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Business & Licensing

211 questions
201. An RME may qualify only one active license at a time unless what condition is met regarding ownership?
a.The qualifier owns at least 10 percent of each firm's equity
b.There is common ownership of at least 20 percent of each firm✓
c.The qualifier owns a majority of the voting stock of one firm
d.The firms share a common qualifier and the same classification

B&P §7068.1(a) permits one person to qualify more than one active licensee only where there is common ownership of at least 20 percent of the equity of each firm, or the firms stand in a parent, subsidiary, or joint-venture relationship; §7068.1(b) then caps the total at three firms in any one-year period. (a) is the 10 percent figure from §7071.9, which decides whether a qualifier's bond is required, not how many firms may be qualified. (c) sets a majority test the statute does not use. (d) restates the problem — a shared qualifier and a shared class are what the rule restricts, not what excuses it.

B&P Code §7068.1(a)
202. When qualifying a corporation, the RMO must be listed as an officer. Which role would NOT by itself establish someone as a bona fide corporate officer for RMO purposes?
a.A field superintendent who runs the corporation's jobsites daily✓
b.The president named in the corporation's statement of information
c.The secretary named in the corporation's statement of information
d.The treasurer named in the corporation's statement of information

B&P §7065 requires a corporation's RMO to be a bona fide officer — president, vice president, secretary, or treasurer — so the three officers listed here all qualify, and only the field superintendent does not. That person may still qualify the corporation, but as an RME under §7068, which carries the 32-hour bona fide employment test rather than an officer title. The trap is assuming that running the work is what makes an RMO; for the RMO route it is the office held, and for the RME route it is the employment relationship.

B&P Code §7065 / §7068
203. A newly formed corporation seeks a license. Which personnel information must be reported to the CSLB?
a.The qualifying individual only, since the license follows the qualifier
b.The officers and directors only, with the qualifier reported separately later
c.Every person the corporation employs on its construction projects
d.The officers, directors, and qualifying individual, as personnel of record✓

B&P §7065 requires a corporate applicant to report its officers, directors, and qualifying individual; these become the personnel of record, and §7083 requires changes among them to be reported to the Registrar. (a) is the misconception that the qualifier is the license — the qualifier is one of several reportable persons. (b) splits a single disclosure into two steps the statute does not contemplate. (c) over-reads the duty: ordinary employees are not personnel of record, which is why a new hire on a crew triggers no CSLB filing.

B&P Code §7065 / §7083
204. When the Registrar reissues an existing license number to a successor business, what does §7075.1 require?
a.That the successor apply in a different license classification
b.That the successor be formed outside California as a foreign entity
c.That the number have sat unused for at least five years first
d.Continuity of ownership or personnel with the old entity✓

B&P §7075.1(b) allows reissuance where the entity is unchanged, and §7075.1(c) allows reissuance to a different entity only in listed situations, each of which is a continuity case: a parent and subsidiary merger or creation, a change between domestic and foreign filing status where the new entity continues the business, family succession on a licensee's death or absence, a corporation or LLC formed by an individual licensee who keeps more than 50 percent of the voting power, and an LLC formed by a corporation with the same listed personnel. (a) has it backwards, since a new classification needs its own qualification. (b) picks one fact pattern out of §7075.1(c)(1) and makes it a requirement. (c) imports the §7141 five-year renewal window, which is about reviving a license rather than moving a number.

B&P Code §7075.1(b)-(c)
205. A partnership contractor adds a new partner. What is the effect on the license?
a.No effect, because the partnership keeps the same business name
b.The new partner is simply added as a personnel-of-record change
c.The entity has changed, so notice and new licensure follow✓
d.The license is suspended until the new partner passes the examination

A license is issued to a particular partnership under B&P §7076, so adding or removing a partner creates a different legal entity: the CSLB must be notified, a new license is often required, and §7075.1 governs whether the old number may be reissued. (a) confuses the trade name with the licensee. (b) is the closest trap, because officers of a corporation genuinely are handled as personnel-of-record changes under §7083 — partners are not, because the partnership itself is the licensee. (d) invents an examination trigger; a new partner need not be a qualifier.

