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Basic Nursing Skills

40 questions
31. A normal pulse oximetry (SpO2) reading on room air for most adults is:
a.85-90%
b.60-80%
c.Below 85%
d.95-100%✓

Normal SpO2 on room air is 95-100% for most adults; 90-94% may indicate mild hypoxia and warrants closer monitoring; below 90% is significant hypoxia requiring immediate evaluation and possible supplemental oxygen. Some chronic COPD residents have a baseline of 88-92% and may have a physician-set lower target to avoid suppressing hypoxic drive. Report values outside the resident's individualized parameters to the nurse. Probe placement, motion, nail polish, cold extremities, and poor perfusion can falsely lower the reading.

Fundamentals; pulse oximetry
32. Lateral (side-lying) position with pillows supporting head, back, top arm, and between knees is used to:
a.Compress the dependent shoulder and hip to keep the spine straight
b.Relieve pressure on the sacrum and heels, support proper alignment, and prevent hip adduction✓
c.Increase aspiration risk by keeping the head of the bed flat
d.Increase pressure over the greater trochanter and the dependent ear

Lateral position with appropriate pillow support relieves sacral/heel pressure (alternative to supine in the q2h turning schedule), maintains spinal alignment, and prevents hip adduction (pillow between knees) and shoulder compression (top arm pillow). Bad positioning without supports increases trochanter pressure and shoulder strain. Distractors (a, c, d) describe harms that proper technique prevents. Always check skin at pressure points each turn.

Fundamentals; positioning lateral
33. The apical pulse is measured at:
a.The temporal artery, at the side of the forehead, counted for 30 seconds
b.The 5th intercostal space at the midclavicular line (point of maximal impulse) using a stethoscope, counted for a full minute✓
c.The radial artery, at the thumb side of the wrist, counted for a full minute
d.The popliteal artery, behind the knee, counted for a full minute

Apical pulse is auscultated with a stethoscope at the 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line (left, over the apex of the heart). Counted for a full 60 seconds. Used for infants, irregular rhythms, before digoxin administration, and when peripheral pulses are weak. Wrist (c) is radial; popliteal (d) is behind the knee; temple (a) is temporal. CNAs check apical for accuracy when the radial is irregular or weak.

Fundamentals; pulse sites
34. When weighing a resident on a standing scale, the CNA should:
a.Skip the weight if the resident is on hospice, and chart the last recorded weight instead
b.Weigh with shoes and heavy clothing on, at whatever time the scale is free, and chart the number
c.Weigh at the same time each day (usually morning after voiding, before breakfast), with similar clothing, on the same scale, with the scale balanced/calibrated; report any change of ≥3 lb in 24 hours or ≥5 lb in 7 days to the nurse✓
d.Weigh at a different time each day on whichever scale is available, and report only losses over 10 lb

Accurate weights require consistency: same time of day, same scale, similar clothing, after voiding, with the scale calibrated. Significant changes (≥3 lb in 24 h, ≥5 lb in 7 days, or any unexplained loss) suggest fluid shifts (CHF, dehydration) or nutritional concerns and must be reported. Hospice residents are still weighed per care plan unless comfort indicates otherwise. Distractors (a, b, d) introduce error or omit important monitoring.

Fundamentals; weight measurement
35. The supine position is:
a.Side-lying with the knees flexed and a pillow between them; a pillow under the head and a small support under the knees can promote comfort but the position must be alternated every 2 hours
b.Lying flat on the back, face up; pillows under head and small support under knees can promote comfort but the position must be alternated every 2 hours✓
c.Lying flat on the abdomen with the head turned to one side, alternated every 2 hours
d.Sitting upright at 90 degrees with the knees slightly bent, alternated every 2 hours

Supine: lying flat on the back. Risks include sacral and heel pressure injury, aspiration if HOB low, and back pain. Mitigations: small pillow under head, small support under knees (do NOT fully bend knees long-term—causes contractures), heel float to off-load heels, reposition every 2 hours. Prone (c) is face-down; high-Fowler's (d) is upright; Sims'/lateral (a) is side-lying. Position choice depends on medical condition and care plan.

Fundamentals; supine position
36. When collecting a stool specimen, the CNA should:
a.Use a tongue blade to transfer the stool from the clean bedpan/specimen hat to the labeled container without contamination from urine or toilet water; label and send promptly per order✓
b.Transfer the stool with a gloved hand from the bedpan directly into the labeled container
c.Collect the stool together with the urine in one container to make handling easier
d.Add toilet water to the specimen container so there is enough volume for the laboratory

Stool collection: use a clean dry bedpan or toilet specimen 'hat' to keep stool free of urine and toilet water (both can invalidate testing). Transfer a portion (about 1 tablespoon for routine; more for ova/parasites) using a tongue blade into the labeled container, cap, and send promptly per order. Wear gloves. Contamination (c, d) invalidates testing; bare hands (b) violate Standard Precautions. Document time, characteristics (color, consistency, blood).

Fundamentals; stool specimen
37. Sputum specimen collection is best performed:
a.After the resident has rinsed with an alcohol-based mouthwash, so the sample is not contaminated by mouth bacteria
b.After breakfast, when warm fluids have loosened the secretions and the resident can clear the throat easily
c.Early morning before eating, drinking, or brushing teeth; have the resident rinse the mouth with water, take deep breaths, then cough deeply (from the lungs, not throat clearing) into a sterile container✓
d.In the evening after dinner, when the resident is tired and coughs more readily into the container

Sputum is best collected early morning before eating/drinking/brushing because overnight secretions are most concentrated. Rinse mouth with water (not antibacterial mouthwash, which can alter culture), have the resident take 3-4 deep breaths and then cough from deep in the lungs (saliva is not sputum). Send promptly. Other timings (a, b, d) reduce yield or introduce contamination. Document amount, color, consistency, and odor.

