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Hair Services

68 questions
38. On the standard hair-color level system used industry-wide, which numbers represent the darkest and lightest natural levels respectively?
a.Level 1 is black; level 10 is lightest blonde✓
b.Level 5 is black; level 20 is platinum
c.Level 1 is lightest blonde; level 10 is black
d.Level 0 is white; level 5 is black

The universal level system runs from 1 (black) to 10 (lightest blonde), measuring lightness or darkness of the hair. Tone refers to the warmth or coolness within a level. Numbering above 10 is used in some lines but the core scale is 1-10.

39. A client has level 6 natural hair and wants to go to level 8. Which volume of hydrogen peroxide developer is typically appropriate when used with a permanent color?
a.40 volume (3-4 levels of lift)
b.10 volume (no lift)
c.30 volume (2-3 levels of lift)
d.20 volume (1-2 levels of lift)✓

20 volume peroxide provides approximately 1-2 levels of lift and full gray coverage, matching a 2-level lift from 6 to 8. 10 volume gives no lift (deposit only), 30 volume lifts 2-3 levels, and 40 volume lifts 3-4 levels and is generally reserved for high-lift formulations.

40. What volume of hydrogen peroxide developer deposits color without lifting natural pigment?
a.10 volume✓
b.30 volume
c.40 volume
d.20 volume

10 volume peroxide is a deposit-only developer used when the goal is to add tone or darken without lightening the natural pigment. Higher volumes progressively lift more underlying pigment as the percentage of hydrogen peroxide rises.

41. What is the primary difference between a single-process and a double-process hair color service?
a.Single-process requires a patch test; double-process does not
b.Single-process uses semipermanent dye; double-process uses temporary dye
c.Single-process is performed by barbers; double-process is performed only by cosmetologists
d.Single-process lifts and deposits in one step; double-process pre-lightens first, then deposits tone in a second step✓

A single-process color combines lift and deposit in one application. A double-process requires first pre-lightening (bleaching) the hair to remove pigment and then applying a separate toner or color in a second step. Double-process is used for dramatic light blondes or fashion shades.

42. Which highlighting technique uses a perforated plastic cap and a crochet hook to pull strands through holes for lightening?
a.Ombré sweep
b.Foil highlighting
c.Balayage
d.Cap highlighting✓

Cap highlighting places a perforated cap over clean hair, and a crochet hook pulls selected strands through the holes for lightener application. Foil highlighting wraps sections in foil for greater precision. Balayage is freehand surface painting; ombré is a graduated dark-to-light effect.

43. What is the chemical difference between highlights and lowlights?
a.Highlights are only for blondes; lowlights are only for brunettes
b.Highlights deposit color; lowlights remove color
c.Highlights are temporary; lowlights are permanent
d.Highlights lighten strands using an oxidative lightener; lowlights deposit a darker shade than the natural base✓

Highlights chemically lighten selected strands using a lightener or high-lift color (oxidation removes pigment). Lowlights use deposit-only or oxidative color to add strands darker than the existing base for depth and dimension. Either may be applied via foil, balayage, or cap.

44. After pre-lightening, a typical demi-permanent toner is processed for how long, and the operator monitors visually?
a.Overnight
b.5 to 15 minutes at room temperature with frequent visual checks✓
c.60 minutes covered with a plastic cap
d.30 to 45 minutes under heat

Toners are typically demi-permanent or semipermanent products processed 5 to 15 minutes at room temperature, with the operator checking the color development every few minutes because over-processing leads to muddy or undesired tones. Manufacturer instructions always govern exact timing.

45. Within hair-texture classification systems, what does "type 4" describe?
a.Coily or kinky hair with very tight zig-zag or spring-like pattern✓
b.Curly hair with a defined spiral
c.Straight hair with no curl pattern
d.Wavy hair with a loose S pattern

Common hair-typing systems describe type 1 as straight, type 2 as wavy, type 3 as curly, and type 4 as coily or kinky with a tight zig-zag, spring, or Z-pattern. Each type has subcategories (a/b/c) reflecting tightness. Texture (strand diameter) is separate from wave pattern.