B&P Code §7076 / §7075.1
206. Which of these most clearly REQUIRES a contractor's license?
a.A $200 fence repair that stands complete in itself
b.A homeowner painting a bedroom in their own house
c.A neighbor stacking firewood for free next door
d.A $6,000 kitchen remodel for a paying client✓

B&P §7048(a) exempts a project only where the aggregate price for labor, materials, and all other items is under $1,000, the work is casual, minor, or inconsequential, and no building permit is required, so a $6,000 remodel for a client needs a license. (a) sits under the dollar threshold and is complete in itself — though §7048(b) would withdraw the exemption if it were one slice of a larger job. (b) is the owner working on their own property, which is not contracting for another. (c) is neither construction work nor work done for compensation. Note also §7048(c): the exemption is lost by anyone who advertises as a contractor, or who employs another person to do the work.

B&P Code §7048(a)-(b)
207. A licensed contractor's license lapses due to suspension during part of a project. Under section 7031, what risk does the contractor face regarding pay for work done while unlicensed?
a.None, because the contractor was licensed when the contract was signed
b.A civil penalty only, with the contract price still fully collectible
c.Being barred from recovering compensation for the unlicensed period✓
d.Losing only the profit margin, while costs remain recoverable

B&P §7031 requires a contractor to be duly licensed at all times during performance, and bars an action to collect compensation for work performed while unlicensed — the owner may also sue to recover everything already paid. (a) is the misconception §7031 was amended to close: licensure at signing is not enough. (b) treats the consequence as monetary discipline rather than a bar on the contract action. (d) invents a cost-versus-profit split; the bar reaches all compensation, not the margin alone.

B&P Code §7031
208. Summarizing the bonding scheme: an active licensee must carry the $25,000 license bond, and may additionally need which bonds depending on circumstances?
a.A $100,000 LLC employee bond, required of every active licensee
b.A $25,000 qualifier bond, plus a disciplinary bond after discipline✓
c.A $12,500 qualifier bond, the figure in use before 2023
d.A $15,000 disciplinary bond that replaces the standard license bond

Under B&P Code sections 7071.6, 7071.9 and 7071.8 the baseline is the $25,000 license bond. On top of it, a $25,000 bond of qualifying individual applies when the RMO or RME owns less than 10% of the entity, and a disciplinary bond of at least $25,000 may be imposed after disciplinary action (b). (a) takes a real figure out of scope: the $100,000 bond under section 7071.6.5 is required only of limited liability company licensees, for employee wage and benefit claims. (c) is the pre-2023 qualifier amount, raised to $25,000 by SB 607 on January 1, 2023. (d) carries the pre-2023 disciplinary figure and adds a second error — the disciplinary bond is filed in addition to the license bond, never in place of it.

B&P Code §7071.6
209. A licensed contractor moved its office on March 2 and mailed the Registrar the required written notice on August 20, well past the statutory window. What follows under Bus. & Prof. Code §7083?
a.The change is treated as effective on March 2, the date the business actually moved out
b.Nothing follows from the delay, because the change takes effect when the licensee mails it
c.The change takes effect the day headquarters receives the notice, and the delay is grounds for discipline✓
d.The license is suspended automatically until the Registrar approves the new business address

Section 7083 gives the licensee 90 days from the change to notify the Registrar in writing on the board's form, and it attaches two consequences to a late notice. The change takes effect only on the date the written notification is received at the board's headquarters office, so the record is wrong for the whole intervening period. Separately, failing to notify within the 90 days is itself grounds for disciplinary action. A long window is not a soft one.

Bus. & Prof. Code §7083(a)-(c)
210. A licensed sole proprietor forms a corporation and keeps 100 percent of the voting shares. She wants the corporation to hold the license and would like to keep the number her customers already know. What does the law allow?
a.Nothing beyond filing articles with the Secretary of State, which moves the license to the corporation
b.A written assignment of the individual license to the corporation, signed by the Registrar
c.A new application, and necessarily a new number, because a number is never reissued to a corporation
d.A new application by the corporation, with its own $25,000 bond and qualifier; the number may be reissued✓

No license is transferable to another person or entity under any circumstances, and a corporation is a different legal person from the individual who formed it, so the corporation applies in its own name with its own $25,000 contractor bond, its own qualifying individual and its own workers' compensation position. The NUMBER is a separate question from the license: §7075.1(c)(5) lets the Registrar reissue it, on application, to a corporation formed by an individual licensee who keeps more than 50 percent of the voting power. Filing with the Secretary of State is a different agency's record and moves nothing at CSLB.

