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Emotional Support

16 questions
1. The KEY difference between hospice care and palliative care is that:
a.Hospice may be elected at any age, while palliative care is available only to residents over 65
b.Only hospice provides spiritual care; palliative care addresses physical symptoms alone
c.Palliative care does not include pain management, which is provided only under hospice
d.Hospice is for residents with a terminal prognosis (generally 6 months or less if disease runs its course) who have elected comfort-focused care; palliative care can be provided at any stage of serious illness alongside curative treatment✓

Medicare hospice (42 CFR §418) requires physician certification of terminal prognosis of 6 months or less if the disease runs its normal course, and the patient elects to forgo curative treatment in favor of comfort. Palliative care addresses symptoms (pain, nausea, dyspnea) at any stage of serious illness and can be combined with curative therapy. Both include spiritual care. The CNA on a hospice case follows the plan of care from the hospice interdisciplinary team and focuses on comfort, dignity, and family support.

42 CFR §418 (Medicare Hospice); 42 CFR §483.25(k)
2. A dying resident shows irregular breathing alternating with periods of apnea (no breathing) lasting up to 30 seconds, followed by rapid breaths. This pattern is called:
a.Eupnea, the normal quiet breathing pattern seen at rest
b.Kussmaul respirations, the deep rapid pattern of metabolic acidosis
c.Apneustic breathing, which calls for CPR to be started
d.Cheyne-Stokes respirations, common near end of life✓

Cheyne-Stokes is a cyclic pattern of crescendo-decrescendo respirations alternating with apnea, common in the active dying phase. It is NOT an emergency in the dying patient and CPR is not appropriate if the resident has a DNR. Kussmaul (b) is deep rapid breathing in metabolic acidosis. Eupnea (a) is normal breathing. Apneustic (c) involves prolonged inspiration and is a brainstem sign — also not CPR-indicated in dying. The CNA reports changes to the nurse, positions for comfort, provides mouth care, and supports the family per 42 CFR §483.25(k) (end-of-life care).

42 CFR §483.25(k)
3. Which observation is a sign of the active dying phase?
a.Return to baseline cognition and independent ambulation on the unit
b.Increased appetite, steady weight gain, and improved skin turgor
c.Mottling (bluish-purple skin discoloration) of the lower extremities, cool extremities, decreased urine output, and decreased level of consciousness✓
d.A strong, regular pulse with elevated blood pressure, warm dry extremities, increased urine output, and a rising level of consciousness over the past day

Active dying signs include mottling (livedo reticularis from poor perfusion) starting in feet and progressing upward, cool/cyanotic extremities, decreased urine output, decreased LOC, Cheyne-Stokes respirations, 'death rattle' (oral secretions), and sometimes terminal restlessness. These are expected and the CNA's role is comfort care: repositioning gently, mouth care for dryness, clean linens, calm environment, and family presence. Improving signs (a, b, d) are not features of active dying. 42 CFR §483.25(k) addresses end-of-life care.

42 CFR §483.25(k)
4. A non-verbal dying resident grimaces, moans, and pulls away when turned. The CNA should:
a.Withhold all turning and repositioning until the resident is able to say where the pain is coming from and how bad it is
b.Report observed pain behaviors to the nurse promptly so PRN analgesia can be administered and the plan adjusted✓
c.Assume there is no pain, since the resident cannot describe any
d.Tell the resident to relax and continue turning her as scheduled

Pain in non-verbal residents is assessed by behavior: grimacing, moaning, guarding, restlessness, tachycardia, withdrawal. Validated tools include PAINAD (Pain Assessment in Advanced Dementia). The CNA must report observations promptly so the nurse can administer PRN comfort medications under 42 CFR §483.45 (pharmacy services). Assuming no pain (c) is harmful and a quality-of-care failure under 42 CFR §483.25. Stopping necessary care (a) like repositioning leads to pressure injuries. Telling the resident to relax (d) is dismissive of suffering.

42 CFR §483.25; 42 CFR §483.45
5. A POLST form indicates 'Do Not Attempt Resuscitation / DNR' and 'Comfort-Focused Treatment.' During the CNA's morning rounds the resident is found pulseless and apneic. The CNA should:
a.Begin chest compressions only, without rescue breaths, until the licensed nurse arrives and confirms that the POLST is the most recent one on file
b.Stop, do not initiate CPR, notify the licensed nurse immediately, remain with the resident, and provide post-mortem care after pronouncement✓
c.Wait for the family to arrive before doing anything for the resident
d.Begin CPR immediately and call 911 for paramedic transport

POLST (CA Probate §4780 et seq.) is a physician/NP/PA-signed medical order that travels with the resident and is honored in all settings. DNR means no CPR. The CNA verifies the order, notifies the nurse, provides dignity (close eyes, smooth linens), and assists with post-mortem care after the nurse pronounces or contacts the physician. Initiating CPR against a valid DNR (a, d) violates resident rights under 42 CFR §483.10 and may constitute battery. Waiting passively without notifying the nurse (c) breaches duty. Facilities must follow valid advance directives.