46. Before any chemical service, a scalp examination is required. Which finding requires the licensee to postpone or refuse the service?
a.Recently shampooed hair
b.A few flakes of dandruff
c.Abrasions, scratches, open sores, or irritated skin on the scalp✓
d.Slight oiliness near the hairline

Chemicals applied to broken or irritated skin can cause burns, systemic absorption, or severe reactions. Abrasions, scratches, open sores, or any signs of disease or irritation require the licensee to postpone or refuse the chemical service. Minor oiliness or normal dandruff alone is not a contraindication.

16 CCR §979
47. Resistant gray hair often refuses to absorb color evenly. Which preparation technique helps the cuticle accept the color?
a.Skip the patch test
b.Apply 40 volume peroxide to the gray strands first
c.Pre-soften or pre-pigment the resistant area before applying the final color formula✓
d.Pre-shampoo with sulfate-free conditioner

Resistant gray has tightly compacted cuticle scales. Pre-softening (mild peroxide application) gently raises the cuticle, and pre-pigmentation deposits a warm base so the final permanent color penetrates and looks balanced. Higher peroxide volumes alone risk damage and do not solve cuticle resistance.

48. Which chemical relaxer is classified as a no-lye relaxer and is commonly marketed for at-home or sensitive-scalp use?
a.Guanidine hydroxide✓
b.Lithium hydroxide
c.Sodium hydroxide
d.Potassium hydroxide

Guanidine hydroxide is a no-lye relaxer formed by mixing calcium hydroxide with a guanidine carbonate activator. It is gentler on the scalp than sodium hydroxide (lye) relaxers but can leave hair drier. Sodium, lithium, and potassium hydroxide are lye relaxers.

49. Which reducing agent is commonly used in thio relaxers, which are milder than hydroxide-based relaxers?
a.Sodium hydroxide
b.Guanidine hydroxide
c.Hydrogen peroxide
d.Ammonium thioglycolate✓

Ammonium thioglycolate (thio) breaks disulfide bonds via reduction rather than the higher-pH hydroxide cleavage. Thio relaxers are milder and often used on previously color-treated or finer hair. Hydroxide relaxers (sodium, guanidine) are stronger and work by lanthionization.

50. Compared with acid permanent waves, what pH range and characteristics define alkaline (cold) waves?
a.pH 9.0 to 9.6, processes at room temperature, produces firm curl✓
b.pH 6.5 to 7.0, requires no neutralizer
c.pH 11.0 to 14.0, processes in five seconds
d.pH 4.5 to 7.0, requires external heat, slower processing

Alkaline or cold permanent waves run pH 9.0 to 9.6 with ammonium thioglycolate, process at room temperature, and create a firm curl. Acid waves run pH 4.5 to 7.0 using glyceryl monothioglycolate, usually require heat, process more slowly, and produce a softer curl.

51. A razor-cutting technique that removes bulk and softens ends by gliding the razor along a section of hair is best described as:
a.Slithering (effilating) along the strand✓
b.Point cutting with shears at 90 degrees
c.Clipper-over-comb
d.Blunt cutting on wet hair

Slithering, also called effilating, glides the razor (or open shears) along a section to taper and remove bulk while softening ends. Point cutting jabs the tips of the shears into the ends for texture. Razor work is generally performed on wet hair to avoid splitting the cuticle.

52. Which thermal styling temperature range is most appropriate for fine, fragile, or chemically treated hair?
a.Under 300°F (under 150°C)✓
b.350 to 375°F (175-190°C)
c.400 to 450°F (205-232°C)
d.375 to 400°F (190-205°C)

Fine, fragile, or chemically processed hair should be styled under 300°F (about 150°C) to limit cuticle damage. Medium hair generally tolerates 300-380°F, and very coarse or resistant hair may need up to 400-450°F, but the lowest effective temperature is always preferred to preserve hair integrity.

53. A client received a patch test 48 hours ago and the test site now shows redness, swelling, and itching. What is the correct action?
a.Do not perform the color service; advise the client to consult a physician✓
b.Perform the service but dilute the color with conditioner
c.Perform a second patch test on the other arm and continue
d.Switch to 10-volume developer and proceed

A positive patch test (redness, swelling, itching, blistering) means the client is sensitive to ingredients in the formula, most often PPD. The service must not be performed; the client should be advised to consult a physician. Diluting or changing developer does not eliminate the allergen.