Bus. & Prof. Code §7075.1(a), (c)(5); §7071.6(a)

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211. A corporation applying in 2026 wants to name an RME as its qualifier. He worked as a journeyman electrician from 2013 to 2016, and as an electrical foreman from 2020 to 2025. He will work 30 hours a week for the corporation, which is open 40 hours a week. Where does the application stand?
a.Both tests are met, since eight years of trade experience and a 30-hour week are ample
b.The experience is sufficient, but 30 hours a week is short of the actively engaged test✓
c.Neither test is met, because only experience gained inside the last five years may be counted
d.The experience is short, but 30 hours a week does satisfy the actively engaged test

Run the two conditions separately. Experience: four full years at journey level, as a foreman, supervisor or contractor in the classification, within the ten years immediately before the application. The 2020 to 2025 foreman years are five years inside that window, so the experience test passes on its own. Actively engaged: for an RME the statute means 32 hours a week, or 80 percent of the hours the business operates, whichever is less. Eighty percent of 40 is 32, so the threshold is 32 hours and a 30-hour week falls short.

Bus. & Prof. Code §7068(c)(2)(B); CSLB, Before Applying for a License

Business Finances

245 questions
1. A contractor estimates a job will cost $80,000 in direct costs and wants a 25% markup on cost. What should the bid price be?
a.$95,000
b.$100,000✓
c.$106,667
d.$120,000

Markup on cost means adding the markup percentage to the cost: $80,000 × 1.25 = $100,000. Markup on cost and margin on sales produce different results — always clarify which method is being used.

2. What is the difference between "markup" and "margin"?
a.They are the same thing
b.Markup is calculated on selling price; margin is calculated on cost
c.Markup is calculated on cost; margin is calculated on selling price✓
d.Markup applies only to materials; margin applies only to labor

Markup is the profit added as a percentage of cost. Gross margin (gross profit margin) is profit expressed as a percentage of the selling (contract) price. A 25% markup ≠ 25% margin.

3. A contractor has fixed monthly overhead of $10,000 and a variable cost ratio of 70% of revenue. What monthly revenue is needed to break even?
a.$10,000
b.$14,286
c.$33,333✓
d.$70,000

Break-even = Fixed Costs ÷ (1 − Variable Cost Ratio) = $10,000 ÷ (1 − 0.70) = $10,000 ÷ 0.30 = $33,333. At this revenue, total costs equal total revenue.

4. Which of the following is considered a FIXED cost for a contracting business?
a.Subcontractor fees on each job
b.Materials for a specific job
c.Fuel for the job equipment
d.The monthly office rent✓

A fixed cost does not move with the amount of work: the office rent is the same whether one job runs or ten, so it is overhead recovered across all of them. Subcontractor fees, job materials and fuel burned on the job all scale with the work and are direct, variable costs charged to the job that consumed them. The practical caution is that some costs sit between the two: a general liability premium is often rated on payroll or receipts and audited at year end, so it is less strictly fixed than rent.

5. A contractor's job cost sheet shows: Materials $30,000, Labor $20,000, Subcontractors $15,000, Overhead allocation $10,000. What is the total direct job cost?
a.$65,000✓
b.$75,000
c.$50,000
d.$45,000

The stem asks for DIRECT job cost — the costs traceable to this project. Materials $30,000 + labor $20,000 + subcontractors $15,000 = $65,000 (a). The $10,000 overhead allocation is an INDIRECT cost: it is a share of office rent, insurance and administrative salaries spread across every job, not a cost caused by this one. Adding it gives $75,000 (b), which is the job's fully loaded cost, not its direct cost — that substitution is the whole trap. (c) $50,000 drops the subcontractors, and (d) $45,000 counts only materials and overhead.

6. A contractor takes out a $50,000 equipment loan at 8% annual interest. What is the simple interest owed for 6 months?
a.$2,000✓
b.$4,000
c.$8,000
d.$400

Simple interest = Principal × Rate × Time = $50,000 × 0.08 × 0.5 = $2,000. For 6 months (half year), use 0.5 as the time factor.