CA Probate Code §4780 (POLST); 42 CFR §483.10(c)(6)
6. A 'living will' (Advance Health Care Directive) differs from a POLST in that the living will:
a.Applies only while the resident is conscious and able to speak for herself
b.Replaces the need for any other entry in the medical record
c.Is a legal document in which the resident states future treatment preferences and may name an agent (DPOA-HC); a POLST is a current physician order for present treatment✓
d.Is a signed physician order that must be followed immediately at the bedside

Under CA Probate §4670 et seq., an Advance Health Care Directive (often called a living will) lets a competent adult state future care wishes and appoint a Durable Power of Attorney for Health Care (DPOA-HC). It applies when the resident loses decisional capacity. A POLST (Probate §4780) is a SIGNED MEDICAL ORDER reflecting current wishes for present care and is immediately actionable by any provider. The CNA must know if a resident has either, where to find them, and to follow them per 42 CFR §483.10(c)(6) (right to formulate advance directives).

CA Probate §4670 et seq.; 42 CFR §483.10(c)
7. Bereavement support is part of which type of care?
a.Outpatient physical therapy, which provides counseling to the family for up to 13 months after the course of treatment has been completed
b.Cosmetic surgery clinics, which offer counseling after every procedure
c.Hospice care, which provides bereavement services to the family for up to 13 months after death under Medicare hospice regulations✓
d.Acute hospital care only, for the first 30 days after a death on the unit

Medicare hospice regulations (42 CFR §418.64) require hospice programs to provide bereavement services to the family/caregivers for at least 13 months following the patient's death. Bereavement services include counseling, support groups, and check-in calls. The CNA contributes by treating families with compassion before, during, and after death, sharing memories, and referring to the hospice social worker or chaplain. Acute hospitals, cosmetic clinics, and PT (a, b, d) do not typically provide structured long-term bereavement programs.

42 CFR §418.64; 42 CFR §483.25(k)
8. A devout Catholic resident is actively dying. The family asks that a priest perform the Anointing of the Sick (Last Rites). The CNA should:
a.Notify the nurse so a Catholic priest can be called promptly, ensure privacy, prepare a small table with a white cloth, and respect the ritual✓
b.Perform the anointing themselves to save time before the priest arrives
c.Wait until after the resident has died before calling for the priest
d.Tell the family that the facility does not allow religious rituals at the bedside and suggest they arrange the sacrament at their own parish church

42 CFR §483.10(f)(11) protects the right to religious practice. The Anointing of the Sick (formerly Extreme Unction) is a sacrament administered by a Catholic priest, ideally while the resident is still conscious. The CNA's role: notify the nurse, contact the chaplain or family's priest urgently, ensure privacy and a calm environment, and prepare a small table with a white cloth, candle, and crucifix per Catholic tradition. The CNA does not perform the rite (b). Denying the rite (d) or delaying (c) violates rights and causes spiritual distress.

42 CFR §483.10(f)(11)
9. A Buddhist resident's family requests that the body remain undisturbed for 8 hours after death so the consciousness can transition peacefully. The MOST appropriate CNA/facility response is to:
a.Move the body to the morgue immediately so the bed can be reassigned
b.Notify the nurse and administrator, coordinate with the mortuary, and accommodate the request to the extent feasible while complying with public health and facility policy✓
c.Explain to the family that there is no scientific basis for the practice
d.Refuse, because facility policy requires post-mortem care within the hour

Many Buddhist traditions teach that the consciousness departs over hours and the body should not be disturbed during that time. The CNA respects the practice, notifies the nurse and administrator, coordinates with the family and mortuary, and accommodates where feasible (private room, do-not-disturb sign, delayed post-mortem care). Refusing outright (c, d) or rushing the body (a) violates religious/cultural rights under 42 CFR §483.10 and may cause profound family distress. The facility balances accommodation with reasonable public health requirements under 42 CFR §483.70.

42 CFR §483.10; 42 CFR §483.70
10. Which cultural-religious end-of-life practice is correctly matched?
a.Jewish (Orthodox): chevra kadisha performs ritual washing (tahara) and the body is generally not embalmed; burial occurs as soon as possible✓
b.Hindu: the body is always buried at sea by the family within 24 hours
c.Muslim: the body should be cremated within 24 hours of death
d.Catholic: ritual washing must be performed by the family alone, with no clergy present, and the body is buried within 24 hours of the death itself

Orthodox Jewish practice: the chevra kadisha (sacred burial society) performs tahara (ritual washing and shrouding); embalming is generally avoided; burial occurs as soon as possible, ideally within 24 hours. Muslim practice (c) is the opposite of cremation — ghusl (ritual washing) is performed and burial (not cremation) occurs as soon as possible, ideally within 24 hours. Catholic anointing (d) is performed by a priest, not family. Hindu practice (b) is typically cremation, not burial at sea. The CNA asks the family about specific practices rather than assuming.