Fundamentals; sputum specimen
38. Tympanic temperature is taken by:
a.Aiming the probe at the eardrum without applying a probe cover, gently pulling the adult pinna down and back, and holding the probe just outside the canal until the device signals, then wiping the tip
b.Applying a clean probe cover, gently pulling the adult ear pinna up and back to straighten the canal, inserting the probe snugly aimed at the eardrum, and waiting for the device to signal✓
c.Holding the device near the cheek and waiting for the reading, without touching the ear
d.Pulling the pinna down and back and inserting the probe deep into the canal with firm pressure

Tympanic technique: apply a clean disposable probe cover, gently pull the pinna up and back for adults (down and back for children under 3) to straighten the ear canal, insert the probe snugly aimed at the tympanic membrane, activate, and wait for the audible/visual signal. Forceful insertion (d) risks ear injury; no cover (a) is unhygienic; cheek (c) measures skin, not core. Cerumen and incorrect aim affect accuracy.

Fundamentals; tympanic temperature
39. Active range-of-motion (AROM) exercises differ from passive ROM in that:
a.AROM is performed by the resident independently (or with verbal cueing), while PROM is performed by the CNA on a resident unable to move the joint✓
b.AROM is performed by the CNA on a sedated resident who cannot move, while PROM is performed by the resident independently with verbal cueing from the CNA
c.AROM requires a physician at the bedside, while PROM may be done by the CNA alone
d.AROM requires a mechanical lift, while PROM is done with a gait belt

AROM: resident performs the movements independently, maintaining strength, flexibility, and joint health. PROM: CNA moves the joint when the resident cannot. AAROM (active-assistive) is a middle option. The benefits include prevention of contractures, maintenance of circulation, and preservation of function. Distractors (b, c, d) misdescribe the concept; AROM is everyday activity-based or scheduled, not requiring physicians or lifts.

Fundamentals; range of motion
40. Which observation during meal time should the CNA report to the nurse immediately?
a.Coughing, choking, wet/gurgly voice after swallowing, pocketing food in the cheek, or refusing meals for several days✓
b.Asking for a second glass of water partway through the meal
c.Eating slowly, finishing the tray, and asking for more rice
d.Wiping the mouth with a napkin between bites of food

Coughing, choking, wet/gurgly ('wet') voice after swallowing, pocketing food, drooling, and unexplained weight loss are red flags for dysphagia and aspiration risk—the resident needs swallow evaluation (SLP) and likely diet modification. Several days of refused meals signal a clinical change requiring nurse assessment. Normal eating behaviors (b, c, d) are not concerning. Aspiration pneumonia is a leading cause of death in elders with dysphagia; timely reporting saves lives.

Fundamentals; aspiration precautions

Restorative Care

20 questions

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1. A CNA is providing restorative nursing care to a resident recovering from a hip fracture. Under 42 CFR §483.24, what is the PRIMARY goal of restorative care?
a.To complete each ADL for the resident as quickly as possible so the schedule stays on time
b.To keep the resident in the long-term care facility rather than discharging her to home
c.To return the resident to an acute hospital setting for further rehabilitation treatment
d.To help the resident attain or maintain the highest practicable level of independence✓

42 CFR §483.24 (Quality of Life) and §483.25 (Quality of Care) require facilities to assist each resident to 'attain or maintain his or her highest practicable physical, mental, and psychosocial well-being.' Restorative nursing focuses on preserving and regaining function, preventing decline, and promoting independence in ADLs. Doing tasks FOR the resident (a) fosters dependency and violates restorative principles. Hospital return (c) and preventing departure (b) are unrelated to restorative goals. Title 22 CCR §72315 obligates nursing services to support each resident's functional abilities.

42 CFR §483.24; Title 22 CCR §72315
2. A resident has right-sided hemiplegia following a CVA but can move the left side normally. The care plan calls for the resident to lift and move the right arm using the left hand. This type of exercise is called:
a.Passive range of motion (PROM)
b.Active-assistive range of motion (AAROM)✓
c.Resistive range of motion against the CNA's hand
d.Isometric resistance exercise

Active-assistive ROM (AAROM) occurs when the resident moves a weaker limb with help from the stronger limb (self-assist) or from the CNA. Passive ROM (a) means the CNA moves the joint while the resident does no work — used when the resident cannot move at all. Active ROM means the resident moves independently with no assistance. Resistive (c) adds external force against motion (rehab/PT). Isometric (d) is muscle tightening without joint movement. Per 42 CFR §483.25(c), facilities must prevent decline in ROM unless clinically unavoidable.

42 CFR §483.25(c); Title 22 CCR §72315
3. A CNA is preparing to perform a sit-to-stand transfer with a resident who has mild left leg weakness. Which action BEST promotes safety and resident independence?
a.Perform the transfer without a gait belt, holding the resident under both arms and lifting on the count of three so the transfer goes faster
b.Apply a gait belt, position the resident's feet flat, and have the resident push up from the bed with both hands on count of three✓
c.Lift the resident under the arms while telling her to relax her legs and let you work
d.Have the resident hold onto the CNA's neck and pull herself up on the count of three

Per Title 22 CCR §72315, transfers must protect both resident and staff. The correct technique: apply a gait belt at the waist, position feet flat and shoulder-width apart, have resident lean forward (nose-over-toes), and rise on a counted cue using their own leg strength. Lifting under the arms (c) can cause shoulder dislocation and removes the active component. Grabbing the CNA's neck (d) risks cervical injury to staff. Skipping the gait belt (a) violates safe-handling policies under 42 CFR §483.25(d) (accident prevention).