54. After completing a chemical service that touched the comb, neck strip, and cape, what must the licensee do before the next client?
a.Rinse tools in warm tap water
b.Discard single-use items and clean and disinfect all multi-use tools with an EPA-registered hospital-grade disinfectant✓
c.Spray the cape with cologne
d.Wipe the comb with a dry towel only

Board sanitation rules require single-use items (neck strips, applicator brushes, etc.) to be discarded and multi-use tools (combs, clips, shears) to be cleaned and then disinfected with an EPA-registered, hospital-grade disinfectant before reuse. Capes that touch skin must be laundered or covered with a clean neck strip.

16 CCR §979
55. A client requests a 'spiral perm' for very long hair. Which rod and wrapping pattern most appropriately produces a spiral curl?
a.Bender rods folded in half so the hair stacks at the scalp
b.Long, straight rods wrapped vertically from scalp to ends in a helical (spiral) fashion, so each rotation of the rod produces a different turn of the spiral✓
c.Concave rods wrapped horizontally across the head with overlapping bands
d.Tool-free wrap; the practitioner simply twirls the hair and waits for the lotion to act

Spiral perming produces a uniform, corkscrew curl from scalp to ends, which is the visual effect the client wants. It requires long, straight rods (or specially designed spiral rods) wrapped vertically along the strand so that each rotation produces a fresh turn of the helix. Concave rods wrapped horizontally produce a 'croquignole' curl pattern that is tightest at the ends and loosest at the scalp, not a spiral. Bender rods produce a soft, irregular bend. There is no acceptable tool-free perm. California licensees perform perms under CCR Title 16 §979.4.

CCR Title 16 §979.4
56. A foiling technique that begins at a precise parting and selects very thin slices of hair on the foil, alternating with thicker slices left out, in order to produce a softly blended, sun-touched look is best described as:
a.Slicing for high-contrast chunky stripes
b.Weaving for a fine, blended, dimensional highlight✓
c.Cap highlighting for a uniform, even allover lift
d.Balayage applied without foil

Weaving uses the tail of the comb to lift a very thin alternating selection of hair onto the foil, leaving an equal or thicker section out. The result is a fine, dimensional, soft-blend highlight, ideal for a sun-touched look. Slicing (option A) takes a single solid slice, producing thicker, higher-contrast stripes. Cap highlighting (option C) pulls strands through a perforated cap and produces a uniform pattern but is not foil-based. Balayage (option D) is freehand painting that is generally done without foil, and is also a different selection logic. California licensees perform color under CCR Title 16 §979.4.

CCR Title 16 §979.4
57. The 'tone' designation on a hair color label (for example, 6N, 6G, 6A) tells the stylist:
a.The dominant reflective hue at that level, such as Natural, Gold, or Ash, allowing the colorist to predict warmth or coolness and to choose corrective tones using the color wheel✓
b.The viscosity of the cream base
c.Whether the formula contains ammonia
d.The recommended processing time only

Hair color is specified as a level (1 to 10 from darkest to lightest) and a tone (the reflective hue at that level, such as N for natural, G for gold, A for ash, R for red, V for violet). The tone tells the colorist whether the formula will pull warm or cool and is used together with the color wheel to neutralize unwanted tones (for example, a violet-based toner neutralizes yellow). Viscosity, processing time, and ammonia content are formulation properties not encoded in the level-and-tone label. California licensees apply oxidative color under CCR Title 16 §979.4.

CCR Title 16 §979.4
58. During a relaxing scalp massage at the shampoo bowl, the practitioner should move with which pattern and pressure to maximize relaxation and lymph/blood return?
a.Static pressing with the palms while not moving the hands at all for several minutes
b.Hard, fast scrubbing with the fingernails to stimulate the scalp
c.Tugging straight upward on the hair shafts repeatedly to lift the follicles
d.Slow, rhythmic, circular motions with the pads of the fingers (not nails), working from the front hairline back, and from the occipital toward the crown, using firm but comfortable pressure✓

Effective scalp massage uses the PADS of the fingers, never the nails, to perform slow, rhythmic, circular movements. The pattern typically begins at the front hairline and works back, and also from the occipital toward the crown, mobilizing the scalp over the cranium and aiding venous and lymphatic return. Pressure should be firm enough to move the scalp on the bone but not so hard that it tears hair. Option B scratches the scalp and is a contraindication for chemical services. Option C pulls on hair, not on scalp. Option A is not massage at all. Scope of practice is set under CCR Title 16 §979.4.

