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Casualty & Liability Insurance

60 questions
1. To establish a prima facie case of negligence against a defendant, a plaintiff must prove four elements. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
a.Intent on the part of the defendant to cause harm✓
b.Damages proximately caused by the breach
c.A legal duty of care owed by the defendant to the plaintiff
d.A breach of that duty by the defendant

Negligence requires (1) duty, (2) breach, (3) proximate (legal) cause, and (4) actual damages. Intent is NOT an element of negligence; it is the distinguishing feature of an intentional tort such as battery or false imprisonment. A negligent defendant may be liable even though he or she never intended any harm.

Common law of negligence (Restatement (Second) of Torts §281)
2. A jury finds that a California plaintiff was 80% at fault for an auto accident and the defendant was 20% at fault. Total damages are $100,000. Under California's negligence rule, how much may the plaintiff recover from the defendant?
a.$100,000, because comparative negligence only reduces non-economic damages
b.Nothing, because the plaintiff was more than 50% at fault
c.$50,000, because fault is split equally once both parties are negligent
d.$20,000, reflecting the defendant's share of fault✓

California follows PURE comparative negligence under Li v. Yellow Cab Co. The plaintiff's recovery is reduced by his or her own percentage of fault, but is not barred even if the plaintiff is more than 50% (or even 99%) at fault. An 80% at-fault plaintiff therefore recovers 20% of $100,000, or $20,000. States that use modified comparative negligence would bar this plaintiff, but California does not.

Li v. Yellow Cab Co., 13 Cal. 3d 804 (1975) (pure comparative negligence)
3. A plaintiff in California suffers $300,000 in economic damages (medical bills, lost wages) and $200,000 in non-economic damages (pain and suffering). Defendant A is 10% at fault; Defendant B (insolvent) is 90% at fault. Under Civil Code §1431.2, what may the plaintiff collect from Defendant A?
a.$30,000 (10% of economic only)
b.$500,000 (joint and several for everything)
c.$50,000 (10% of total damages)
d.$320,000 ($300,000 economic + $20,000 non-economic)✓

Proposition 51 (Civil Code §1431.2) retained joint and several liability for ECONOMIC damages but limited liability for NON-ECONOMIC damages to each defendant's percentage of fault. So Defendant A is jointly liable for the full $300,000 of economic damages, plus only 10% of the $200,000 in non-economic damages ($20,000), for a total of $320,000. The plaintiff cannot collect more non-economic damages from A because B is insolvent.

Cal. Civ. Code §1431.2 (Proposition 51)
4. A delivery driver, while making deliveries during work hours in a company van, negligently rear-ends another vehicle. The injured party sues the driver's employer. Under what doctrine may the employer be held liable for the driver's negligent act?
a.Respondeat superior (vicarious liability)✓
b.Strict liability for ultrahazardous activities
c.Assumption of risk
d.Res ipsa loquitur

Respondeat superior (Latin: 'let the master answer') makes an employer vicariously liable for the negligent acts of an employee committed within the course and scope of employment. The driver was performing job duties when the accident occurred, so the employer is jointly liable with the employee. Strict liability applies to abnormally dangerous activities (e.g., blasting); res ipsa loquitur is an evidentiary doctrine; assumption of risk is a defense to negligence.

Restatement (Third) of Agency §7.07 (respondeat superior)
5. Under the standard ISO Commercial General Liability (CGL) form CG 00 01, Coverage A pays sums the insured becomes legally obligated to pay as damages because of:
a.Personal and advertising injury, such as libel or slander
b.Medical payments without regard to fault
c.Bodily injury and property damage caused by an occurrence✓
d.Pollution arising from the named insured's premises

The standard CGL has three coverages. Coverage A pays for BODILY INJURY and PROPERTY DAMAGE caused by an OCCURRENCE during the policy period in the coverage territory. Coverage B addresses Personal and Advertising Injury (libel, slander, etc.). Coverage C is Medical Payments paid without regard to fault. Pollution is generally excluded under Coverage A subject to limited exceptions.

ISO Commercial General Liability Coverage Form (CG 00 01) – Coverage A
6. A small business is sued because its president, in a public speech, falsely accused a competitor of fraud. Which Coverage of the standard CGL is most likely to respond to this defamation suit?
a.Coverage A – Bodily Injury and Property Damage
b.An endorsement is needed because defamation is excluded
c.Coverage C – Medical Payments
d.Coverage B – Personal and Advertising Injury✓

Coverage B of the CGL (Personal and Advertising Injury) covers specific intentional, non-bodily-injury offenses, including: oral or written publication of material that slanders or libels a person or organization (defamation), violation of right of privacy, false arrest, malicious prosecution, wrongful eviction, and infringement of copyright/slogan in the named insured's advertisement. Defamation is therefore a classic Coverage B claim.

ISO CGL Coverage B – Personal and Advertising Injury
7. An OCCURRENCE-based CGL policy with a one-year term ending December 31, 2024, is in force. Bodily injury occurs on October 1, 2024, but the claim is not filed against the insured until April 2027. Which policy responds?
a.The policy in force on April 2027 (when the claim was made)
b.The policy in force on October 1, 2024 (when the injury occurred)✓
c.Both, with each paying 50%
d.Neither, because more than two years passed

Under an OCCURRENCE policy, coverage is triggered by the date of the OCCURRENCE (the bodily injury or property damage), not the date the claim is reported or filed. Even though the claim was filed almost three years later, the October 2024 policy responds. A CLAIMS-MADE policy works the opposite way: it would be triggered only if the claim were made (and reported) during the policy period.