42 CFR §483.10

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11. Standard post-mortem care positioning is to:
a.Place the body supine in good alignment with the head slightly elevated on a pillow, eyelids closed, dentures replaced if possible, before rigor mortis sets in✓
b.Place the body side-lying with the knees flexed and a pillow between them
c.Place the body face-down so that fluids drain away from the face
d.Position the knees drawn up to the chest in a fetal position

Standard post-mortem care: supine, good body alignment, head slightly elevated on a pillow (to prevent facial discoloration from blood pooling), eyelids gently closed, dentures replaced before rigor mortis (begins ~2-4 hours after death), clean linens, and dignity maintained. Identify body per facility policy (usually two ID tags: wrist/ankle and outside of shroud or bag). Honor cultural practices first. Side-lying (b), prone (c), and fetal (d) are not standard and may impair dignity and identification. 42 CFR §483.10 protects dignity in all care, including post-mortem.

42 CFR §483.10; Title 22 CCR §72527
12. When handling the deceased resident's personal valuables after death, the CNA should:
a.Inventory all valuables with another staff member as witness, document on the personal property form, and release to the legally authorized representative with a signed receipt✓
b.Distribute the items among other residents who have few possessions
c.Take the items home for safekeeping until a relative can collect them
d.Discard the small items and keep only what fits in one storage box

Title 22 CCR §72527 and 42 CFR §483.10(g) protect residents' property rights. Standard procedure: two staff members witness and inventory all personal items at death (or at admission), document on the personal property/valuables form, secure items, and release ONLY to the legally authorized representative (executor, next of kin per will or law) with a signed receipt. Taking items home (c), discarding (d), or redistributing (b) constitute theft, financial abuse under W&I §15610.30, and grounds for termination, criminal prosecution, and license revocation.

42 CFR §483.10(g); Title 22 CCR §72527
13. According to Kübler-Ross, which of the following are the five stages of grief?
a.Shock, anger, bargaining, depression, and recovery
b.Denial, anger, acceptance, regression, and healing
c.Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance✓
d.Sadness, anger, anxiety, denial, and eventual hope

Elisabeth Kübler-Ross's five stages of grief are: Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance (DABDA). They are not linear — people may revisit stages, skip some, or experience them simultaneously. The CNA recognizes these as normal responses, listens nonjudgmentally, and reports prolonged or dangerous responses (suicidal statements, complete withdrawal) to the nurse. Each stage is honored as a coping mechanism, not pathology. 42 CFR §483.40 requires psychosocial support to meet each resident's behavioral health needs, including grief.

42 CFR §483.40
14. A grieving spouse sits silently beside the dying resident, occasionally crying. The MOST therapeutic CNA action is to:
a.Avoid entering the room until after the resident has died, so that the spouse can have private time alone with him at the bedside
b.Sit nearby, offer tissues and water, use silence and gentle touch if welcomed, and avoid clichés like 'it's for the best'✓
c.Insist that the spouse leave the room to get some fresh air
d.Explain in detail the medical cause of the resident's dying

Therapeutic presence — quiet companionship, simple offers (tissues, water, a chair), and respectful silence — is more comforting than words. Touch (a hand on the shoulder) helps IF welcomed; ask first if uncertain about cultural norms. Avoid clichés ('they're in a better place', 'it's for the best') which dismiss grief. Forcing the spouse out (c) violates the right to be present. Medical lectures (d) increase distress. Avoidance (a) is emotional abandonment. 42 CFR §483.10 protects dignity for both residents and families.

42 CFR §483.10
15. A resident asks a CNA, 'Will you hold my hand for a few minutes? I'm scared.' Therapeutic touch in this context is:
a.Permitted only when a family member is present in the room to witness the interaction and sign the care record
b.Always inappropriate and a professional boundary violation
c.Appropriate, comforting, and within scope as long as the touch is welcomed, professional, and non-sexual✓
d.Acceptable only when a physician has ordered comfort measures

Holding a hand at the resident's invitation is a humane, therapeutic gesture and within CNA scope when professional, non-sexual, and consensual. The CNA should always confirm consent ('Would you like me to hold your hand?'), respect cultural norms about touch (some cultures restrict opposite-sex touch outside care tasks), and document significant interactions. Touch that is sexualized, prolonged inappropriately, or unwanted is misconduct and may constitute abuse. Family presence (a) and physician orders (d) are not required for ordinary comforting touch under 42 CFR §483.10 (dignity).