CCR Title 16 §979.4
59. A stylist sections damp hair into four quadrants with a center part and an ear-to-ear part before beginning a precision cut. The PRIMARY purpose of clean sectioning is to:
a.Speed the blow-dry at the end of the service
b.Reduce shampoo product use
c.Establish consistent control of the strands, isolate each subsection so that elevation and angle stay accurate, and prevent stray hairs from being cut by mistake✓
d.Make the cut appear longer than it really is

Clean four-quadrant sectioning gives the stylist control of the hair, isolates the subsection actively being cut, and ensures that elevation and finger angles remain accurate so that the cut is consistent and reproducible. It also keeps unsectioned hair out of the line of the shears, reducing accidental cuts. Speed of blow-drying, shampoo volume, and visual elongation are unrelated to sectioning. Scope-of-practice for cutting is established under CCR Title 16 §979.4 and the BBC's enabling statute.

CCR Title 16 §979.4
60. A client has previously been color-treated to a level 8 warm blonde and now wants to return to her natural level 5 cool brown in one appointment. The safest color-correction strategy is to:
a.Use a black box dye from a drugstore to guarantee dark deposit
b.Apply a level 5 ash permanent color directly over the blonde at 20 volume and process for a full 45 minutes
c.Pre-pigment the hair with a warm gold/orange filler (level 5 to 6) to replace the missing red-orange undertone, then apply a level 5 cool-brown deposit-only formula at 10 volume✓
d.Apply a high-lift series 12 color at 40 volume to clear all existing pigment, then a single coat of level 5

Going darker on previously lightened hair requires REPLACING the underlying warm pigment that bleaching removed; without it the deposit looks ashy, dull, and 'green' because the hair lacks its red-orange contributing pigment. The professional correction is to pre-pigment (fill) with a warm gold/orange filler matched to the natural underlying tone at level 5 to 6, then immediately follow with a deposit-only level 5 cool-brown formula at 10 volume. Option B skips the fill and produces a muddy green-gray result. Option D uses a lifting formula when no lift is needed and ruins integrity. Option A substitutes an unknown drugstore formula for color theory. California licensees perform oxidative color under CCR Title 16 §979.4 and must understand contributing pigment to deliver predictable color.

CCR Title 16 §979.4
61. A salon offers both a 'gloss' and a 'glaze' add-on after a color service. Which statement most accurately distinguishes them as commonly used by manufacturers?
a.Both terms are protected by federal trademark and have a single legal definition
b.Both terms describe permanent lifteners that contain bleach
c.Both terms describe semi- or demi-permanent depositing services that add tone and shine; in common usage a 'gloss' is often a demi-permanent (with low-volume developer) that lasts 4 to 6 weeks, while a 'glaze' is often a non-developer acidic deposit that lasts 1 to 2 weeks✓
d.A gloss is always permanent oxidative color; a glaze is always pure conditioner with no dye

Manufacturers use the terms inconsistently, but in common professional usage a GLOSS is a demi-permanent depositing color mixed with low-volume developer (often 5 volume) that lasts 4 to 6 weeks and refreshes tone and adds shine. A GLAZE is typically an acidic, no-developer treatment that coats the cuticle, deposits a faint tone, and lasts 1 to 2 weeks until it shampoos off. Neither term is federally protected. Neither contains lift agents. California licensees perform both services under CCR Title 16 §979.4. Option A invents legal protection. Options B and D mislabel the chemistry entirely.

CCR Title 16 §979.4
62. The MAIN visual and technical difference between traditional FOIL highlights and BALAYAGE is best described as:
a.Foil is faster and produces less dimension; balayage is slower and produces a single solid color
b.Foil highlights wash out in two weeks; balayage is permanent
c.Foil highlights are applied to woven or sliced sections wrapped in foil for an isolated, even lift from scalp to ends; balayage is freehand-painted onto the surface of the hair without foil, producing a softer, more graduated, sun-kissed result with little or no scalp saturation✓
d.Foil highlights are always done with bleach; balayage is always done with permanent color

Foil highlighting uses a thin woven or sliced section, saturated with lightener, sealed in foil from scalp to ends, producing a brighter, more uniform, edge-to-edge lift. Balayage (French for 'to sweep') is freehand-painted on the surface of the section, usually without foil, with heavier saturation toward mid-lengths and ends and a soft, blurry start, producing a graduated, sun-kissed effect with very little scalp lift. Both can be done with bleach or with permanent color; both can be applied to all colors of hair. California licensees perform both services under CCR Title 16 §979.4. Options A, B, and D state characteristics that simply are not true of either technique.