ISO CGL – Occurrence vs. Claims-Made trigger
8. A CLAIMS-MADE CGL policy contains a retroactive date of January 1, 2022, and is in force from January 1, 2024, to January 1, 2025. The insured then non-renews and does NOT purchase an extended reporting period ("tail"). When is a claim covered?
a.When the claim is made within 6 years of the policy ending, under the basic ERP
b.Only if the injury occurred during 2024
c.When the bodily injury occurred on or after January 1, 2022, AND the claim is first made and reported during the 2024 policy period✓
d.When the bodily injury occurred between 2022 and 2024, regardless of when the claim is reported

A claims-made trigger requires TWO conditions: (1) the underlying injury occurred on or after the RETROACTIVE DATE (here, Jan. 1, 2022), and (2) the claim is first MADE against the insured AND reported to the insurer during the policy period (or during an ERP, if purchased). Without an ERP, a claim reported after Jan. 1, 2025 is not covered. A basic 5-year supplemental ERP is available for an additional premium, but the insured did not buy it.

ISO CGL – Claims-Made trigger, Retroactive Date, ERP
9. A standard CGL declarations page shows a $1,000,000 Each Occurrence Limit and a $2,000,000 General Aggregate Limit. The insured pays a $700,000 bodily injury claim early in the policy year and later faces an unrelated $600,000 claim. Assuming both are Coverage A losses subject only to the General Aggregate, how much will the insurer pay on the second claim?
a.$600,000, because the General Aggregate has $1,300,000 remaining✓
b.$300,000, because only half of the remaining aggregate is available
c.$0, because the Each Occurrence Limit is exhausted
d.$700,000, because each occurrence resets the aggregate

Each individual occurrence is capped by the EACH OCCURRENCE LIMIT ($1,000,000); $600,000 is well within that. The General Aggregate caps the TOTAL the insurer pays during the policy period for covered losses (other than Products-Completed Operations). After paying $700,000, the aggregate retains $1,300,000, so the full $600,000 second claim is paid. (The Products-Completed Operations Aggregate is a separate limit.)

ISO CGL – Limits of Insurance section
10. A general contractor finishes building a deck. Two months later, the deck collapses due to faulty workmanship and injures the homeowner. Which part of the contractor's CGL coverage would respond to the lawsuit?
a.Premises and Operations Liability
b.Personal Injury (Coverage B)
c.Products-Completed Operations Liability✓
d.Medical Payments (Coverage C)

Products-Completed Operations covers bodily injury and property damage arising AFTER the contractor's work is finished and away from the contractor's premises. Once the deck was complete and the contractor had left the job site, any later injury caused by that work falls under the Products-Completed Operations Hazard. Premises and Operations applies to injuries occurring at the insured's location or during ongoing work.

ISO CGL – Products-Completed Operations Hazard

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11. A customer slips and falls in a grocery store. The CGL Medical Payments (Coverage C) section will respond:
a.Only if the injury occurred more than 30 days after the policy began
b.Without regard to the insured's legal liability, up to the per-person Coverage C limit✓
c.Only if the customer first proves the store was negligent
d.Only after the customer signs a release of liability

Coverage C – Medical Payments is a no-fault, good-will coverage. It pays reasonable medical expenses for bodily injury caused by an accident on the insured's premises or operations, regardless of whether the insured was legally at fault. Limits are typically small ($5,000 to $10,000 per person). It is intended to discourage small claims from escalating into lawsuits under Coverage A.

ISO CGL Coverage C – Medical Payments
12. A licensed real estate agent is sued by a buyer for failing to disclose a known leaky roof. Which type of policy is most likely to cover this claim?
a.A standard CGL policy
b.A Professional Liability / Errors & Omissions (E&O) policy✓
c.The brokerage's workers' compensation and employers liability policy
d.The agent's personal homeowners policy, under Coverage E — Personal Liability

Professional Liability (also called Errors & Omissions or E&O) covers claims arising from the rendering of, or failure to render, professional services. A real estate agent's duty to disclose material defects is a professional duty, not a premises hazard. Standard CGL Coverage A excludes liability arising from professional services. Most E&O policies are written on a CLAIMS-MADE basis.

Professional liability / Errors & Omissions practice
13. Shareholders sue the board of directors of a corporation for breach of fiduciary duty in approving an unfavorable merger. Which policy is designed to cover the directors' defense costs and any settlement?
a.Directors & Officers (D&O) Liability✓
b.Employment Practices Liability (EPLI)
c.Commercial Auto Liability
d.Workers' compensation

Directors & Officers (D&O) Liability protects directors and officers from personal liability for 'wrongful acts' committed in their corporate capacity, such as alleged breaches of fiduciary duty, mismanagement, or misleading disclosures. EPLI covers employment-related wrongs (discrimination, harassment, wrongful termination), not duties owed to shareholders.

Directors & Officers (D&O) liability practice
14. A former employee sues her ex-employer alleging sexual harassment by a supervisor and wrongful termination in retaliation for complaining. Which type of liability policy is specifically designed to respond to these allegations?
a.Cyber Liability
b.Commercial General Liability (CGL) Coverage A
c.Workers' Compensation
d.Employment Practices Liability (EPLI)✓

Employment Practices Liability Insurance (EPLI) covers wrongful acts arising out of the employment relationship: sexual or other harassment, discrimination based on protected class, wrongful termination, retaliation, failure to promote, and similar claims. Workers' comp covers bodily-injury type work injuries (not intentional acts against employees). CGL Coverage A excludes injury arising out of the employment relationship.

Employment Practices Liability Insurance (EPLI)
15. A California retailer suffers a ransomware attack that exposes the personal data of 50,000 customers. The retailer's CGL policy excludes 'damages arising from access to or disclosure of confidential information.' Which separate policy is most likely intended to respond?
a.Commercial Auto
b.Cyber Liability✓
c.Employment Practices Liability
d.Liquor Liability

Cyber Liability policies cover both first-party costs (forensic investigation, notification under California Civil Code §1798.82, credit monitoring, ransomware payments, business interruption) and third-party liability (regulatory fines, customer lawsuits). Modern CGL forms now include a 'data breach' exclusion (ISO CG 21 06 or similar), making stand-alone cyber coverage essential.