7. Cash flow problems in contracting most commonly occur when:
a.Revenue arrives after costs must be paid✓
b.Overhead is set far too low in all the bids
c.A project finishes well ahead of schedule
d.Equipment becomes fully depreciated

The gap is a timing gap: payroll, suppliers and subcontractors must be paid weeks before the owner pays the progress billing, and retention holds back part of it longer still, which is why a profitable job can still leave the bank empty. An overhead rate set too low destroys margin, but that is a pricing error and shows up as loss rather than as a cash gap. Finishing early accelerates billing and helps cash. And full depreciation is a book event with no cash effect at all.

8. A contractor prepares an estimate and adds 15% to cover overhead and 10% profit on top of that. If direct costs are $50,000, what is the bid price?
a.$57,500
b.$62,500
c.$63,250✓
d.$65,000

$50,000 × 1.15 (overhead) = $57,500; $57,500 × 1.10 (profit) = $63,250. Overhead is applied first to the cost, then profit is applied to the overhead-loaded cost.

9. Which financial statement shows a contractor's assets, liabilities, and equity at a specific point in time?
a.The income statement
b.The statement of cash flows
c.The job cost report
d.The balance sheet✓

The balance sheet is the point-in-time statement: it lists what the business owns, what it owes, and the owner's equity as of one date, which is why it is sometimes called the statement of financial position. Each wrong answer is a real statement covering a PERIOD rather than a moment. The income statement reports revenue, cost and profit over a period. The statement of cash flows reports cash in and cash out over a period. And the job cost report is an internal document that sets actual cost against the estimate for one project; it is the contractor's most useful report and it is not a financial statement at all.

10. A contractor's accounts receivable are growing while cash on hand is shrinking. This most likely indicates:
a.The business is highly profitable
b.Customers are not paying on time✓
c.Overhead is well controlled
d.The contractor is bidding too low

Growing receivables with shrinking cash means customers owe money but haven't paid. This is a classic cash flow problem — the contractor has earned revenue but cannot collect it timely.

11. Which type of insurance protects a contractor if a third party is injured on the job site?
a.Workers' compensation cover for staff
b.Builder's risk cover on the works
c.Commercial general liability cover✓
d.Errors and omissions cover only

Commercial general liability answers third-party claims for bodily injury and property damage, which is exactly the visitor or neighbour hurt on the site. Workers' compensation covers the contractor's own employees and is the exclusive remedy for them, so it does not reach a third party. Builder's risk insures the structure under construction against physical loss, paying for damage to the work rather than for someone's injury. Errors and omissions covers professional advice and design, a risk a builder usually does not carry.

12. A contractor uses the percentage-of-completion method for revenue recognition. If a job is 40% complete and the total contract value is $200,000, recognized revenue to date is:
a.$40,000
b.$80,000✓
c.$120,000
d.$200,000

Under percentage-of-completion, revenue = contract value × percentage complete = $200,000 × 40% = $80,000. This method matches revenue to the work actually performed.

13. What is the purpose of a "retainage" or "retention" clause in a construction contract?
a.To pay subcontractors ahead of the general contractor
b.To fund contingencies and unforeseen conditions on the job
c.To compensate the owner for delay in completing work
d.To hold back part of each payment until completion✓

A retainage clause lets the owner hold back part of each payment until the work is complete (d), as security that the contractor will finish and correct defects. California now caps the percentage: Public Contract Code §7201 holds most public works to 5%, and Civil Code §8811 holds private works to 5% for contracts entered into on or after January 1, 2026, so the 10% once customary on private jobs survives only for earlier contracts and the statute's narrow exceptions. (a) reverses the payment chain — retention flows down, not around it. (b) confuses retention with a contingency allowance, which is budgeted into the price rather than withheld from it. (c) describes liquidated damages, a separate remedy for delay.

Civil Code §8811; §8812; Public Contract Code §7201
14. A contractor's current ratio is 0.8. This means:
a.$0.80 of current assets per $1.00 of debt✓
b.More current assets than current liabilities
c.The company is highly liquid at the moment
d.The company earns an 80% profit margin

The current ratio is current assets divided by current liabilities, so 0.8 means eighty cents of short-term resources against every dollar of short-term obligation and the bills due this year exceed what is on hand to pay them. Having more current assets than liabilities would put the ratio above 1.0, the opposite of this figure. A ratio under 1.0 is the definition of weak liquidity, not strong. And the current ratio says nothing about profit, which comes from the income statement.