CCR Title 16 §979.4
63. A salon offers Brazilian-style smoothing treatments. The chemistry-and-safety concern that California regulators have repeatedly flagged is that many such products release:
a.Ammonia at a very low ppm that is exempt from disclosure
b.Formaldehyde (or methylene glycol that decomposes to formaldehyde) when heated by the flat iron, exceeding occupational exposure limits and triggering hazard communication and ventilation duties✓
c.Pure water vapor only
d.Carbon dioxide, which is non-toxic at any level

Many keratin smoothing systems contain methylene glycol (formaldehyde dissolved in water) or other formaldehyde-releasing ingredients. When the product-saturated hair is flat-ironed at high temperature, the solution releases free formaldehyde into the breathing zone of the stylist and client, often exceeding the Cal/OSHA permissible exposure limit (0.75 ppm 8-hour TWA) and short-term exposure limit (2 ppm 15 min). Cal/OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard §5194 requires accurate SDS disclosure, employee training, and engineering controls (local exhaust ventilation). Options A, C, and D minimize or misstate the hazard. The exam tests recognition that formaldehyde is the regulated airborne contaminant, not water vapor or CO2.

Cal/OSHA §5194
64. A client asks for a 'double-process' blonde service. Compared with a single-process color, a double process means:
a.The same single bottle of color is applied twice in one sitting for richer deposit
b.Two separate chemical steps are used: first a pre-lightener (bleach) to remove natural pigment to the target level, then a separate toner or oxidative color to deposit the desired tone✓
c.The hair is shampooed twice before color is applied
d.Two stylists are required by California law to perform the service

A SINGLE-process color completes lift (if any) and deposit in a single application of one formula. A DOUBLE-process service uses two distinct chemical steps in sequence: a pre-lightener (typically powder bleach plus developer) lifts the natural pigment to the required underlying level, then a separate toner or oxidative color is applied to deposit the chosen cool, neutral, or warm tone. This is the standard route to pale-cool blonde from a darker natural starting point. California licensees perform both processes under CCR Title 16 §979.4. Option A confuses re-application with double process. Options C and D invent rules with no statutory basis.

CCR Title 16 §979.4
65. A client wants long extensions for a wedding next month but plans to remove them after the event. The MOST removable, least chemically/mechanically aggressive professional extension method commonly chosen for this short timeframe is:
a.Keratin-bond fusion extensions, melted into each strand and removed with solvent
b.Micro-link / micro-bead extensions that crimp around the natural hair with no heat or glue
c.Sew-in weft extensions installed onto small braided cornrow tracks, removable in one appointment by cutting the thread without affecting the natural hair✓
d.Glue-in tape that is forced down with a hot fusion iron

For a short-term wedding install with planned removal, sew-in wefts on braided tracks are very removable: the stylist clips the cotton or nylon thread, the wefts release, the cornrow tracks unravel, and the natural hair returns to its prior state without solvent, heat, or pulled-out strands. Fusion (option A) leaves keratin residue and requires solvent for removal. Micro-link (option B) is removable but can damage the strand at the bead point if installed too tightly. Tape-ins are usually applied with adhesive only, NOT with a fusion iron (option D mixes two systems). California licensees apply extensions under their general hair-services scope at CCR Title 16 §979.4.