Cyber Liability practice (CCPA implications)
16. Which statement BEST distinguishes a commercial umbrella policy from a true excess liability policy?
a.Umbrellas always pay first and excess always pays last
b.Excess policies provide a minimum of $1,000,000 of coverage above the underlying limits in every case, whereas umbrella policies carry no minimum limit and may be written for any amount the insured asks for
c.Excess policies are always cheaper than umbrella policies
d.An umbrella may 'drop down' to cover certain claims excluded by the underlying policy, whereas a true excess policy follows form and only sits on top of underlying limits✓

An UMBRELLA policy provides both (1) excess limits over the underlying policies AND (2) broader coverage that can 'drop down' to function as primary coverage where the underlying does not respond (subject to a self-insured retention). A true EXCESS policy follows form: it sits on top of the underlying limits but covers only what the underlying covers. Excess is narrower; umbrella is broader.

Commercial Umbrella vs. Excess Liability principles
17. Under California's Dram Shop law, a bar that sells alcohol to an OBVIOUSLY INTOXICATED MINOR who then causes a fatal car crash:
a.Is automatically liable to the injured parties under a strict-liability rule, so no proof of the minor's obvious intoxication is required and no separate Liquor Liability policy is ever needed
b.Is liable only to the minor, not to third parties
c.Has no civil exposure at all, because California abolished dram-shop liability outright and made the drinking of the alcohol, rather than its sale, the sole proximate cause of any resulting injury
d.May be civilly liable to injured third parties; Liquor Liability insurance is needed because the CGL excludes liquor liability for those in the business of selling alcohol✓

California generally bars dram-shop suits (Cal. Bus. & Prof. Code §25602(b)), but §25602.1 carves out a key exception: a licensed seller who furnishes alcohol to an OBVIOUSLY INTOXICATED MINOR may be civilly liable for resulting injuries. Because the standard CGL Liquor Liability Exclusion (CG 00 01) excludes liability of an insured 'in the business' of selling alcohol, a separate Liquor Liability policy is required.

Cal. Bus. & Prof. Code §25602.1 (Dram Shop)
18. California Insurance Code §11580 requires every liability policy issued or delivered in California to include a clause that:
a.Mandates a $1,000,000 minimum liability limit on every policy issued in the state, with proof of that limit filed with the Department of Insurance each year
b.Allows a judgment creditor to bring a direct action against the insurer after obtaining a final judgment against the insured✓
c.Prohibits the insurer from subrogating against its own insured or the insured's household members
d.Limits attorney's fees to 10% of the total recovery in any third-party liability claim, with any fee above that share refunded to the claimant within 30 days of settlement

Section 11580(b)(2) requires every California liability policy to permit a third-party judgment creditor, after obtaining a final judgment against the insured judgment debtor and after the insured's insolvency or bankruptcy, to bring a DIRECT ACTION against the insurer up to the policy limits. This protects injured plaintiffs when the insured cannot pay personally.

Cal. Ins. Code §11580(b)(2)
19. A California resident slips and breaks her arm on June 1, 2024. She does not file her personal injury lawsuit until July 1, 2026. Under California's statute of limitations, the lawsuit will MOST LIKELY be:
a.Timely, because there is no statute of limitations for negligence
b.Timely, because she has 4 years
c.Time-barred only if the defendant raises the issue, otherwise good for 6 years
d.Time-barred, because the statute of limitations for personal injury is 2 years✓

Code of Civil Procedure §335.1 sets a 2-year statute of limitations for personal injury or wrongful death actions in California. The injury occurred on June 1, 2024, so the deadline to file was June 1, 2026. Filing on July 1, 2026 is one month late and will be barred. (Written contract claims have 4 years under §337; oral contracts have 2 years under §339.)

Cal. Code Civ. Proc. §335.1 (2 years for personal injury); §337 (4 years for written contract)
20. Which of the following BEST describes the difference between tort liability and contract liability?
a.Tort damages are always capped at $250,000 by statute, covering economic and non-economic loss alike, while contract damages are unlimited and may be recovered in whatever amount the plaintiff proves at trial, no matter how serious the injury suffered by the plaintiff
b.Tort liability arises from a breach of a duty imposed by law (independent of any agreement), while contract liability arises from a breach of a duty voluntarily assumed by the parties' agreement✓
c.Tort liability requires a written agreement signed by both parties before the injury; contract liability does not and may rest on an oral promise
d.Tort liability is created only by a statute enacted by the Legislature, while contract liability is created only at common law by judicial decision, so a duty arising from one source can never be enforced under the other theory in the same lawsuit before the same court

A TORT is a civil wrong arising from the breach of a duty IMPOSED BY LAW for the protection of others (e.g., the duty of reasonable care). A CONTRACT obligation arises from a duty the parties have VOLUNTARILY UNDERTAKEN by their agreement. The same facts can sometimes give rise to both (a doctor's malpractice can be both a tort and breach of contract), but the distinction in source of duty is fundamental.

Tort vs. contract liability principles
21. A bar owner intentionally punches a customer during an argument and is sued for battery. The bar owner submits the claim under his CGL policy. The insurer will MOST LIKELY:
a.Pay under Coverage C – Medical Payments only
b.Pay because intentional torts are still negligence
c.Pay the claim, because every CGL covers any bodily injury
d.Deny the claim under the 'Expected or Intended Injury' exclusion in Coverage A✓

CGL Coverage A excludes bodily injury or property damage 'expected or intended from the standpoint of the insured.' Intentional torts such as battery, assault, and trespass are precisely what this exclusion targets. (Some exceptions exist, such as reasonable force to protect persons or property.) The insurer would owe no defense or indemnity for the deliberate punch.