Title 22 CCR §72315; 42 CFR §483.25(d)
4. A resident uses a standard cane for ambulation due to mild right leg weakness. On which side should the cane be held, and which leg moves first?
a.Cane on the right (weak) side; move the strong leg and the cane forward together
b.Cane on either side; move the strong leg first, then the cane and the weak leg
c.Cane on the right (weak) side; move the cane and the weak leg forward together, then bring the strong leg past
d.Cane on the left (strong) side; move the cane and weak (right) leg forward together, then the strong leg✓

The cane is held on the STRONG side, opposite the weak leg, to widen the base of support and shift weight away from the affected limb. Sequence: cane and weak leg advance together, then the strong leg steps past. Placing the cane on the weak side (a, c) reduces stability and increases fall risk. Sequence does matter (b) — incorrect order can cause loss of balance. 42 CFR §483.25(d) requires the facility to ensure residents receive adequate supervision and assistive devices to prevent accidents.

42 CFR §483.25(d); Title 22 CCR §72315
5. A resident using a standard walker begins to fall forward during ambulation. The CNA is walking slightly behind with a gait belt applied. What is the CNA's CORRECT response?
a.Use the gait belt to ease the resident slowly to the floor, protecting the head and bending your knees✓
b.Pull the resident upright by the gait belt with a sharp tug and steady her against the walker until she has her balance
c.Lift the resident back to standing without help, whatever her weight
d.Step back and call for help, letting the resident catch herself on the walker

When a resident is falling, the CNA must NEVER try to stop the fall by lifting (causes back injury and may injure resident). The correct procedure is controlled lowering: widen your stance, bend knees, ease the resident down your leg using the gait belt, and protect the head. Yanking (b) can cause rotator-cuff or rib injury. Stepping away (d) breaches duty of care. Lifting solo (c) violates safe-patient-handling policy under 42 CFR §483.25(d) and Title 22 CCR §72315. After the fall, call for help, assess, and complete an incident report.

42 CFR §483.25(d); Title 22 CCR §72315
6. A resident with mild dementia repeatedly asks the CNA to button her blouse because 'it's faster when you do it.' The care plan lists 'encourage self-dressing with verbal cues.' What is the BEST response?
a.Button the blouse for her so that the morning care schedule stays on time
b.Sit with the resident, hand her the buttons one at a time, and offer step-by-step verbal cues with patience✓
c.Tell the resident that she must do the buttons herself, then leave the room to finish rounds on the other hall
d.Document that the resident refused to dress and move on to the next resident

42 CFR §483.24(b) requires the facility to support each resident's ability to perform ADLs and to prevent decline. Doing tasks for the resident (a) accelerates functional loss. Walking away (c) is dismissive and may be psychological neglect. Documenting refusal (d) mischaracterizes the situation — the resident is asking for support, not refusing. The correct approach uses graded assistance: verbal cueing, hand-over-hand if needed, breaking the task into small steps. This honors the care plan and the resident's dignity per Title 22 CCR §72315.

42 CFR §483.24(b); Title 22 CCR §72315
7. A resident is on a bladder-retraining program. Which CNA action BEST supports the program?
a.Apply an incontinence brief at the start of each shift so accidents are avoided and the linens stay dry
b.Offer toileting on a regular schedule (e.g., every 2 hours) and praise successful continence✓
c.Ask the nurse to insert a Foley catheter so the linens stay dry overnight
d.Limit fluids throughout the day so that less urine is produced

42 CFR §483.25(e) addresses urinary incontinence and requires facilities to assist residents to maintain or restore continence. Scheduled (prompted) toileting plus positive reinforcement is the evidence-based approach. Immediate briefing (a) defeats the program. Fluid restriction (d) causes dehydration, UTIs, and concentrated urine that worsens incontinence — and is not a CNA decision. Catheterization (c) is a medical order, increases infection risk (CAUTI), and is a last resort under federal regulation. Title 22 CCR §72315 obligates nursing care to support function.

42 CFR §483.25(e); Title 22 CCR §72315
8. A resident with rheumatoid arthritis has difficulty gripping a standard fork. Which adaptive intervention BEST promotes independent eating?
a.Switch the resident to a pureed diet without consulting the dietitian
b.Feed the resident the entire meal so that she does not become frustrated
c.Provide built-up handle utensils, a plate guard, and a non-slip mat✓
d.Withhold her meals until she is able to manage a regular fork on her own

Adaptive utensils (built-up handles, rocker knives), plate guards, and non-slip mats allow residents with limited grip or coordination to feed themselves — preserving independence and dignity. Feeding entirely (b) creates dependency. Diet changes (a) are physician/dietitian decisions; CNAs cannot alter diet orders. Withholding food (d) is neglect under 42 CFR §483.12 (abuse/neglect prohibition). 42 CFR §483.25 requires support of nutritional status and functional ability; Title 22 CCR §72315 requires the nursing service to meet daily living needs.

42 CFR §483.25; Title 22 CCR §72315
9. A bedbound resident has not had ROM exercises for several days. The CNA notices the resident's fingers are curling tightly toward the palm and cannot be opened easily. This finding is MOST consistent with:
a.A sign of returning muscle strength in the hand and wrist
b.A normal aging change that requires no intervention at all
c.A contracture caused by lack of movement and disuse✓
d.An expected effect of bedrest that reverses on its own

A contracture is permanent shortening of muscles, tendons, or joint capsules due to immobility, leading to a fixed deformity. It is a preventable complication; once established, it severely limits function and hygiene. 42 CFR §483.25(c) states a resident with limited ROM must receive appropriate treatment and services to increase ROM or prevent further decrease. Aging alone does not cause contractures (b). It is not strength (a) and does not reverse on its own (d). The CNA must report and document immediately so the nurse can adjust the care plan.

42 CFR §483.25(c); Title 22 CCR §72315
10. To prevent foot drop in a bedbound resident, the CNA should:
a.Leave the feet hanging over the end of the mattress so the toes are not pressed by the sheet
b.Place a pillow tightly under the knees at all times to support the legs
c.Use a foot board, high-top sneakers, or splints to keep the feet at a 90-degree angle✓
d.Tuck the top sheet tightly across the toes to keep the feet warm

Foot drop (plantar flexion contracture) develops when the foot remains pointed downward. Prevention: keep ankles in dorsiflexion (90 degrees) using a foot board, high-tops, or prescribed splints, with frequent ROM. Feet hanging off the bed (a) causes plantar flexion. Pillows under the knees (b) cause hip and knee flexion contractures and impair circulation. Tight top sheets (d) push toes into plantar flexion — instead, use a bed cradle or loose sheet. 42 CFR §483.25(b)/(c) require prevention of avoidable decline.