42 CFR §483.10
16. A Mexican-American family wants to bring a candle, a small altar with the Virgen de Guadalupe, and family photos into the dying resident's room. The CNA should:
a.Allow the altar and a real lit candle at the bedside without notifying anyone
b.Tell the family that religious items in the room disturb other residents
c.Refuse the altar and the photos because candles are a fire hazard
d.Notify the nurse, allow the altar and photos, and offer a battery-operated flameless candle to honor the tradition while complying with facility fire safety policy✓

Honoring cultural and religious rituals at end-of-life is protected under 42 CFR §483.10(f)(11). Many Mexican-American/Latinx families create a small altar (altar/ofrenda) with the Virgen de Guadalupe, photos, and candles. Most facilities prohibit open flames for fire safety, so the CNA offers a flameless LED candle — accommodating the tradition while preserving safety. Outright refusal (b, c) violates rights. Ignoring fire safety (a) endangers all residents and may violate Title 22 fire codes. Coordinate through the nurse and chaplain to integrate the ritual with the plan of care.

42 CFR §483.10(f)(11); 42 CFR §483.40

Legal & Ethical

34 questions
1. Which of the following is OUTSIDE a California CNA's scope of practice?
a.Assisting a resident with bathing, toileting, ambulation, and feeding at mealtimes
b.Reporting changes in a resident's condition to the licensed nurse and charting them
c.Administering an injectable medication or performing initial nursing assessment✓
d.Measuring and recording vital signs, intake and output, and the resident's weight

Under HSC §1337-1338 and Title 22 CCR §71835, a California CNA performs basic nursing services under the supervision of a licensed nurse: ADLs, vital signs, intake/output, ambulation, observation, and reporting. CNAs DO NOT administer injectable or oral medications (a Certified Medication Aide/CMA is a separate credential), do not perform sterile procedures, do not insert/remove catheters except as specifically delegated, do not perform initial admission nursing assessments, and do not give telephone/verbal orders. Working outside scope is grounds for CDPH discipline, civil liability, and possibly criminal practice without a license.

HSC §1337; HSC §1338; Title 22 CCR §71835
2. A nurse asks a CNA to start an IV on a new admission because the unit is short-staffed. The CNA should:
a.Ask another CNA on the unit to start the IV instead
b.Try once and report to the nurse only if the attempt is unsuccessful
c.Politely refuse, explain that IV insertion is outside CNA scope of practice in California, and document the request through proper channels✓
d.Start the IV to help the team through the short-staffed shift

IV insertion is the practice of nursing (BPC §2725) and is outside California CNA scope under Title 22 CCR §71835. A CNA must refuse any task beyond scope, even if directed by a nurse — performing it could harm the resident and is grounds for CDPH certification revocation under HSC §1337.9 and possibly criminal charges for unlicensed practice. The CNA should refuse politely, document, and notify the charge nurse or supervisor. 'Helping' (d) by acting outside scope is unsafe. Delegating to another CNA (a) just shifts the violation.

BPC §2725; Title 22 CCR §71835
3. Why is the documentation principle 'not documented = not done' important?
a.Because charting is optional as long as the care itself was actually given, and a coworker who saw the care can confirm it later if a surveyor or an attorney ever asks about that shift
b.Because supervisors review charts to decide which CNAs get overtime
c.Because residents and families demand to see the chart each week
d.Because the legal medical record is the primary evidence of the care provided; if a treatment is not documented, courts, surveyors, and Medicare may treat it as if it never occurred✓

Under 42 CFR §483.70(i) and Title 22 CCR §72543, facilities must maintain complete, accurate, accessible records on each resident. The medical record is a legal document. If care is not documented (or is documented late, falsely, or vaguely), it cannot be defended in court, audits, or surveys — and the facility/CNA may face citations, civil liability, and disciplinary action. CNAs must chart promptly, factually, in the resident's own words when quoted, and never document a task before performing it. Late entries are made as 'late entry' with current date/time.

42 CFR §483.70(i); Title 22 CCR §72543
4. Under HIPAA's 'minimum necessary' standard (45 CFR §164.502(b)), a CNA should access protected health information (PHI):
a.Whenever a family member or a close friend of the resident asks for it at the nurses' station
b.For coworkers' own records, as a professional courtesy
c.For any resident in the facility, out of general curiosity
d.Only to the extent needed to perform their assigned job duties for assigned residents✓

HIPAA's minimum necessary standard (45 CFR §164.502(b)) requires covered entities to limit uses, disclosures, and requests for PHI to the minimum necessary to accomplish the intended purpose. A CNA accesses only the records of assigned residents and only the information needed to provide care. Browsing charts for non-assigned residents (c), looking up coworkers (b), or sharing with unauthorized friends/family (a) is a HIPAA violation, grounds for termination, and may carry civil penalties up to $50,000 per violation (max ~$1.5M/yr) and criminal penalties up to $250,000 and 10 years for malicious disclosure under 42 USC §1320d-6.