ISO CGL exclusions – Expected or Intended Injury
22. A spectator at a baseball game is struck by a foul ball and sues the stadium. Under California law, which defense is the stadium MOST LIKELY to assert?
a.Primary assumption of risk – the risk of being hit by a foul ball is inherent in attending a baseball game✓
b.Vicarious liability – the stadium answers automatically for the batter's conduct
c.Joint and several liability – each defendant pays the full judgment
d.Contributory negligence as a complete bar – any carelessness by the spectator in watching the field defeats the entire claim for damages

Under Knight v. Jewett, California recognizes 'primary assumption of risk' as a complete defense when a plaintiff voluntarily participates in (or attends) an activity with risks that are INHERENT to that activity. Being hit by a foul ball is an inherent risk of attending a baseball game (the 'Baseball Rule'), so the stadium owes no duty to protect spectators from that risk beyond reasonable measures. California abolished CONTRIBUTORY negligence as a complete bar in 1975 (Li v. Yellow Cab).

Assumption of risk doctrine (Knight v. Jewett, 3 Cal. 4th 296 (1992))
23. The failure to exercise the degree of care that a reasonably prudent person would exercise under similar circumstances is the legal definition of:
a.Indemnity
b.Subrogation
c.Negligence✓
d.Absolute liability

Negligence is the failure to act with the level of care a reasonably prudent person would use in similar circumstances, and it is the basis of most liability claims. Proving negligence generally requires four elements: a duty owed, a breach of that duty, that the breach was the proximate cause of harm, and actual damages. Absolute (strict) liability applies without proof of negligence in inherently dangerous situations.

24. To win a negligence claim, an injured party generally must prove all of the following EXCEPT:
a.A legal duty was owed
b.Actual damages resulted from the breach
c.The duty was breached
d.The defendant intended to cause harm✓

Negligence requires proving duty, breach of that duty, proximate cause, and actual damages, but it does not require intent to cause harm; negligence is about carelessness, not intent. An intentional act that causes harm is a separate category (an intentional tort) and is generally excluded from liability insurance. This makes intent the element that does not belong in a negligence claim.

25. Liability that is imposed on a party regardless of fault or negligence, such as for abnormally dangerous activities, is called:
a.Absolute (strict) liability✓
b.Comparative liability
c.Vicarious liability
d.Contributory negligence

Absolute or strict liability is imposed without regard to fault when a party engages in inherently dangerous activities (such as blasting) or under certain statutes; the injured party need not prove negligence. Vicarious liability holds one party responsible for another's acts (such as an employer for an employee). Contributory and comparative concepts address how an injured party's own fault affects recovery.

26. In a liability policy, the coverage that responds to bodily injury or property damage the insured becomes legally obligated to pay is triggered by:
a.Legal liability of the insured to a third party✓
b.Medical expenses the insured incurs personally
c.Any loss the insured reports, whether liable or not
d.Damage to property the insured owns or rents

Liability (third-party) coverage responds when the insured is legally obligated to pay damages to another party for bodily injury or property damage, and it typically includes the cost of the insured's legal defense. It does not pay for the insured's own property or injuries, which are first-party coverages. The legal obligation, usually arising from negligence, is what triggers the coverage.

27. An umbrella liability policy primarily provides:
a.First-dollar coverage with no underlying insurance
b.Coverage limited to the property the insured owns
c.Extra liability limits above the underlying policies✓
d.A substitute for auto physical damage coverage

A personal umbrella policy provides an extra layer of liability limits that sits above the insured's underlying home and auto liability coverage, and it may cover some claims the underlying policies exclude (subject to a self-insured retention). It generally requires the insured to maintain specified underlying limits. It is excess liability protection, not a first-dollar or property coverage.

28. A grocer mops an aisle and leaves no warning sign; a shopper slips and fractures a wrist. Which pair of negligence elements does the unmarked wet floor most directly establish?
a.damages and the doctrine of vicarious liability
b.the duty of care owed and its breach✓
c.proximate cause and the shopper's assumed risk
d.strict liability and an intervening cause

A store owes customers reasonable care, and mopping without posting a warning falls below that standard, so the unmarked wet floor supplies duty and breach. The fracture and its costs supply damages, and the causal chain supplies proximate cause; those are separate elements the claimant still has to prove. Strict liability does not apply, because routine floor cleaning is not an abnormally dangerous activity.

29. States take different approaches to a plaintiff who is partly at fault. Under a comparative negligence approach, the plaintiff's recovery is:
a.unaffected, because the defendant breached a duty
b.reduced in proportion to the plaintiff's fault✓
c.shifted onto the defendant's insurer
d.barred completely once any fault is assigned

A comparative negligence approach reduces the award by the plaintiff's own share of fault: a $100,000 award to a plaintiff found 30% at fault becomes $70,000. The answer that bars recovery entirely once any fault is assigned describes contributory negligence, the older approach a small number of states still follow. Which approach governs is set by each state's law, so the two must not be treated as interchangeable.

30. A spectator sits behind the dugout at an amateur ball game, is struck by a foul ball, and sues the club. The club's strongest defence is that the spectator:
a.knew of and accepted an obvious inherent risk✓
b.owed the club a reciprocal duty of reasonable care
c.was a licensee rather than an invitee that day
d.failed to prove the club carried enough insurance

Assumption of risk defeats a negligence claim when the injured person knew of a hazard inherent in an activity and voluntarily accepted it; foul balls reaching the seats are the classic illustration. The licensee-versus-invitee answer misuses premises status, which changes the degree of care owed rather than defeating the claim. How much insurance the club bought is not an element of the plaintiff's case.

31. A driver negligently blocks a traffic lane; twenty minutes later an unrelated drunk driver strikes the stopped car. The drunk driver's conduct is best described as:
a.res ipsa loquitur applied to the second collision
b.a form of vicarious liability for the first driver
c.a comparative fault share owed by a passenger
d.an intervening cause that may cut off liability✓

An intervening cause is a new and independent act arising after the original negligence; when it is unforeseeable it supersedes that negligence and breaks the chain of proximate cause, ending the first party's liability. Vicarious liability fails here because the two drivers share no employment or agency relationship. Res ipsa loquitur is an evidentiary inference drawn from how an accident happened, not a causation doctrine.