42 CFR §483.25(b); Title 22 CCR §72315
11. A CNA observes a small area of intact skin on a resident's sacrum that is red and does not blanch (turn white) when pressed. This finding is classified as:
a.Stage 1 pressure injury✓
b.Deep tissue injury (DTI)
c.Stage 3 pressure injury
d.Unstageable pressure injury

NPIAP staging: Stage 1 = intact skin with non-blanchable erythema (redness that does not turn white when pressed). Stage 2 = partial-thickness loss with exposed dermis. Stage 3 = full-thickness loss with visible subcutaneous fat. Stage 4 = full-thickness loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. Unstageable (d) = depth obscured by slough/eschar. DTI (b) = persistent non-blanchable deep red, maroon, or purple discoloration suggesting deeper damage under intact or non-intact skin. CNAs must report any new redness immediately per 42 CFR §483.25(b) and Title 22 CCR §72523 (incident reporting).

42 CFR §483.25(b); Title 22 CCR §72523
12. Standard repositioning frequency for a bedbound resident at risk for pressure injury is:
a.Every 8 hours, at each shift change, unless the resident asks sooner
b.Only when the resident asks to be turned or looks uncomfortable in bed
c.At least every 2 hours, or more often if indicated by the care plan✓
d.Every 4 hours during waking hours, and once overnight if the resident wakes

The federal and CA standard of care is repositioning at least every 2 hours for bedbound residents, with more frequent turning for higher-risk individuals (cachexia, vasopressors, prior pressure injury). Specialty surfaces do not eliminate the need to turn. Less frequent turning (a, d) allows ischemia and tissue death. Waiting for requests (b) fails residents who cannot communicate and constitutes neglect under 42 CFR §483.12. The CNA documents turning times and any skin findings. Title 22 CCR §72315 requires the nursing care plan to be followed.

42 CFR §483.25(b); Title 22 CCR §72315
13. When positioning a bedbound resident, which technique BEST protects the heels from pressure injury?
a.Apply tight elastic stockings up to mid-thigh to support the circulation in the legs
b.Massage the heels vigorously with lotion at the start of every shift
c.Float the heels off the mattress by placing a pillow lengthwise under the calves✓
d.Place a thin pillow directly under the Achilles tendon and the heels

Heels have minimal subcutaneous tissue and high pressure injury risk. The standard of care is to FLOAT the heels by placing a pillow lengthwise under the lower legs from below the knee to above the ankle, with heels completely off the surface. A pillow under the Achilles (d) still allows heel contact. Tight stockings (a) may impair circulation and require a physician order. Vigorous massage (b) is contraindicated — it can shear fragile capillaries and worsen tissue damage. 42 CFR §483.25(b) requires prevention of pressure ulcers when avoidable.

42 CFR §483.25(b)
14. A resident recovering from a left CVA has right-sided hemiplegia and mild dysphagia. Which CNA action is MOST appropriate at mealtime?
a.Mix all the foods on the tray together so swallowing is easier, and offer thin liquids between every bite of food
b.Position upright at 90 degrees, place food on the unaffected (left) side, allow time, and observe for choking✓
c.Feed the resident quickly while she lies flat so the tray is finished on time
d.Place the food on the affected (right) side of the mouth and allow extra time

Dysphagia care requires upright positioning (90 degrees), small bites, food placed on the UNAFFECTED side (the resident has sensation and motor control there), chin-tuck if ordered, and observation for coughing, pocketing, or wet voice. Feeding lying flat (c) causes aspiration. Mixing foods (a) is unappetizing and does not improve swallow safety. Placing food on the affected side (d) causes pocketing and aspiration. 42 CFR §483.25 and Title 22 CCR §72315 require staff to follow the care plan and prevent avoidable harm such as aspiration pneumonia.

42 CFR §483.25(b); Title 22 CCR §72315
15. A resident with expressive aphasia after a stroke struggles to find words. The BEST CNA approach is to:
a.Speak loudly and slowly, as though the resident were hearing-impaired, and repeat each word until she is able to answer
b.Allow extra time, use simple yes/no questions, picture boards, and avoid finishing sentences for the resident✓
c.Avoid talking to the resident during care so she does not become frustrated
d.Insist that the resident write out every request in complete sentences

Expressive (Broca's) aphasia means the resident understands but has difficulty producing speech. Best practice: allow processing time, use simple closed-ended questions, offer picture/letter boards, and let the resident finish their own thoughts. Speaking loudly (a) confuses the issue with hearing loss. Avoiding speech (c) violates the resident's right to communication and dignity under 42 CFR §483.10. Forcing writing (d) ignores that writing is often also impaired. Title 22 CCR §72527 protects communication rights.

42 CFR §483.10; 42 CFR §483.25
16. A resident with Parkinson's disease has shuffling gait, a forward stoop, and freezing episodes. Which intervention BEST reduces fall risk?
a.Walk briskly beside the resident to encourage her to keep up the pace along the hallway to the dining room
b.Use visual cues such as floor tape or counting cadence ('1-2, 1-2') and allow extra time during freezing✓
c.Allow ambulation only right after the morning dose, with no rest breaks
d.Carry or wheel the resident from room to room to avoid all ambulation

Parkinson's gait freezing responds to visual or auditory cues — tape lines on the floor, counting aloud, or a marching cadence helps re-initiate movement. Rushing (a) increases falls. Carrying (d) eliminates therapeutic movement and is unsafe. Restricting ambulation between doses (c) is not the CNA's call and ignores fluctuating 'on-off' periods. The CNA should also clear paths, use a gait belt, and report any new freezing or worsening tremor to the nurse per 42 CFR §483.25(d) and Title 22 CCR §72315.