HIPAA 45 CFR §164.502(b)
5. Under HIPAA 45 CFR §164.512, a CNA may disclose PHI WITHOUT the resident's written authorization in which situation?
a.Reporting suspected elder abuse to APS or the LTC ombudsman as required by California mandated reporter law✓
b.Posting a story about a resident on social media with all of the names and room numbers left out of the caption
c.Sharing chart details with a journalist for a human-interest story
d.Telling a neighbor about a resident's diagnosis after work

45 CFR §164.512 permits disclosure of PHI without individual authorization for specified public-interest purposes, including reports required by law (such as elder abuse reports under W&I §15630 and child abuse reports under PC §11166), public health activities, judicial proceedings, and law enforcement subject to limits. Social media posts (b) — even 'de-identified' — typically still constitute PHI disclosure and are HIPAA violations. Neighbor gossip (d) and journalist disclosures (c) are violations. Mandated reporting is both permitted under HIPAA and required under California law; the reporter's identity is also confidential.

HIPAA 45 CFR §164.512
6. A resident asks the CNA for a copy of her own medical record. The correct CNA response is:
a.Refuse, explaining that residents may not access their own medical records
b.Charge the resident $100 in cash before releasing a copy of the record
c.Acknowledge the right, do not hand over the chart, and direct the request to the charge nurse or medical records department, who must provide access within 30 days under HIPAA 45 CFR §164.524✓
d.Photocopy the chart and hand it to the resident immediately without telling anyone

Under HIPAA 45 CFR §164.524, individuals have the right to inspect and obtain a copy of their PHI maintained in a designated record set; covered entities generally must respond within 30 days (with one 30-day extension). The CNA must not deny the right (a) or hand out records on their own (d) — release is handled by medical records following identity verification, applicable fees (cost-based, reasonable; not arbitrary cash demands as in b), and any state-specific requirements. CNAs facilitate by acknowledging the request, telling the nurse, and explaining the process to the resident.

HIPAA 45 CFR §164.524
7. A CNA posts a TikTok video taken in the nursing facility hallway. Two residents appear in the background, identifiable by face. This is:
a.Allowed, as long as the CNA's manager approves the post afterward
b.A HIPAA violation that may result in termination, civil penalties up to $50,000 per violation, and possibly criminal charges; the CNA should remove the post immediately and self-report✓
c.Allowed, as long as the CNA blurs the residents' faces after posting
d.Allowed, because the residents are not the main subject of the video

Any image or video that allows identification of a patient in a healthcare setting is PHI under HIPAA (45 CFR §160.103); posting without explicit written authorization violates 45 CFR §164.502. Civil penalties (42 USC §1320d-5) tier from $100 to over $50,000 per violation up to ~$1.9M per year per identical violation. Criminal penalties (42 USC §1320d-6) can reach $250,000 and 10 years imprisonment for wrongful disclosure with malicious intent. The CNA must delete, self-report, and cooperate with the privacy officer. Background appearance, post-hoc blurring, or manager approval do not cure the violation.

42 USC §1320d-5, §1320d-6
8. Informed consent for a non-emergency treatment generally requires:
a.Only the family's verbal agreement, regardless of what the resident wants, because relatives are presumed to know the resident's wishes best in a nursing facility
b.No consent at all when the facility considers the treatment routine
c.Disclosure of risks/benefits/alternatives by the qualified provider, decisional capacity, and voluntary agreement of the resident or legally authorized surrogate✓
d.Only the resident's signature on any form the facility provides

Informed consent under CA law (Probate §4670 et seq.; common-law Cobbs v. Grant) requires the provider to disclose the nature of the proposed treatment, material risks, benefits, and alternatives; the patient (or surrogate if patient lacks capacity) must have decisional capacity, understand the information, and agree voluntarily without coercion. The CNA does not obtain consent for medical treatments but ensures the resident's expressed wishes are respected and reported. A signature alone (d), unilateral family override (a), or assumed consent for 'routine' care (b) do not satisfy the legal standard.

CA Probate Code §4670; 42 CFR §483.10(c)
9. A competent resident with capacity refuses her prescribed evening medications. The CNA should:
a.Tell the resident that she must take all of her evening medications or be discharged from the facility, and then chart that she agreed to take them
b.Hide the medications in her food and chart that she took them
c.Honor the refusal, document the resident's words, and notify the licensed nurse so the physician can be informed and the care plan adjusted✓
d.Physically hold her and place the pills in her mouth

42 CFR §483.10(c)(6) protects a resident's right to refuse treatment. A competent resident may refuse care; staff must honor the refusal, ensure the resident understands consequences (educated via the nurse/physician), document the refusal verbatim, and notify the nurse. Covert medication (b) is battery, fraud, and abuse — and often illegal absent specific physician orders and an established surrogate process. Force (d) is battery (PC §242). Threatening discharge (a) is coercion and may violate transfer/discharge protections under 42 CFR §483.15. CNAs do not administer medications regardless.