32. Absolute (strict) liability differs from ordinary negligence liability because the claimant does not have to prove:
a.that a defective product left the plant
b.that the defendant conducted the activity
c.that the claimant suffered measurable damages
d.that the defendant failed to use reasonable care✓

Strict or absolute liability attaches to a narrow set of exposures — abnormally dangerous activities such as blasting or keeping wild animals, and defective products — where fault simply is not an issue and carelessness need not be shown. Damages still must be proved, so the answer that removes the damages element is wrong: there is no claim without harm. The claimant also still has to tie the defendant to the activity or to the defective product.

33. A delivery driver rear-ends a car while making scheduled company deliveries. The employer is held liable for the driver's negligence under the doctrine of:
a.res ipsa loquitur, as the facts speak for themselves
b.assumption of risk transferred to the employer
c.vicarious liability for an employee's acts on the job✓
d.absolute liability for an ultrahazardous activity

Vicarious liability imputes one party's negligence to another because of their relationship, most often employer to employee for acts within the scope of employment, which scheduled deliveries plainly are. Res ipsa loquitur is an inference of negligence drawn from the nature of an accident, not a way of transferring one person's negligence to another. Ordinary driving is not an ultrahazardous activity, so absolute liability does not reach it.

34. A surgical sponge is left inside a patient and is found on a later scan. The patient invokes res ipsa loquitur, which allows a court to:
a.hold the hospital liable regardless of fault
b.shift the loss onto the patient's own insurer
c.infer negligence from the nature of the accident✓
d.award punitive damages without proof of malice

Res ipsa loquitur — the thing speaks for itself — lets a court infer negligence where the accident is of a kind that does not ordinarily happen without it, the instrumentality was under the defendant's exclusive control, and the injured party did not contribute. It is an evidentiary inference, so the answer describing liability regardless of fault confuses it with strict liability. Punitive damages still require proof of the conduct that would justify them.

35. A jury awards an injured claimant $300,000 in compensatory damages and $500,000 in punitive damages. The punitive portion is best described as:
a.repayment of the claimant's medical bills
b.the value of the claimant's future lost earnings
c.a sum meant to punish and deter the wrongdoer✓
d.an award restoring the claimant's actual losses

Punitive damages punish conduct a court finds willful, malicious, or grossly reckless and deter its repetition; they go beyond making the claimant whole. Medical bills, future lost earnings, and restoration of actual losses are all compensatory and make up the $300,000 portion of this award. Many liability policies do not cover punitive damages, and whether they may be insured at all is a question decided under each state's law.

36. A claimant's award includes $48,000 for medical bills and lost wages plus $75,000 for pain and suffering. The $75,000 portion is classified as:
a.supplementary payments made outside the limit
b.punitive damages, awarded to punish the defendant
c.general damages for intangible, unreceipted loss✓
d.special damages, because a figure was assigned

Special damages are the measurable out-of-pocket losses — medical bills, lost wages, repair costs — which here total $48,000. General damages compensate intangible harm such as pain, suffering, disfigurement, and loss of consortium, which is exactly what the $75,000 represents. Punitive damages are a separate category aimed at the defendant's conduct, and supplementary payments are a policy provision rather than a class of damages.

37. A hardware store owes its highest degree of care to a customer shopping during business hours because that customer is:
a.an invitee, present for the occupier's benefit✓
b.a trespasser, owed only a duty to avoid traps
c.a bailee, holding the occupier's property safely
d.a licensee, present with the occupier's permission

An invitee enters premises with permission and for the occupier's commercial benefit, so the occupier must inspect for hazards and either correct them or warn of them. A licensee, such as a social guest, enters with permission but for their own purposes and is owed a warning of known dangers rather than an active inspection. A trespasser is generally owed only the duty not to be injured willfully or by a hidden trap.

38. A contractor leaves an unfenced excavation full of water on a vacant lot and a neighbourhood child drowns. The attractive nuisance doctrine matters here because it:
a.makes the child's parents solely responsible
b.shifts the claim to first-party medical payments
c.raises the care owed to a trespassing child✓
d.converts the loss into an ultrahazardous activity

Attractive nuisance holds an occupier responsible when an artificial condition likely to draw children — a pool, an open pit, discarded machinery — is left unguarded and a child too young to appreciate the danger is hurt, even though that child is technically a trespasser. The doctrine changes the duty owed, so calling the excavation an ultrahazardous activity misstates it. Weak parental supervision may reduce an award but does not extinguish the occupier's duty.

39. A restaurant's own kitchen equipment burns for a $60,000 loss and, in a separate incident, a diner sues the restaurant for $80,000 over food poisoning. Which statement classifies these two claims correctly?
a.both are first-party claims under the same policy
b.both are third-party claims made by the restaurant
c.the fire is third party and the diner's suit first party
d.the fire is a first-party loss, the suit third party✓

A first-party claim is made by the insured against their own insurer for the insured's own loss, which is what the burned kitchen equipment is. A third-party claim is brought by someone outside the contract against the insured, which the diner's food-poisoning suit is, and it is the liability policy that supplies defence and indemnity. Reversing the two is the common error: the identity of the claimant, not the size of the loss, decides which it is.

40. Coverage A of a commercial general liability policy responds to sums the insured becomes legally obligated to pay as damages because of:
a.medical bills of an injured guest, without fault
b.libel, slander and wrongful eviction claims
c.bodily injury and property damage from an occurrence✓
d.damage to the insured's own building and stock

Coverage A insures bodily injury and property damage caused by an occurrence — an accident, including continuous exposure to substantially the same harmful conditions — that happens in the coverage territory during the policy period. Libel, slander, and wrongful eviction are personal and advertising injury offences answered under Coverage B. Medical payments made without regard to fault sit in Coverage C, and the insured's own building and stock are a property exposure this policy excludes.