42 CFR §483.25(d); Title 22 CCR §72315
17. A resident with moderate Alzheimer's dementia insists she must 'go pick up the children from school' although her children are grown. Which response BEST uses validation therapy?
a.Tell her firmly that her children are grown adults and that she is confused, then show her their photographs
b.Acknowledge her feelings: 'You really care about your children. Tell me about them,' then gently redirect✓
c.Show her a calendar and quiz her on the year, the month, and the day
d.Ignore the statement and continue with her bath without responding

Validation therapy (Naomi Feil) honors the emotional reality behind the words rather than correcting facts. The CNA acknowledges the underlying feeling (love for her children) and offers reminiscence and gentle redirection. Direct contradiction (a) increases agitation. Reality orientation (c) is appropriate only in early dementia or delirium; in moderate-to-severe dementia it causes distress. Ignoring (d) is dismissive and may be psychological neglect under 42 CFR §483.12. 42 CFR §483.40 requires behavioral health services that meet each resident's needs.

42 CFR §483.40; Title 22 CCR §72315
18. A resident with dementia becomes agitated, paces the hallway, and cries every afternoon around 4 p.m. This pattern is BEST described as:
a.Sundowning✓
b.Stage 4 Alzheimer's plateau
c.Normal mid-day fatigue
d.Acute delirium

Sundowning is increased confusion, agitation, restlessness, or anxiety occurring in the late afternoon or evening in residents with dementia. Contributing factors: fatigue, lighting changes, hunger, unmet toileting needs. CNA interventions: maintain routine, increase daytime light, reduce noise, offer a snack, and engage in calming activities. Delirium (d) is an acute, fluctuating confusion usually from infection or medication and requires nurse evaluation. A 'stage 4 plateau' (b) is not a clinical term. Normal fatigue (c) does not explain consistent agitation. 42 CFR §483.40 requires individualized behavioral interventions.

42 CFR §483.40; Title 22 CCR §72315
19. Which activity is MOST appropriate to offer a resident with moderate dementia who enjoyed gardening throughout her life?
a.Completing a 1000-piece jigsaw puzzle independently in the day room
b.A sensory activity such as planting seeds in a small pot with the CNA's hands-on assistance✓
c.Watching a fast-paced action movie alone in her room after lunch
d.Attending a three-hour lecture on horticulture with a group of other residents in the day room

Therapeutic activities for residents with dementia should match retained abilities, draw on lifelong interests, and offer sensory engagement and success. Hands-on planting honors her identity and provides tactile, olfactory, and visual stimulation. A long lecture (d) exceeds attention span and causes frustration. Isolated movie watching (c) increases agitation and provides no engagement. A 1000-piece puzzle (a) is far beyond cognitive capacity and causes failure. 42 CFR §483.24 requires activities that maintain psychosocial well-being; 42 CFR §483.10 protects the right to make choices about activities.

42 CFR §483.10; 42 CFR §483.24
20. A new resident eats every meal alone in her room and tells the CNA, 'No one here knows me.' The MOST appropriate restorative-psychosocial response is to:
a.Document that she has refused to socialize, note it in the shift report, and take no further action until the next care conference in six weeks
b.Suggest to the family that she be moved to a different facility nearby
c.Insist that she attend every group activity on the calendar each day
d.Report her statement to the nurse, learn about her interests and culture, and gradually introduce her to compatible residents and activities✓

Loneliness and isolation accelerate cognitive and functional decline. 42 CFR §483.24(c) requires the facility to support psychosocial well-being and meaningful activities. The CNA's role: report the statement to the nurse for care-plan revision, learn about the resident's culture, language, faith, and hobbies, and offer graduated socialization. Documenting without action (a) is neglectful. Forcing attendance (c) violates the right to choose under 42 CFR §483.10. Transfer (b) is not a CNA decision and does not address the underlying need. Title 22 CCR §72381 covers activity programs.

42 CFR §483.24(c); Title 22 CCR §72381

Mental Health

20 questions
1. Which cognitive change is considered a NORMAL part of aging rather than a sign of dementia?
a.Getting lost while driving on a familiar route across town
b.Wearing the same soiled clothes for days without noticing
c.Being unable to recognize close family members by name or by face, even in familiar surroundings
d.Slower processing speed and occasional word-finding difficulty, with intact judgment and ADLs✓

Normal age-related cognitive change includes slower processing speed, occasional 'tip-of-the-tongue' word retrieval, and minor short-term forgetfulness — without loss of judgment, ADL independence, or recognition of loved ones. Failure to recognize family (c), getting lost on familiar routes (a), and decline in self-care (b) are red flags for dementia and must be reported. The CNA should never assume cognitive symptoms are 'just aging.' Per 42 CFR §483.40 the facility must assess and address behavioral and cognitive changes; Title 22 CCR §72315 requires ongoing nursing assessment of resident status.

42 CFR §483.40; Title 22 CCR §72315
2. A previously cheerful resident now sleeps most of the day, eats only a few bites at meals, has lost five pounds in two weeks, and tells the CNA, 'What's the point of getting out of bed?' The CNA should:
a.Report all observations and the resident's statement to the charge nurse immediately and document in the chart✓
b.Tell the resident to cheer up, encourage her to think positively, and offer to bring her a favorite snack at lunch
c.Move the resident to a brighter room without telling the charge nurse
d.Wait two more weeks to see whether her mood and appetite lift

Depression in older adults is common, often missed, and dangerous — it raises suicide risk and accelerates physical decline. Warning signs: anhedonia, sleep/appetite change, weight loss, hopeless statements. The CNA must report observations and verbatim resident statements to the nurse without delay so the resident can be assessed by the IDT and physician for depression and suicide risk. Waiting (d) risks deterioration or suicide. 'Cheer up' messages (b) shame the resident and worsen depression. Unilateral room changes (c) exceed CNA scope. 42 CFR §483.40 mandates behavioral health services.