42 CFR §483.10(c)(6)
10. California Welfare & Institutions Code §15630 requires a mandated reporter who suspects PHYSICAL abuse of an LTC resident causing serious bodily injury to make a telephone report to law enforcement:
a.Only after the supervisor has reviewed and approved the report
b.Immediately or as soon as practicably possible, and a written report within 2 hours; SBI requires immediate phone to law enforcement✓
c.Within one week, with a written report to follow within 30 days
d.Within 30 days, with no separate written report required

Under W&I §15630(b)(1)(A), in a long-term care facility, when physical abuse results in serious bodily injury, the mandated reporter must telephone local law enforcement IMMEDIATELY (and the ombudsman) and submit a written report within 2 hours. For physical abuse without serious bodily injury, the phone report is immediate/ASAP and written report within 24 hours. Other forms of abuse generally require report within 2 working days. HSC §1418.91 also requires the facility to report alleged abuse to CDPH within 24 hours. Supervisor approval is not required (a) and may not delay reporting.

W&I §15630(b); HSC §1418.91
11. A CNA reports in good faith a suspected case of elder abuse, but it turns out to be unfounded. Under W&I §15634, the CNA:
a.Is immune from civil or criminal liability for the report when made in good faith, regardless of whether abuse is ultimately substantiated✓
b.Can be sued for defamation by the coworker who was accused, unless the report was made through the facility's own hotline rather than directly to the county
c.Loses their CNA certification for filing an unfounded report
d.Must pay a fine to the facility for the unfounded report

W&I §15634 grants mandated and non-mandated reporters who report suspected elder/dependent adult abuse in good faith immunity from civil or criminal liability arising from the report, even if the report turns out to be unfounded. This protection encourages reporting without fear of retaliation. The reporter's identity is also confidential and may only be disclosed in limited circumstances. Conversely, FAILURE to report is a misdemeanor with up to 6 months jail and a $1,000 fine (or higher with great bodily injury/death) under W&I §15630(h).

W&I §15634
12. The California Department of Public Health (CDPH) Licensing & Certification Division has the authority to:
a.Provide direct medical care to residents in licensed facilities and determine the minimum staffing levels that those facilities must maintain on each shift of every day
b.Set Medicare and Medi-Cal reimbursement rates for facilities
c.Run the Long-Term Care Ombudsman program for the state
d.License skilled nursing facilities, certify CNAs, investigate complaints, conduct surveys, issue citations, and impose civil penalties or license revocation✓

CDPH Licensing & Certification, under HSC §1417 et seq., licenses skilled nursing facilities, intermediate care facilities, and similar providers, and certifies nurse assistants under HSC §1337. CDPH conducts annual surveys, investigates complaints under HSC §1420, issues citations (Class AA-A-B), and may suspend or revoke licenses. CDPH does not provide direct medical care (a), set Medicare rates (b — that is CMS), or run the Ombudsman (c — that is the CA Dept of Aging under the Older Americans Act). Anyone can file a CDPH complaint by phone, mail, or online and remain anonymous.

HSC §1417 et seq.; HSC §1422
13. A CNA reports unsafe staffing ratios and unsanitary conditions to CDPH. The facility administrator threatens to fire the CNA. This retaliation is:
a.Legal, because the CNA is an at-will employee who may be terminated at any time
b.Illegal — California whistleblower protections (Labor Code §1102.5 and HSC §1432) prohibit retaliation against employees for reporting violations of law to government agencies or refusing to participate in unlawful activity✓
c.Illegal only if CDPH substantiates the complaint after its investigation
d.Legal, as long as the termination is never put in writing

Labor Code §1102.5 prohibits employer retaliation against employees who disclose information to government or law enforcement agencies, or to a person with authority to investigate, where the employee reasonably believes the information discloses a violation of law. HSC §1432 specifically protects LTC workers who report quality-of-care concerns. Remedies include reinstatement, back pay, civil penalties (up to $10,000 per violation), and attorney's fees. Whether the complaint is ultimately sustained does not change protection; the test is the reporter's reasonable belief and good faith.

Labor Code §1102.5; HSC §1432
14. Assault and battery are defined in California as:
a.Both assault and battery require the use of a weapon before charges can be filed
b.Assault and battery are identical terms describing the same criminal offense
c.Assault (PC §240) is an unlawful attempt, coupled with present ability, to commit a violent injury on another; battery (PC §242) is any willful and unlawful use of force or violence upon another✓
d.Assault is harmful touching, while battery is the threat of future harm

Penal Code §240 defines assault as an unlawful attempt, coupled with a present ability, to commit a violent injury on another. PC §242 defines battery as any willful and unlawful use of force or violence upon the person of another. Slapping, grabbing, or forcibly medicating a resident without consent can constitute battery. Threatening to hit (without contact) can be assault. No weapon is required (a). A CNA who commits assault or battery on a resident faces criminal prosecution, CDPH certification revocation under HSC §1337.9, immediate termination, and exclusion from federal healthcare programs.