CCR Title 16 §979.4
66. The chemistry difference between a thio relaxer (ammonium thioglycolate-based) and a hydroxide relaxer (sodium hydroxide or 'lye') is best described as:
a.Both require an oxidizing peroxide neutralizer to lock in the straightened shape
b.Both relaxers work by the same redox mechanism; only the brand differs
c.Thio relaxers raise pH to 13; hydroxide relaxers lower pH to 5
d.A thio relaxer chemically REDUCES disulfide bonds (breaking them by adding hydrogen) and requires a separate oxidizing neutralizer to rebuild them; a hydroxide relaxer chemically converts cystine disulfide bonds into a single lanthionine bond, a permanent change that is NOT reformed and is followed by an acid-balancing rinse rather than an oxidizing neutralizer✓

Thio relaxers (ammonium or sodium thioglycolate, pH around 9 to 10) break disulfide bonds reductively by donating hydrogen; the bonds can be rebuilt in a new position by an oxidizing neutralizer, the same as in a cold perm. Hydroxide relaxers (sodium, lithium, potassium, or guanidine hydroxide at pH 12 to 14) act by lanthionization: the disulfide bond loses a sulfur atom and becomes a single lanthionine bond that is permanent and irreversible, so an acid-balancing neutralizing shampoo (not peroxide) is used afterward to lower pH. Knowing the difference is critical: NEVER apply a thio over a hydroxide-relaxed head or vice versa, because the chemistries are incompatible and cause breakage. Cal/OSHA §5194 SDS hazard disclosure covers both classes.

Cal/OSHA §5194
67. A client books a 'scalp treatment' add-on for chronic dryness and flaking. Within California cosmetology scope, an appropriate scalp treatment includes:
a.Diagnosing seborrheic dermatitis and prescribing ketoconazole shampoo
b.Injecting platelet-rich plasma into the scalp
c.Performing dermarolling with a 0.5 mm needle to drive growth serum into the dermis
d.Cleansing with a clarifying shampoo, applying a moisturizing or exfoliating scalp masque (cosmetic, OTC), performing a relaxation scalp massage, rinsing, and recommending an OTC home-care regimen, while referring suspected medical scalp conditions to a physician✓

Cosmetology scope in California covers cosmetic, non-invasive scalp and hair treatments: clarifying shampoos, OTC scalp masques, manual exfoliating scrubs, hot-towel and steam treatments, and relaxation massage. Diagnosing conditions like seborrheic dermatitis (option A), administering prescription drugs, performing PRP injections (option B), or piercing the skin with a dermaroller of any depth (option C) is the practice of medicine or nursing and is OUTSIDE the scope of any BBC license. Suspected medical scalp conditions require referral. The general service scope and sanitation duties are set under CCR Title 16 §979.4 and the BBC's enabling statute.

CCR Title 16 §979.4
68. When razor cutting (using a styling/feathering razor), the BLADE ANGLE relative to the strand and the HAIR CONDITION both matter for a safe, clean cut. Best practice is to:
a.Hold the razor at 90 degrees on bleached hair to deliberately split the ends for texture
b.Use a straight razor with a permanent blade so the same blade serves many clients
c.Hold the razor at a shallow angle (close to parallel) to the strand, work on properly damp hair only, use a fresh guard for each client, and avoid razor cutting on very fine or chemically over-processed hair to prevent split ends✓
d.Hold the razor perpendicular to the strand (90 degrees) and cut dry hair to maximize control

A razor is held at a shallow angle (closer to parallel) to the strand so that the blade glides through, removing weight gradually and producing soft, textured ends. The hair must be DAMP, not dry, because dry razor cutting splits the cuticle. A fresh disposable guard or blade is used for each client per California single-use rules; a permanent straight-razor blade on multiple clients is prohibited because porous/edge surfaces touching skin cannot be reliably disinfected (the BBC requires single-use cutting blades that contact skin). Razor cutting is generally NOT recommended for fine or over-processed hair because it accelerates splitting. Scope and sanitation duties are set under CCR Title 16 §979.4.

CCR Title 16 §979.4

Skin & Nail Services

53 questions
1. A client asks for acrylic nail enhancements applied with methyl methacrylate (MMA) monomer. What must a California-licensed manicurist do?
a.Apply the MMA product if the client signs a waiver
b.Apply MMA only if the salon owner approves it in writing
c.Refuse the service because MMA is prohibited in California salons✓
d.Apply MMA only on toenails, not fingernails

California prohibits the use of methyl methacrylate (MMA) liquid monomer in nail products. Licensees must use ethyl methacrylate (EMA) or other approved monomers. MMA is brittle, hard to remove, and has caused injuries; a waiver cannot override a statutory ban.