15. Before starting a project, a contractor should prepare a schedule of values in order to:
a.Calculate the contractor's annual overhead rate
b.Set milestone payments tied to the work done✓
c.Determine the subcontractors' licence classes
d.Set the overtime schedule for the workers

A schedule of values divides the contract sum into line items by trade or phase, and each progress application states how complete each line is, so payment follows the work actually done. The overhead rate is computed from the company's own costs and is an input to the bid, not something the schedule produces. Licence classifications come from the CSLB and the scope of each subcontract. And the overtime schedule is a labour-planning matter governed by the wage and hour rules.

16. A contractor receives a $5,000 deposit on a contract. Under California law for home improvement contracts, the maximum down payment is:
a.$500 or 5%, whichever is less
b.$2,500 or 15%, whichever is less
c.There is no legal limit on down payments
d.$1,000 or 10%, whichever is less✓

California law limits down payments on home improvement contracts to the lesser of $1,000 or 10% of the contract price. Demanding more is a violation of the Contractors State License Law.

Bus. & Prof. Code §7159(d)
17. Which of the following best describes "overhead" in construction estimating?
a.Direct labour costs on the project
b.Profit added on top of the job costs
c.Material costs for one specific project
d.Indirect costs not tied to a job✓

Overhead is the indirect cost of keeping the business open — office rent, utilities, insurance, administrative wages, vehicle and equipment carrying cost — none of which can be charged to one job, so it is recovered through markup across all of them. Direct labour and job materials are exactly the costs that can be charged to a job. And profit is what remains after overhead is covered, which is why a markup that recovers only profit leaves the overhead unpaid.

18. A contractor pays an independent subcontractor $4,500 during the calendar year for installation work. Which tax form must the contractor issue to that subcontractor?
a.Form 1099-NEC, filed with the IRS✓
b.Form W-2, filed with the SSA
c.Form W-9, kept on file by the payer
d.Form 941, filed every quarter

Payments for services to someone who is not an employee are reported on Form 1099-NEC once they reach the annual threshold, which is $2,000 for tax year 2026; the $600 figure applied through tax year 2025. At $4,500 the payment is well over the line either way. A W-2 goes only to an employee on payroll. A W-9 is collected from the payee to get their taxpayer identification number and is never issued to them. Form 941 is the employer's own quarterly payroll return and is filed with the IRS rather than given to a payee.

IRC §6041A; IRS Instructions for Forms 1099-MISC and 1099-NEC (2026)
19. What tax form does an employer issue to each EMPLOYEE at the end of the year to report wages and withholding?
a.Form 1099-NEC
b.Form 1040
c.Form W-2✓
d.Form W-9

Employers issue a Form W-2 to each employee, reporting annual wages and amounts withheld for income, Social Security, and Medicare taxes. The 1099-NEC is for non-employees, and the W-9 collects a payee's taxpayer identification number.

20. A contractor is hiring its first employee. Which federal identification number must the business obtain from the IRS to report payroll taxes?
a.A Social Security Number (SSN)
b.An Individual Taxpayer Identification Number (ITIN)
c.An Employer Identification Number (EIN)✓
d.A CSLB license number

An Employer Identification Number (EIN) is the federal tax ID a business uses to report and deposit payroll taxes. A CSLB license number identifies the contractor for licensing, not for federal tax reporting.

21. An employee's gross wages for a pay period are $2,000. Using the combined employee FICA rate of 7.65% (Social Security 6.2% plus Medicare 1.45%), how much is withheld from the paycheck for FICA?
a.$124.00
b.$29.00
c.$153.00✓
d.$200.00

FICA withheld = $2,000 × 7.65% = $153.00. This combines Social Security ($2,000 × 6.2% = $124) and Medicare ($2,000 × 1.45% = $29).