PC §240; PC §242
15. A CNA, frustrated with a wandering resident, locks the resident in a room without a physician order or care-plan justification. This action is:
a.False imprisonment, prohibited use of restraint under 42 CFR §483.10(e) and §483.12(a)(2), abuse under W&I §15610.07, and grounds for criminal charges, civil liability, and certification revocation✓
b.Acceptable, as long as the resident's family has approved the arrangement
c.Acceptable, as long as the resident is confined for only a short period
d.Legal, because the door has a window through which staff can observe her

Confining a resident against their will without medical justification, physician order, and informed consent is false imprisonment (civil and criminal tort) and unlawful restraint under federal nursing home regulations. Duration (c), door windows (d), or family approval (b) do not legalize unlawful confinement. The resident has the right to be free from restraints not required for medical symptoms. CDPH may issue immediate jeopardy citations; the CNA faces termination, certification revocation under HSC §1337.9, and possible criminal prosecution. Always use approved behavior plans and least restrictive interventions.

42 CFR §483.10(e); 42 CFR §483.12(a)(2)
16. Negligence in nursing care requires proof of FOUR elements. Which is the correct list?
a.Documentation, signature, witness, and notary seal
b.Duty, breach of duty, causation, and damages✓
c.Insurance, supervision, training, and apology
d.Intent, harm, witnesses, and a written police report

The common-law elements of negligence (California Civil Jury Instructions, CACI 400) are: (1) Duty — the CNA owes a duty of care to the resident; (2) Breach — the CNA failed to meet the standard of care expected of a reasonably prudent CNA; (3) Causation — the breach caused the harm; and (4) Damages — actual injury or loss. Failing to turn a resident leading to a pressure injury, dropping a resident during a one-person transfer, or not reporting a change in condition can all create negligence claims. Intent (d) is not required for negligence — recklessness is enough.

Common-law negligence; CACI 400; HSC §1276.5
17. The fundamental difference between civil and criminal liability is that:
a.Civil cases always end in jail time for the person who caused the harm
b.Civil cases seek money damages to compensate the injured party; criminal cases are brought by the government and seek punishment (fines, probation, incarceration) for offenses against the public✓
c.Civil and criminal cases are identical in purpose and in standard of proof
d.Criminal cases order the offender to pay money damages to the resident

Civil cases are brought by private parties (the resident or family) seeking monetary damages or injunctions; the standard of proof is 'preponderance of the evidence' (more likely than not). Criminal cases are brought by the government (People of the State of California) seeking punishment such as fines, probation, or jail; the standard of proof is 'beyond a reasonable doubt.' The same act (e.g., striking a resident) can result in BOTH a civil suit (battery damages) and criminal prosecution (PC §242 battery). CDPH administrative action is a third, separate track.

Civil vs criminal law principles
18. A CNA suspects a coworker is diverting (stealing) controlled substances from the medication cart. The CNA should:
a.Confront the coworker directly and ask her to return the medications
b.Wait until certain before reporting, to avoid accusing anyone unfairly
c.Do nothing, because the medications are not for the CNA's own residents
d.Report to the charge nurse and administrator/DON immediately; the facility must notify the DEA, the BRN, and CDPH; the CNA may also report to the Ombudsman or law enforcement✓

Drug diversion endangers residents (under-medication, contamination, errors). The CNA must report suspicion to the charge nurse, administrator, or DON immediately. The facility is required to investigate, report losses of controlled substances to the DEA under 21 CFR §1301.76(b), notify the nurse's licensing board (BRN for an RN/LVN), and report to CDPH under HSC §1418.91. Confronting the coworker (a) compromises investigation. Waiting (b) risks resident harm. Inaction (c) violates the duty owed to ALL residents. Failure to report may also be misconduct under HSC §1337.9.

42 CFR §483.12; HSC §1418.91
19. California CNA certification renewal requires:
a.Renewal every 2 years with at least 48 hours of CE (minimum 12 hours/year, including in-service training in topics required by the facility), and continued employment performing nursing-related services for pay within the prior 24 months✓
b.Renewal every year with 100 hours of continuing education and no work requirement
c.Renewal every 5 years with 8 hours of continuing education and no work requirement
d.Renewal every 2 years with no continuing education and no work requirement

Under HSC §1337.3 and Title 22 CCR §71831, California CNA certification is renewed every 24 months. Renewal requires at least 48 hours of approved continuing education during the two-year period (with a minimum of 12 hours each year), most of which is provided as in-service by the SNF. The CNA must also have performed nursing-related services for pay within the previous 24 months. Failure to renew on time results in lapse; an expired CNA cannot work as a CNA. Falsifying CE records is grounds for certification denial or revocation.