42 CFR §483.40; Title 22 CCR §72527
3. Which behavior in an elderly LTC resident should the CNA report as a POTENTIAL warning sign of suicide risk?
a.Choosing to skip the Tuesday bingo game in order to read a library book alone in her room
b.Asking the CNA at bedtime for an extra blanket because the room feels cold to her again
c.Giving away cherished personal possessions, saying goodbye, and refusing medications✓
d.Requesting a different dinner entree because she does not care for the baked fish tonight

Suicide warning signs in older adults include giving away possessions, saying goodbye, hopeless statements, sudden calmness after depression, hoarding medications, and refusing care or medications. Older adults — especially older white men — have the highest suicide completion rate in the U.S. Any warning sign MUST be reported immediately to the nurse who will arrange physician assessment and safety measures. Routine requests (b, d) and exercising the right to choose activities (a) per 42 CFR §483.10 are not warning signs. 42 CFR §483.40 requires behavioral health support.

42 CFR §483.40; Title 22 CCR §72315
4. A resident with dementia repeatedly wanders out of her room and into other residents' rooms. The MOST appropriate first response is to:
a.Place her in a wheelchair with the tray table locked in front so she cannot stand, and park her at the nurses' station for the shift
b.Lock her room door from the outside while staff are down the hall
c.Gently redirect her, walk with her, and engage her in a familiar activity, then notify the nurse to update the care plan✓
d.Apply a vest restraint to keep her in bed for the rest of the shift

Wandering is common in dementia and is best managed with redirection, supervised walking, scheduled activity, environmental cues (clear signage, safe walking paths), and care-plan review. Restraints (a, d) without medical necessity and informed consent constitute false imprisonment and abuse under 42 CFR §483.12 and 42 CFR §483.10(e) (right to be free from restraints). Locking residents in (b) is also unlawful restraint. The CNA reports patterns so the IDT can identify triggers (boredom, pain, toileting needs) and adjust the plan.

42 CFR §483.10; 42 CFR §483.12
5. A resident becomes verbally aggressive and raises a fist toward the CNA during a bath. The BEST de-escalation response is to:
a.Push the resident's hand down firmly and continue the bath, to show her that the behavior is not allowed on the unit at all
b.Stop the task, step back to a safe distance, speak calmly in a low voice, give the resident space, and leave to get help✓
c.Argue with the resident to prove that the bath is medically necessary
d.Hold the resident's arms down and finish the bath as quickly as possible

De-escalation: stop the trigger task, give the resident space, lower voice and posture, validate feelings, and remove yourself if unsafe to summon help. Pushing the resident's hand down (a) or holding her arms down to finish the bath (d) is physical restraint without a physician order and informed consent, violating 42 CFR §483.12 (right to be free from abuse and unnecessary restraint); unconsented physical force during care is also battery (PC §242) and abuse — grounds for immediate termination, criminal prosecution, and CDPH license revocation. Arguing (c) escalates. Title 22 CCR §72319 requires policies on resident behavior management without abuse.

42 CFR §483.12; Title 22 CCR §72319
6. Under federal regulations, physical restraints in a nursing facility may be used only when:
a.There is a medical symptom requiring it, a physician's written order specifying type and duration, and the least restrictive alternative has been tried✓
b.The resident has wandered out of her room more than twice in one shift, the unit is short-staffed that evening, and the charge nurse agrees a restraint is easier
c.Family members request restraints for their own peace of mind at night
d.Any staff member decides the resident's behavior is disruptive to others

42 CFR §483.10(e) and §483.12(a)(2) prohibit physical or chemical restraints imposed for discipline or staff convenience. Restraints are permitted only to treat a documented medical symptom, with a physician's written order specifying type, location, and duration, after less restrictive interventions have failed, and with informed consent. Staff convenience combined with wandering frequency (b), family preference (c), and a staff member's own judgment that the behavior is disruptive (d) are not legal justifications. Unauthorized restraint is false imprisonment and abuse, reportable to CDPH and law enforcement, and can result in license revocation.

42 CFR §483.10(e); 42 CFR §483.12(a)(2)
7. A widowed resident with no nearby family says, 'No one ever comes to see me.' Which CNA action BEST addresses her psychosocial well-being?
a.Change the subject quickly so she does not dwell on the negative
b.Document 'resident lonely' in the chart and take no further action
c.Tell her that everyone in the facility is in the same situation
d.Sit with her for a few minutes, listen actively, and report her need to the social services designee so visitation programs, volunteers, or phone/video calls can be arranged✓

Loneliness is a serious health risk in LTC, linked to depression, dementia progression, and increased mortality. 42 CFR §483.24(c) requires support of psychosocial well-being. The CNA provides presence and reports to social services who can arrange volunteer visitor programs, intergenerational visits, video calls with family, faith community visits, and pet therapy. Minimizing (c) and changing the subject (a) dismiss the resident's emotional reality. Documenting without action (b) is passive neglect. The CNA's compassionate listening is itself a meaningful intervention.

42 CFR §483.24(c)
8. A resident's adult daughter visits and becomes loudly critical of the CNA's care in front of the resident. The CNA's BEST response is to:
a.Argue with the daughter in the resident's room to defend the care given, listing everything that was done for her mother that morning
b.Remain calm, listen without interrupting, acknowledge concerns, offer to discuss privately, and notify the charge nurse✓
c.Tell the daughter to leave the facility immediately and call security
d.Stop providing care to the resident for as long as the daughter is visiting

Difficult family dynamics are common and rarely about the CNA personally. The CNA should remain professional, use active listening, acknowledge feelings, and invite a private conversation that includes the nurse or social worker. Arguing (a) escalates and risks complaints. Ordering family out (c) exceeds CNA authority and may violate visitation rights under 42 CFR §483.10(f)(4). Withdrawing care (d) is abandonment. The charge nurse documents the interaction and coordinates with social services per Title 22 CCR §72527 (resident rights).

