler on the scalp but can leave hair drier✓
c.No-lye relaxers contain sodium hydroxide and process faster
d.No-lye relaxers are neutral in pH and require no neutralizer

No-lye relaxers most commonly use guanidine hydroxide (mixed on site from calcium hydroxide and guanidine carbonate). They are generally less irritating to the scalp but can leave more mineral deposits, making hair feel drier.

6. Which chemical bond is broken when hair is permanently waved or relaxed?
a.Hydrogen bonds
b.Peptide bonds
c.Disulfide bonds✓
d.Salt bonds

Permanent waving and chemical relaxing both break and reform the disulfide bonds in keratin. Hydrogen and salt bonds are only temporarily broken by water or heat styling.

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