41. Which of these losses would a commercial general liability policy address under personal and advertising injury rather than under Coverage A?
a.A falling pallet injures a customer in the aisle
b.A delivery van backs into a dockworker
c.An advertisement copies a rival's slogan✓
d.A cleaning crew breaks a client's glass door

Coverage B answers a defined list of offences: false arrest or detention, malicious prosecution, wrongful eviction or invasion of a right of private occupancy, material that libels, slanders, or disparages, invasion of privacy, and use of another's advertising idea or infringement of copyright, trade dress, or slogan in the insured's advertisement. Lifting a rival's slogan into an advertisement sits squarely on that list. The pallet, the broken door, and the van striking a worker are bodily injury and property damage handled under Coverage A.

42. A visitor trips on a showroom step and runs up $3,000 in emergency-room bills, but the retailer is plainly not at fault. Coverage C of the retailer's general liability policy:
a.pays the reasonable bills without regard to fault✓
b.pays the bills only from the products aggregate
c.pays only after a court assigns the retailer fault
d.denies the claim because no negligence was shown

Coverage C is a goodwill provision that pays reasonable medical expense for injuries occurring on premises the insured owns or rents, or arising out of the insured's operations, with no finding of negligence required, so long as the injury occurs and is reported within the periods the form states. Requiring a court finding of fault describes Coverage A, not medical payments. These payments erode the each-occurrence limit and the general aggregate rather than the products–completed operations aggregate.

43. A roofing contractor finishes a job, leaves the site, and two months later the roof leaks and ruins $40,000 of the owner's ceilings. This claim falls within:
a.premises and operations at the job site
b.products and completed operations coverage✓
c.damage to premises rented to the contractor
d.personal and advertising injury offences

Completed operations respond to bodily injury or property damage arising out of the insured's work after that work is finished and put to its intended use and the insured has left the site, which is exactly this leaking roof. Premises and operations answers injury while the job is still in progress or on premises the insured occupies. Losses charged to completed operations erode the separate products–completed operations aggregate, not the general aggregate.

44. A general liability policy carries a $1,000,000 each-occurrence limit and a $2,000,000 general aggregate. The insurer pays $600,000, $500,000 and $400,000 on three separate premises claims in one policy year. How much general aggregate is left?
a.$1,000,000, because each occurrence resets it
b.$2,000,000, since premises claims do not erode it
c.$500,000 for the rest of the policy year✓
d.$0, because the three claims exhaust it

Each claim is below the $1,000,000 each-occurrence cap, so all three are paid in full: 600,000 + 500,000 + 400,000 = $1,500,000. The general aggregate is the most the policy will pay for such losses in the policy year, so $2,000,000 − $1,500,000 leaves $500,000 for the remainder of the term. The each-occurrence limit caps a single loss and does not reset the aggregate, and premises and operations losses do erode the general aggregate.

45. A manufacturer's general aggregate is fully exhausted in July by premises claims. In September a customer is injured by a defective product the manufacturer sold. The policy:
a.pays half the loss and prorates the remainder
b.denies the claim, as the aggregate is exhausted
c.reinstates the general aggregate for the claim
d.pays from the products–completed operations limit✓

A general liability policy carries two annual caps: the general aggregate for premises and operations and most other losses, and a separate products–completed operations aggregate for injury or damage arising out of the insured's products and completed work. Exhausting one leaves the other untouched, so the September product claim is paid from its own aggregate, subject to the each-occurrence limit. Aggregates do not reinstate mid-term, and the form contains no proration of the kind described.

46. A tenant business rents a storefront, negligently starts a fire, and causes $250,000 of damage to the leased building. Its liability policy shows a $300,000 damage to premises rented to you limit. The insurer:
a.pays the $300,000 limit and bills the landlord
b.pays $250,000 from the products aggregate
c.pays nothing, as the building is not the insured's
d.pays the $250,000, which is within that limit✓

Damage to premises rented to you is a carve-back restoring coverage for fire and certain other damage to a building the insured rents, which the care, custody, and control exclusion would otherwise strip out. The $250,000 loss sits under the $300,000 sublimit, so it is paid in full and nothing is billed to anyone. Denying the claim because the insured does not own the building ignores the carve-back, and the products aggregate applies to products and completed work.

47. A liability insurer settles a suit for the full $1,000,000 each-occurrence limit and has already spent $180,000 defending it. On a standard general liability policy the insurer's total outlay is:
a.$1,000,000 plus half the defence costs
b.$820,000, the limit less defence costs
c.$1,180,000, the limit plus defence costs✓
d.$1,000,000, as defence erodes the limit

Defence costs on a standard general liability policy are a supplementary payment made in addition to the limit of insurance, so the insurer pays the $1,000,000 settlement and the $180,000 of defence expense, a total of $1,180,000. The answers that subtract defence from the limit describe a defence-within-limits or eroding-limits form, common on professional liability but not here. The duty to defend ends once the limit has been exhausted by a judgment or settlement.

48. An insured must post a $500 bail bond after a covered accident and loses three days of work attending the trial at the insurer's request. Under the standard general liability supplementary payments, the insurer pays:
a.$250 toward the bond and no lost earnings
b.the full $500 bond and $750 of lost earnings
c.$250 toward the bond plus $750 of earnings✓
d.the full $500 bond and no lost earnings

Supplementary payments on a standard general liability policy include the cost of bail bonds up to $250 and reasonable loss of earnings up to $250 a day for time the insured spends helping at the insurer's request. The bond contribution is therefore capped at $250 even though $500 was posted, and three days at $250 a day comes to $750. Paying the whole $500 bond ignores that stated cap, and refusing the earnings ignores the attendance provision.