22. Which payroll tax is paid entirely by the EMPLOYER and never withheld from an employee's wages?
a.The employee's share of Social Security tax
b.Federal income tax withholding
c.Federal Unemployment Tax (FUTA)✓
d.California State Disability Insurance (SDI)

FUTA is funded solely by the employer; nothing is withheld from employees for it. Income tax, the employee Social Security share, and California SDI are all withheld from the worker's pay.

23. A contractor classifies an independent subcontractor as an employee by mistake (or the reverse). The MOST significant financial risk of misclassifying a worker is:
a.A reduction in the contractor's bonding capacity at renewal
b.Liability for back payroll taxes and penalties✓
c.Loss of the contractor's business name filing
d.An automatic rise in the cost of materials

Misclassification makes the contractor liable for the payroll taxes that should have been withheld and paid — income tax, Social Security and Medicare, unemployment — plus penalties and interest, with Labor Code §226.8 adding $5,000 to $25,000 per wilful violation and workers' compensation exposure on top. Bonding capacity may suffer as a consequence, but only after the liability lands. A fictitious business name filing is a county registration and is untouched. And material prices are set by suppliers, not by how workers are classified.

Labor Code §226.8; IRC §3509
24. A self-employed contractor operating as a sole proprietor with no withholding generally must make federal income tax payments to the IRS:
a.Once a year, on the April filing date
b.Monthly, together with Form W-2
c.Only when the business is finally sold
d.In quarterly estimated tax payments✓

With no employer withholding, IRC §6654 requires a sole proprietor to pay income tax and self-employment tax in quarterly estimated instalments as the income is earned, and an underpayment brings a penalty even if the April return is paid in full. Paying only in April therefore leaves the penalty in place. A W-2 is a year-end wage statement for employees and has no monthly payment attached. And waiting for a sale of the business ignores tax on the annual profit entirely.

IRC §6654; IRC §1401
25. How frequently a contractor must deposit withheld federal payroll taxes with the IRS is determined primarily by:
a.The number of CSLB licences the firm holds
b.The type of construction work performed
c.The county where the business is located
d.The size of the payroll tax liability✓

26 CFR §31.6302-1 puts an employer on a monthly or semiweekly deposit schedule according to the total employment tax reported during a lookback period, so the bigger the payroll liability, the more often the deposits fall due. Licensing tells the IRS nothing about payroll. The trade performed and the county of the office affect other obligations — classification, local business tax — but not the federal deposit rhythm, which is keyed to dollars of liability alone.

26 CFR §31.6302-1
26. Under the cash basis of accounting, a contractor records revenue when:
a.Cash is received from the customer✓
b.The invoice is mailed to the customer
c.The contract is signed by both parties
d.The work reaches fifty percent complete

On the cash method under IRC §446(c)(1), revenue is recorded when the money is actually or constructively received and expense when it is paid, so the ledger follows the bank. Mailing the invoice is the accrual trigger, because the revenue is earned at that point. Signing the contract creates an obligation but earns nothing yet. And recognising revenue at a stage of completion is the percentage-of-completion method used for long-term contracts, which is neither cash nor simple accrual.

IRC §446(c)(1)
27. Which accounting method records revenue when it is EARNED and expenses when they are INCURRED, even if no cash has changed hands?
a.Cash basis
b.Job cost basis
c.Accrual basis✓
d.Break-even basis

Accrual-basis accounting matches revenue to the period in which it is earned and expenses to the period in which they are incurred, giving a more accurate picture of profitability than cash basis.

28. Which financial statement reports a contractor's revenue and expenses over a period of time and shows the net profit or loss?
a.The income statement, by period✓
b.The balance sheet, at one single date
c.The schedule of values, by line item
d.The statement of changes in equity

The income statement, also called the profit and loss statement, gathers revenue and expense over a month, quarter or year and ends in net profit or loss. The balance sheet reports position at a single date, not performance over time. A schedule of values is a contract document dividing the price into line items for billing, not a financial statement. And the statement of changes in equity does cover a period, but it explains movements in equity rather than how the profit was earned.

29. The fundamental accounting equation expressed on a balance sheet is:
a.Revenue minus expenses equals the profit
b.Assets plus liabilities are the equity
c.Assets equal liabilities plus equity✓
d.Assets minus equity equals revenue

The balance sheet rests on Assets = Liabilities + Owner's Equity, which is why every entry keeps the two sides level. Revenue minus expenses is the income statement's equation and produces profit, not a balance. Adding liabilities to assets double-counts what is owed: equity is assets less liabilities, not their sum. And assets minus equity gives liabilities, never revenue, which belongs to a different statement altogether.