BPC §7315
2. During lip waxing, after applying wax to one section of the lip, the esthetician should:
a.Re-dip only if the client has no visible skin damage
b.Wipe the stick on a tissue and re-dip it
c.Re-dip the same stick to coat the next section quickly
d.Discard the used stick and use a new one for any additional wax✓

California sanitation rules prohibit double-dipping wax applicators. Once a stick touches the skin, it must be discarded; the next application requires a fresh, single-use stick. This prevents transferring bacteria back into the wax pot.

16 CCR §979
3. A new client mentions she started oral isotretinoin (Accutane) two months ago for acne. She requests a brow wax. The correct action is to:
a.Perform the waxing only after a 24-hour patch test
b.Perform the waxing and apply extra moisturizer afterward
c.Perform the waxing but use a cooler wax temperature
d.Decline the waxing service and suggest she return after she has been off the medication for at least 6 months✓

Isotretinoin thins the skin and dramatically weakens its barrier. Waxing can lift live skin, leaving raw wounds and scars. The standard contraindication window is at least 6 months after the last dose. A cooler temperature or patch test does not eliminate the risk.

4. Before applying wax to a client's leg, where should the practitioner test the wax temperature?
a.On a paper towel until the wax cools visibly
b.On the client's outer thigh
c.On the client's earlobe
d.On the inside of the practitioner's own wrist✓

Standard safe practice is to test wax temperature on the inside of the practitioner's own wrist, where the skin is thin and sensitive. Testing on the client risks burning them, and a paper towel does not reveal how the wax will feel on skin.

5. A client's facial skin shows enlarged pores in the T-zone but dry, tight cheeks. This skin is best classified as:
a.Oily
b.Dry
c.Combination✓
d.Sensitive

Combination skin has different conditions in different zones, typically oily forehead/nose/chin (T-zone) and drier cheeks. Treatment must be tailored zone by zone rather than treating the whole face as oily or dry.

6. Which cranial nerve provides the main motor supply to the muscles of facial expression?
a.Vagus nerve (CN X)
b.Optic nerve (CN II)
c.Trigeminal nerve (CN V)
d.Facial nerve (CN VII)✓

The facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) controls the muscles of facial expression. The trigeminal nerve (CN V) is mainly sensory for the face and motor only to the chewing muscles. Estheticians should know this when performing facial massage.

7. Which cranial nerve carries most of the sensation from the skin of the face?
a.Trigeminal nerve (CN V)✓
b.Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
c.Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)
d.Facial nerve (CN VII)

The trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V) provides sensory innervation to almost all of the face through its three branches: ophthalmic (V1), maxillary (V2), and mandibular (V3). The facial nerve is mostly motor.

8. Which is the correct general order in a basic facial?
a.Cleanse → exfoliate → massage → mask → tone → moisturize → SPF✓
b.Cleanse → moisturize → exfoliate → mask → tone → SPF
c.Mask → cleanse → moisturize → exfoliate → SPF
d.Exfoliate → cleanse → tone → mask → SPF

A standard facial starts by cleansing the skin, then removes dead cells with exfoliation, optionally extracts where appropriate, moves into massage, applies a treatment mask, tones, moisturizes, and finishes with SPF for daytime sun protection.

9. A client requests a manicure. During the cuticle step, the manicurist should:
a.Gently push back the cuticle and only trim dead, lifted skin if needed✓
b.Cut the entire cuticle along the nail edge with nippers
c.Cut the eponychium with a sharp blade
d.Remove the entire fold of skin around the nail

Manicurists must NOT cut living tissue. The proper technique is to soften the cuticle, gently push it back, and only trim already-loose dead skin if necessary. Cutting living cuticle or the eponychium can cause infection and is outside safe practice.

10. A client asks a California-licensed manicurist to wax her eyebrows. The manicurist should:
a.Perform the service because waxing is sanitary
b.Decline because eyebrow waxing is outside the manicurist's scope of practice✓
c.Perform the service if she has personally taken a waxing class
d.Perform the service only on female clients

A California manicurist license covers care of the nails and surrounding skin of the hands and feet. Facial skin services such as eyebrow waxing are outside scope; that work requires an esthetician or cosmetology license.