42 CFR §483.10; Title 22 CCR §72527
9. A 78-year-old resident has begun drinking large amounts of mouthwash. Empty bottles are found in his bedside drawer. The CNA should:
a.Report to the charge nurse immediately, document the observation, and ensure mouthwash with alcohol is removed and replaced with an alcohol-free product as ordered✓
b.Confront the resident about the empty bottles, demand that he stop drinking them, and remove the rest of the mouthwash from his drawer without charting the observation
c.Ignore the behavior, since what a resident chooses to drink is his own right
d.Remove the mouthwash from the drawer quietly without telling anyone on the team

Substance use disorder in older adults is under-recognized and dangerous (falls, GI bleed, drug interactions). Ingesting alcohol-containing mouthwash is a red flag. The CNA must report observations to the nurse so the physician can assess and the IDT can revise the plan (alcohol-free mouthwash, screening, possibly addiction medicine consult). Ignoring (c) abandons clinical duty. Confronting (b) is shaming and outside CNA scope. Hiding without reporting (d) defeats care planning and may itself be a form of self-neglect facilitation. Under W&I §15610.07 self-neglect is a form of reportable elder abuse.

42 CFR §483.40; W&I §15610.07
10. Under California Welfare & Institutions Code §15610.07, which of the following is NOT a recognized form of elder abuse?
a.Financial abuse, such as taking the resident's pension check
b.A resident voluntarily refusing a piece of dessert✓
c.Physical abuse, including the use of unreasonable restraint
d.Neglect by a caregiver, and self-neglect by the resident

W&I §15610.07 defines elder/dependent adult abuse to include physical abuse (§15610.63), sexual abuse, neglect (§15610.57), financial abuse (§15610.30), abandonment, abduction, isolation, and the deprivation of goods or services necessary to avoid physical harm or mental suffering. Self-neglect is included. A resident's voluntary refusal of an offered dessert (b) is the exercise of the right to refuse — not abuse. CNAs are mandated reporters under W&I §15630 and must report suspected abuse, including by other staff, family, or visitors.

W&I §15610.07; W&I §15610.30; W&I §15610.63
11. A CNA notices unexplained bruises in the shape of fingerprints on a resident's upper arm. The resident whispers, 'The night CNA grabbed me hard.' The CNA's FIRST action is to:
a.Report to the charge nurse and administrator immediately and ensure mandated abuse report is filed per W&I §15630✓
b.Wait until the next scheduled staff meeting to raise the concern with the charge nurse and the administrator together
c.Tell a coworker first to get their opinion on what happened
d.Confront the night CNA directly at the start of her next shift

Under W&I §15630, a CNA in a long-term care facility is a mandated reporter of suspected elder/dependent adult abuse. The reporting flow: report immediately to the charge nurse and administrator AND personally ensure a report is made by phone to the local LTC Ombudsman or law enforcement (immediately for physical abuse) and a written report (SOC 341) within 2 working days. Confronting the suspected abuser (d) risks evidence destruction and retaliation. Waiting (b) or gossiping (c) violates mandated reporter duty and may expose the CNA to criminal penalty under §15630(h).

W&I §15630; W&I §15610.07
12. Under W&I §15630, a mandated reporter who suspects physical abuse of a long-term care resident must make a TELEPHONE report:
a.Only if the resident and her legal representative both agree in writing that a report should be filed
b.Within 30 days of first suspecting that abuse has occurred
c.Only after the resident's family has been notified in writing
d.Immediately, or as soon as practicably possible, and submit a written report within 2 working days✓

W&I §15630(b)(1)(A) requires immediate telephone (or via confidential internet report) notification, or as soon as practicably possible, to the local ombudsman, law enforcement, or APS depending on setting (in an LTC facility, ombudsman/law enforcement for physical abuse and serious bodily injury). A written report (form SOC 341) must follow within 2 working days. The resident's consent is NOT required. Delaying for family (c) or resident permission (a) violates the statute. Failure to report is a misdemeanor with fines up to $5,000 and possible jail time under W&I §15630(h).

W&I §15630(b)(1)(A); W&I §15658
13. A resident asks the CNA to read aloud from the Bible at bedtime. The CNA practices a different faith. The MOST appropriate response is to:
a.Refuse and tell the resident to find a staff member of the same faith, since reading another faith's scripture is outside the CNA's role
b.Explain that religious practice is not part of the CNA's job description
c.Respectfully read the requested passages or arrange another staff member or chaplain to do so, honoring the resident's spiritual care✓
d.Read the passages and then offer to share the CNA's own faith with her

42 CFR §483.10(f)(11) protects each resident's right to religious and spiritual practice. The CNA may read the passage or, if uncomfortable, arrange another staff member, volunteer, or chaplain. Refusing without alternatives (a, b) is denial of spiritual care. Proselytizing (d) violates the resident's rights and may be psychosocial abuse. Spiritual care reduces anxiety and improves coping in LTC. The CNA respects each resident's faith, dietary practices, and rituals without judgment, consistent with 42 CFR §483.40 (behavioral and psychosocial care).

42 CFR §483.10; 42 CFR §483.40
14. A Vietnamese-speaking resident becomes anxious because the staff do not speak her language. The MOST culturally responsive CNA action is to:
a.Document that the resident does not speak English and provide care without further communication
b.Wait for a family member to translate, even when no relative is available that day
c.Speak English more loudly and slowly until the resident appears to understand
d.Request a qualified interpreter (in-person, phone, or video), use translated written materials, learn basic greetings, and report her preference for inclusion in the care plan✓

Title VI (42 USC §2000d) prohibits discrimination based on national origin in any program receiving federal funds, including Medicare/Medicaid facilities. Facilities must provide meaningful language access (qualified interpreters, translated materials). 42 CFR §483.10(b)(3) requires care plan information in a language the resident understands. Speaking louder (c) is ineffective and demeaning. Relying solely on family (b) breaches privacy and may be unreliable. Skipping communication (a) is neglect and violates dignity. Culturally responsive care includes greetings in the resident's language, foods, and customs.