49. A firm carried an occurrence-form liability policy one year and switched to a claims-made form the next. A suit filed this year alleges injury that took place in the earlier year. Which policy responds?
a.Both, sharing the loss on a pro rata basis
b.Neither, because the coverage forms differ
c.The occurrence policy, since injury happened then✓
d.The claims-made policy, since the suit is filed now

An occurrence form is triggered by when the bodily injury or property damage takes place, no matter how many years later the claim arrives, so the earlier policy answers injury that happened during its term. A claims-made form is triggered by when the claim is first made against the insured and reaches back only to injury on or after its retroactive date. Policies triggered on two different bases do not share one loss pro rata.

50. A claims-made policy in force now shows a retroactive date of three years ago. A claim made today alleges an error committed five years ago. The policy:
a.covers it once the basic reporting tail expires
b.covers it under the extended reporting period
c.covers it because the claim arrives in term
d.excludes it, as the act predates that date✓

A retroactive date is the earliest date of wrongful act, injury, or damage a claims-made policy will reach; anything happening before it is outside coverage even when the claim itself is made during the policy period. Here the act is five years old and the retroactive date is three years old, so the claim is not covered. An extended reporting period lengthens the window for reporting claims and does not move the retroactive date backwards.

51. When a claims-made liability policy is cancelled, the supplemental extended reporting period differs from the basic one in that the supplemental period:
a.must be requested in writing and paid for✓
b.attaches automatically at no extra cost
c.moves the retroactive date to the cancellation
d.changes the policy trigger to occurrence basis

A basic extended reporting period attaches automatically when a claims-made policy ends, at no additional charge, and gives a limited window to report claims for acts before that date. The supplemental period, the purchased tail, must be requested in writing within a stated time and an extra premium paid, and it extends the reporting window far longer. Neither one moves the retroactive date or converts the policy to an occurrence trigger.

52. A general contractor requires a subcontractor to name it as an additional insured on the subcontractor's liability policy. The practical effect is that the general contractor:
a.gains first-party coverage on its own equipment
b.is added as a loss payee for premium refunds
c.becomes a named insured with the right to cancel
d.gains defence and indemnity for the sub's work✓

An additional insured endorsement extends the named insured's liability coverage to another party, typically for liability arising out of the named insured's work or premises, so the general contractor gets a defence and indemnity under someone else's policy. It does not make that party a named insured, so no right to cancel, amend, or collect return premium comes with it. It also grants no first-party property coverage, because the endorsement operates only on the liability side.

53. A general liability policy excludes liability the insured assumes by contract, then gives that coverage back for liability assumed in an insured contract. An insured contract is best described as:
a.a defined class such as a lease or a rail siding✓
b.a contract the insurer has separately approved
c.a bond guaranteeing the insured's performance
d.any written agreement the insured signs

The contractual liability exclusion is given back only for a listed set of agreements: leases of premises, sidetrack agreements, easement or licence agreements, obligations to indemnify a municipality where required by ordinance, elevator maintenance agreements, and the tort liability of another assumed in a business contract. Coverage turns on the agreement fitting that defined class, not on the insurer having pre-approved it. A performance bond is surety, a three-party guarantee, and not liability insurance at all.

54. A business carries $1,000,000 of primary general liability and a $5,000,000 umbrella. A jury returns a $3,500,000 verdict on a claim both policies cover. How is the verdict funded?
a.$1,000,000 primary, the remainder uninsured
b.$1,750,000 from each, shared equally
c.$1,000,000 primary and $2,500,000 umbrella✓
d.$3,500,000 from the umbrella, primary untouched

An umbrella sits above scheduled underlying policies and pays only after the underlying limit is exhausted, so the primary contributes its $1,000,000 and the umbrella pays the remaining $2,500,000 out of its $5,000,000. It does not respond first while the primary sits untouched, and it is not a pro rata sharing arrangement with the primary. Because the umbrella limit far exceeds the shortfall, none of this verdict is left uninsured.

55. An umbrella covers a claim that the underlying general liability policy excludes entirely. Before the umbrella will respond to that claim, the insured normally must:
a.first exhaust the underlying aggregate limit
b.pay the self-insured retention shown on it✓
c.buy back the underlying exclusion by endorsement
d.obtain the primary insurer's written consent

Where an umbrella is broader than the underlying insurance it drops down and acts as primary for that loss, and the insured absorbs a self-insured retention — a deductible-like amount stated in the umbrella — before the umbrella pays. Exhausting an underlying aggregate matters when the underlying policy does cover the loss but has run out of limit, which is not the case here. No consent from the primary insurer is needed, and buying back the exclusion would defeat the point of the drop-down.

56. An architect's drawings contain a calculation error that forces a client to rebuild a foundation. The client's purely financial loss is best insured by:
a.general liability, as an occurrence caused the loss
b.professional liability, an errors and omissions form✓
c.employment practices liability for staff acts
d.a surety bond guaranteeing the drawings

Professional liability, also written as errors and omissions, covers economic loss caused by a failure to use the skill and care expected of a professional, which a faulty design calculation is. A general liability policy responds to bodily injury and property damage from an occurrence and excludes damages arising out of rendering professional services. Employment practices liability answers claims brought by employees, and a surety bond guarantees performance to a third party rather than insuring the architect's mistake.

57. Shareholders sue a corporation's board, alleging the directors approved an acquisition without adequate diligence. The coverage designed for this suit is:
a.directors and officers liability✓
b.employment practices liability coverage
c.fidelity coverage for employee dishonesty
d.commercial general liability, Coverage B

Directors and officers liability responds to claims that the people managing a company breached their duties in that capacity — mismanagement, inadequate diligence, misleading disclosure — whether brought by shareholders, regulators, or others. Employment practices liability answers claims brought by employees over hiring, firing, and workplace conduct. Fidelity coverage insures the employer against theft by its own employees, and Coverage B handles a listed set of offences such as libel and wrongful eviction.