30. A contractor's balance sheet shows total assets of $400,000 and total liabilities of $250,000. What is the owner's equity?
a.$150,000✓
b.$250,000
c.$400,000
d.$650,000

Owner's Equity = Assets − Liabilities = $400,000 − $250,000 = $150,000. Equity is the residual interest in the assets after liabilities are paid.

31. A contractor has current assets of $90,000 and current liabilities of $60,000. What is the working capital?
a.$1.50
b.$30,000✓
c.$150,000
d.$60,000

Working capital = Current Assets − Current Liabilities = $90,000 − $60,000 = $30,000. Working capital measures the short-term funds available to operate the business.

32. A contractor completes a job with a contract price of $120,000 and total job costs of $90,000. What is the gross profit?
a.$120,000
b.$90,000
c.$30,000✓
d.$210,000

Gross profit = Contract Price − Job Costs = $120,000 − $90,000 = $30,000. Gross profit is the amount remaining to cover overhead and produce net profit.

33. A contractor sells a job for $200,000 with total job costs of $150,000. What is the gross profit MARGIN as a percentage of the selling price?
a.33.3%
b.25%✓
c.50%
d.75%

Gross profit = $200,000 − $150,000 = $50,000. Gross margin = Gross Profit ÷ Selling Price = $50,000 ÷ $200,000 = 25%.

34. A contractor wants a 20% gross margin on the SELLING price. If the job costs $48,000, what must the selling price be?
a.$57,600
b.$58,500
c.$60,000✓
d.$54,000

When margin is based on selling price, Selling Price = Cost ÷ (1 − Margin) = $48,000 ÷ (1 − 0.20) = $48,000 ÷ 0.80 = $60,000. Note this differs from simply adding 20% to cost.

35. A contractor applies a 25% markup on cost. Expressed as a margin on the selling price, this 25% markup equals approximately:
a.20%✓
b.25%
c.33%
d.15%

A 25% markup on a cost of $100 produces a selling price of $125. The margin = profit ÷ selling price = $25 ÷ $125 = 20%. A 25% markup always equals a 20% margin.

36. A contractor's annual overhead is $120,000 and the company expects $600,000 in direct job costs for the year. What overhead rate, as a percentage of direct costs, should be applied to each job?
a.10%
b.20%✓
c.25%
d.50%

Overhead rate = Total Overhead ÷ Total Direct Costs = $120,000 ÷ $600,000 = 20%. Each job is then loaded with 20% of its direct costs to recover overhead.

37. A contractor's direct job costs are $70,000. The overhead rate is 15% of direct costs, and the contractor wants a 10% profit on the total of direct costs plus overhead. What is the bid price?
a.$80,500
b.$87,500
c.$84,000
d.$88,550✓

Direct costs $70,000 × 1.15 = $80,500 (costs plus overhead). $80,500 × 1.10 = $88,550 (adding profit). Overhead is applied first, then profit on the loaded cost.

38. A contractor buys a work truck for $45,000, expects to use it for 5 years, and estimates a salvage value of $5,000. Using straight-line depreciation, what is the annual depreciation expense?
a.$8,000✓
b.$9,000
c.$10,000
d.$40,000

Straight-line depreciation = (Cost − Salvage Value) ÷ Useful Life = ($45,000 − $5,000) ÷ 5 = $40,000 ÷ 5 = $8,000 per year.

39. Depreciation of construction equipment is best described as:
a.A non-cash expense spread over the asset's life✓
b.A cash payment made to the lender each month
c.The rise in an asset's market value over the years
d.A direct cost charged to one single job

Depreciation allocates the cost of a long-lived asset across the years that use it, and no money leaves the business when the entry is made, which is why it reduces book profit without touching cash. The loan payment is a separate cash event and is unrelated to the schedule: an asset bought outright is still depreciated. A rise in market value is appreciation, the opposite direction. And depreciation belongs to overhead unless the machine is charged out to one job by the hour, in which case it reaches the job as equipment cost rather than as depreciation.

IRC §167; IRC §168
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