42 CFR §483.10; Title VI of the Civil Rights Act, 42 USC §2000d
15. An LGBTQ+ elder resident shares with the CNA that she was discriminated against in a prior facility and is afraid to be 'out' here. The BEST CNA action is to:
a.Affirm her identity, assure confidentiality, ask how she wishes to be addressed, and report concerns to the charge nurse so safe and inclusive care is documented in the plan✓
b.Refuse to provide her personal care because of the CNA's own religious beliefs
c.Tell the resident to keep her sexual orientation private while she is here, since staff cannot control how other residents may react
d.Document her statement in the chart and discuss it freely with coworkers

California's LGBTQ Long-Term Care Facility Resident's Bill of Rights (HSC §1439.50 et seq.) prohibits discrimination, mistreatment, or denial of services based on actual or perceived sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, or HIV status in LTC. The CNA affirms identity, uses chosen name and pronouns, protects privacy, and reports concerns. Silencing the resident (c) is itself harm. Casual disclosure (d) violates privacy. Refusing care (b) is discrimination and abandonment. Facilities must ensure equal access; violations may trigger CDPH enforcement and civil liability.

42 CFR §483.10; HSC §1439.50
16. A transgender female resident asks to be addressed as 'Ms.' and 'she/her.' Her chart shows her legal first name as 'Robert.' The CNA should:
a.Ask other residents on the unit what name they prefer to call her
b.Refuse to use any name that does not appear on the legal record
c.Continue calling her 'Robert' and 'sir' because that is what the chart says
d.Address her as 'Ms.' with her chosen name and use she/her pronouns, document her stated preference, and ensure roommate, bathing, and clothing accommodations respect her gender identity✓

Under HSC §1439.50 (Lesbian, Gay, Bisexual, Transgender Long-Term Care Facility Resident's Bill of Rights), willful and repeated failure to use a resident's preferred name or pronouns can constitute prohibited mistreatment. Facilities must address residents by chosen name and pronoun and provide bathing, clothing, and rooming accommodations consistent with gender identity. The CNA documents preferences and reports any staff or roommate harassment. Using the legal name only (b, c) or polling others (a) violates dignity, identity, and CA law. Compliance is also a 42 CFR §483.10 dignity obligation.

HSC §1439.50; 42 CFR §483.10
17. An elderly resident with new-onset confusion, fever, and incontinence over 24 hours is MOST likely experiencing:
a.Sundowning, which will settle on its own once the evening routine has begun again
b.Normal dementia progression, which requires no action beyond her routine care
c.A behavioral choice the resident is making in order to get more staff attention
d.Delirium, which requires immediate nurse notification and medical evaluation✓

Delirium is an acute, fluctuating disturbance in attention and cognition, often caused by infection (UTI, pneumonia), medication, dehydration, or pain. In elders, a UTI commonly presents with new confusion plus fever and incontinence. Delirium is a medical emergency — the CNA must report immediately. Dementia progresses slowly over months/years, not 24 hours (b). Sundowning (a) recurs late afternoon and does not include fever. It is never a 'choice' (c). 42 CFR §483.40 requires prompt response to behavioral and cognitive change.

42 CFR §483.40
18. A resident's nephew, who manages her finances, has been withdrawing large amounts from her account and selling her jewelry without her consent. This is BEST described as:
a.Criminal only if the resident objects to the withdrawals in writing first
b.Financial abuse under W&I §15610.30, which is reportable elder abuse✓
c.Acceptable, as long as the nephew holds a valid durable power of attorney
d.A private family matter that the CNA has no duty to report to anyone else

W&I §15610.30 defines financial abuse as taking, secreting, appropriating, obtaining, or retaining real or personal property of an elder or dependent adult for a wrongful use, with intent to defraud, or by undue influence. Even a person with power of attorney commits abuse if the use is unauthorized or against the resident's interests. CNAs are mandated reporters (W&I §15630) and must report suspected financial abuse to APS or the LTC ombudsman. It is not a 'private matter' (d). POA does not authorize theft (c). The resident need not file written objection (a).

W&I §15610.07; W&I §15610.30
19. A CNA, who is also a parent volunteer at an after-school program, observes a child with multiple unexplained burns. Under California law, the CNA is:
a.Permitted to wait until the family has explained the injuries
b.A mandated reporter of child abuse under Penal Code §11166 in their professional capacity as a CNA, and must report to a child protective agency immediately✓
c.Required only to tell the after-school program's principal
d.Not required to report, because it happened outside the facility

Under PC §11165.7, health practitioners (including CNAs) are mandated reporters of suspected child abuse or neglect, in addition to their elder abuse duties under W&I §15630. PC §11166 requires an immediate telephone report to a child protective agency (police, sheriff, or CPS) as soon as practicably possible, followed by a written report within 36 hours. Waiting for family (a) or only telling the principal (c) does not satisfy the statute. The duty applies whenever the mandated reporter, in their professional capacity OR within the scope of employment, learns of or observes suspected abuse.

W&I §15630; PC §11166
20. The Long-Term Care Ombudsman program's primary role is to:
a.Issue and renew nursing assistant certificates and investigate certification complaints across California facilities
b.Investigate and resolve complaints made by or on behalf of LTC residents, and advocate for resident rights✓
c.Provide medical treatment to residents in long-term care
d.Manage the facility's payroll, staffing, and scheduling

Established under the federal Older Americans Act (42 USC §3058g) and codified in California's HSC §9700 et seq., the LTC Ombudsman investigates complaints from or on behalf of LTC residents, advocates for resident rights and quality of care, and is authorized to receive abuse reports under W&I §15630. Ombudsmen do not provide medical care (c), license CNAs (a — that is CDPH), or manage facility operations (d). The CNA must know how to contact the local Ombudsman and post their contact information conspicuously.

Older Americans Act 42 USC §3058g; HSC §9701
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