58. A former employee sues alleging wrongful termination and a hostile work environment. The employer's defence and any damages on that suit would be answered by:
a.professional liability for the manager's errors
b.workers compensation, Part Two employers liability
c.general liability Coverage B, as a listed offence
d.employment practices liability insurance✓

Employment practices liability insurance covers claims by employees and applicants over wrongful termination, discrimination, harassment, retaliation, and similar workplace conduct, and it pays defence costs as well as damages. Part Two employers liability answers suits arising out of a work-related bodily injury that falls outside the workers compensation benefit, not a termination claim. The general liability offences list does not reach employment practices, and professional liability addresses service errors owed to clients.

59. A restaurant that serves alcohol asks whether its general liability policy answers a suit claiming it over-served a patron who then caused a crash. The correct response is that:
a.the liquor liability exclusion applies to it✓
b.the exclusion drops once a licence issues
c.Coverage C pays those medical bills anyway
d.the umbrella responds with no underlying form

A standard general liability policy excludes injury or damage for which the insured may be held liable by reason of causing or contributing to intoxication, furnishing alcohol to a minor or to someone already under the influence, or violating any law relating to the sale of alcoholic beverages. The exposure has to be bought back through a separate liquor liability policy or endorsement. Holding a licence does not remove the exclusion, and whether a server can be held liable at all turns on each state's dram-shop law.

60. A machine shop's underground solvent tank leaks and contaminates neighbouring soil. Under its unendorsed general liability policy the cleanup claim is:
a.paid from the products aggregate instead
b.excluded by the pollution exclusion✓
c.covered under Coverage A as property damage
d.covered because the release was accidental

A standard general liability policy carries a broad pollution exclusion removing bodily injury and property damage arising out of the discharge, dispersal, seepage, migration, release, or escape of pollutants, together with the cost of testing for and cleaning them up. Whether the release was sudden or gradual does not restore coverage on the unendorsed form; the exposure is written back only through separate environmental or pollution liability coverage. The products–completed operations aggregate is a limit, not a source of coverage for an excluded loss.

Last reviewed: · editorial process

PrepPass team · Verified against California CDI · How we review

What's on the California Property & Casualty Broker-Agent License?

The California Property & Casualty Broker-Agent License is administered by the California Department of Insurance (CDI). The topic weights below are a PrepPass estimate, not figures published by the California Department of Insurance (CDI).

Questions
150 questions
Time limit
195 minutes
Passing score
60%

Every figure above, with the document it came from and the date we read it →

Topic blueprint

    PrepPass team · Verified against California Department of Insurance (CDI) · How we review

    How hard is the exam?

    Difficult. The California P&C broker-agent exam is 150 questions, 195 minutes, 60% to pass at PSI. Strong overlap with Personal Lines but adds commercial property + workers' comp + casualty/liability.

    Recommended study hours
    100-150 hours over 6-10 weeks (only the 12-hour ethics course is required for prelicensing — AB 943, 2026)
    First-attempt pass rate
    57% on the first attempt (n = 3,153) — California Department of Insurance, 2025. CDI’s row is “Property / Casualty”. It was 55% (n = 2,516) in 2024. CDI states these are the rates for candidates taking the exam on their first attempt.Source: California Department of Insurance — 2025 Annual Report of the Commissioner (PDF), “LSD Licensing Examination First-Time Pass Rates”
    Where to focus first
    Personal Lines Insurance and Commercial Insurance Coverages — CDI's 2025 examination objectives put them at 38% and 30% of the property exam and 35% each of the casualty exam; the California Insurance Code rules inside every section are where out-of-state candidates struggle most.

    Fees and salaries are approximate and change over time. The pass rate above is quoted from the source linked beside it, for the period that source covers — where we have not checked a source, we say so and give no number.

    Frequently asked questions

    How many California Property & Casualty practice questions?+

    531 original practice questions across all 11 topics of the California Department of Insurance Property & Casualty Broker-Agent license exam, with California Insurance Code citations on 215 of them.

    Is the P&C practice test free?+

    Yes, completely free. No signup, no credit card. Unlimited practice rounds and a 150-question timed mock exam included.

    Are these real CDI P&C exam questions?+

    No. All questions are original prose authored from the California Insurance Code, Title 10 CCR, Civil Code, Labor Code, Vehicle Code, and standard ISO insurance form concepts. We never copy from real exams or paid prep providers.

    What's the passing score for the California P&C Broker-Agent exam?+

    60%, and CDI publishes no sectional or per-subject cut score — a failing candidate gets a per-topic diagnostic, which is a diagnostic, not a cut score. The real CDI exam is 150 multiple-choice questions over 195 minutes at a PSI testing center.

    What does the P&C Broker-Agent license let me sell?+

    Auto insurance (personal + commercial), homeowners, dwelling, commercial property, casualty/liability (CGL), and workers' compensation insurance — to California residents and businesses.

    Is the California P&C exam offered in Vietnamese or Chinese?+

    Yes — AB 451 (Stats. 2023, ch. 136) legally requires CDI to offer producer license exams in English, Spanish, Simplified Chinese, Vietnamese, Korean and Tagalog.

    Should I take the P&C license or Personal Lines license first?+

    P&C is broader (commercial + personal). Personal Lines is narrower (residential + personal auto only) and has a shorter exam (~100q vs ~150q). As of 2026 (AB 943) both require only the 12-hour ethics course for prelicensing. Many agents start with whichever matches the business they want to write first; many upgrade Personal Lines → P&C later.

    Is there a study guide for the Property & Casualty Insurance Producer?+

    Yes. PrepPass sells California Property & Casualty Broker-Agent Study Guide — 2026 Edition, a PDF + EPUB download, $24.99 one-time; the practice on this page stays free without it. See the study guide →

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