BPC §7316
11. A pedicure client has a thickened, yellow, crumbling toenail that has been worsening for months. The professional response is to:
a.File the nail down very thin so polish will hide it
b.Soak the foot in disinfectant and continue the service
c.Decline the toenail service on that nail and refer the client to a physician or podiatrist✓
d.Buff the nail smooth and apply colored polish to hide it

A thickened, yellow, crumbling toenail is a likely sign of onychomycosis (nail fungus), which is a medical condition. Services on the infected nail are contraindicated. The proper action is to skip that nail and refer to a physician or podiatrist.

12. A client comes in with redness, swelling, and pus along the side of the fingernail fold. This is most consistent with:
a.Paronychia (bacterial infection of the nail fold)✓
b.Healthy regrowth
c.Ingrown nail only
d.Onychomycosis (nail fungus)

Paronychia is a bacterial infection of the soft tissue around the nail, often causing redness, swelling, and pus. It is contraindicated for cosmetic nail services; the client should be referred to a physician for treatment.

13. Gel polish hardens (cures) primarily because of:
a.The base coat reacting with metal in the file
b.Heat from the client's body
c.Exposure to UV or LED light that triggers polymerization✓
d.Air drying as the solvent evaporates

Gel polish contains photoinitiators that begin polymerization when exposed to specific wavelengths of UV or LED light. Without proper light exposure for the required time, the gel will not fully cure, which can cause skin allergy and lifting.

14. Between two pedicure clients, the foot spa basin must be:
a.Cleaned of debris, then disinfected with an EPA-registered hospital-grade disinfectant for the contact time on the label✓
b.Refilled with fresh water without any cleaning
c.Rinsed with warm water only
d.Wiped with a dry towel and re-used immediately

California sanitation rules require foot spas to be drained, cleaned of all visible debris, and disinfected with an EPA-registered hospital-grade disinfectant between every client, leaving the disinfectant in contact for the time stated on the product label.

16 CCR §979
15. Metal cuticle nippers used on one client and then needed for the next client must be:
a.Cleaned of debris, then fully immersed in an EPA-registered hospital-grade disinfectant for the contact time on the label✓
b.Rinsed under hot tap water
c.Wiped with a paper towel
d.Sprayed with a fragrance mist

Reusable, non-porous metal tools must be cleaned of debris and then fully immersed in an EPA-registered hospital-grade disinfectant for the contact time stated on the label. Wiping or rinsing does not disinfect.

16. Single-use items used in nail or skin services — such as wooden orangewood sticks, emery boards (one-time-use), and cotton pads — must be:
a.Discarded immediately after use on one client✓
b.Stored in a sealed jar for future use
c.Wiped with disinfectant and reused on the next client
d.Soaked in alcohol for 30 seconds and reused

Porous or single-use implements absorb material and cannot be effectively disinfected. California requires that any such item used on a client be discarded immediately afterward. Reusing them risks transferring fungi and bacteria.

17. A client requests a chemical peel during her facial. A California esthetician should:
a.Use any peel strength because she is licensed
b.Use peels labeled physician-only as long as a doctor is in the building
c.Use only superficial peels labeled and intended for esthetic, non-medical use, and never perform peels reaching the dermis✓
d.Use peels reaching the dermis if the client signs a waiver

Estheticians are limited to superficial, non-medical exfoliating peels (typically light AHA/BHA products meant for licensed esthetic use). Peels that penetrate to the dermis are a medical procedure outside their scope, regardless of client consent.

18. Which of the following is NOT within a California esthetician's scope of practice?
a.Injecting Botox or dermal fillers✓
b.Applying makeup
c.Performing a relaxing facial massage
d.Performing eyebrow waxing

Injectables are a medical act and must be performed by appropriately licensed medical professionals. Facials, makeup, and brow waxing fall within the esthetician scope.

19. A client says her facial skin stings whenever she tries a new product and turns red easily. This skin should be treated as:
a.Combination, requiring no special precautions
b.Mature, requiring deep peels
c.Oily, requiring stronger exfoliation
d.Sensitive, requiring gentle products and patch tests✓

Reactive, easily flushed skin that stings with new products is classified as sensitive. Sensitive skin needs gentle, fragrance-light products, lower-strength actives, and patch testing before introducing anything new.

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