HSC §1337.3; Title 22 CCR §71831
20. Which criminal background finding would generally disqualify an applicant from California CNA certification?
a.A first-time non-violent misdemeanor unrelated to patient care that was dismissed after the applicant completed probation and paid the fine
b.A speeding ticket received twenty years before the application
c.A jaywalking citation that was paid and closed
d.A conviction for elder abuse, sexual assault, or any serious or violent felony as defined by HSC §1337.9 and PC §667.5(c)/§1192.7(c)✓

Under HSC §1337.9 and §1338.5, CDPH performs a criminal background check (live scan fingerprints with DOJ and FBI) on every CNA applicant. Convictions for offenses such as elder/dependent adult abuse, sexual assault, child abuse, serious/violent felonies (PC §667.5(c), §1192.7(c)), or substantiated findings of abuse, neglect, or misappropriation of resident property generally bar certification. Some non-serious convictions allow a criminal record waiver if the applicant demonstrates rehabilitation. Speeding tickets, jaywalking, and unrelated minor misdemeanors are generally not disqualifying.

HSC §1337.9; HSC §1338.5
21. A resident with hearing loss requests a sign-language interpreter for a care conference. Under the ADA, the facility must:
a.Refuse the request, because qualified interpreters are too expensive for the facility to provide
b.Provide effective communication aids and services (such as a qualified ASL interpreter, captioning, written notes) free of charge to the resident; refusal violates Title III of the ADA (42 USC §12181 et seq.) and Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act✓
c.Provide an interpreter only after the resident files a lawsuit against the facility
d.Provide the interpreter but charge the cost back to the resident's account

Title III of the ADA (42 USC §12181 et seq.) requires places of public accommodation, including healthcare facilities, to provide auxiliary aids and services (qualified interpreters, captioning, written materials) to ensure effective communication with persons with disabilities at no cost to the individual. Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act extends similar requirements to entities receiving federal funds (Medicare/Medicaid). Charging (d), refusing (a), or waiting for a lawsuit (c) are unlawful. The CNA reports the request to the nurse/social worker to arrange the service promptly.

ADA 42 USC §12101 et seq.; Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act
22. A CDPH complaint about a long-term care facility may be filed by:
a.Only licensed health professionals who work in the facility
b.Only family members of a resident who currently lives there
c.Only the resident, and only in a signed written complaint
d.Any person — resident, family, staff, ombudsman, or member of the public — and the complainant may remain anonymous; the facility may not retaliate✓

Under HSC §1420, ANY person may file a complaint with CDPH about conditions or care in a licensed facility. The complainant's identity is confidential by law and may remain anonymous. CDPH must investigate complaints (with statutory timelines for entry — generally on-site within 10 working days for non-immediate-jeopardy; within 24 hours for IJ). Retaliation against an employee, resident, or family member for filing a complaint is prohibited (HSC §1432, Labor Code §1102.5). Complaints may be submitted by phone, mail, or the CDPH website.

HSC §1418.91; HSC §1420
23. California's HSC §1276.5 (the '3.5 / 2.4 rule') requires skilled nursing facilities to provide a minimum of how many direct-care nursing hours per resident day?
a.An average of 3.5 nursing hours per resident day (NHPRD), with at least 2.4 hours provided by CNAs✓
b.No statewide minimum exists; staffing is set by each facility
c.An average of 1.0 nursing hour per resident day (NHPRD), with no separate minimum required from CNAs
d.An average of 5.0 nursing hours per resident day, all provided by RNs

HSC §1276.65 (the staffing rule that succeeded §1276.5's earlier 3.2 standard, effective 2018) requires SNFs to provide a minimum of 3.5 direct-care nursing hours per resident day (NHPRD), with at least 2.4 hours of those provided by CNAs and the remainder by licensed nurses (RN/LVN). Title 22 CCR §71203 contains related staffing standards. The 160-hour CNA training requirement is HSC §1337(c)(2)/Title 22 CCR §71835 (CDPH approved, exceeds the 75-hour federal minimum under 42 CFR §483.152). Facilities cite for failing to meet staffing minimums.

HSC §1276.5; Title 22 CCR §71203
24. A resident says, 'I don't want to take a shower today, maybe tomorrow.' The CNA should:
a.Tell the resident that she has no choice about the shower today and bathe her anyway before the morning report is finished
b.Warn her that the family will be called if she does not comply
c.Honor the resident's right to refuse, offer a partial bath or alternate time, document the refusal, and notify the nurse✓
d.Document her as 'non-compliant' and skip bathing for the week

Under Title 22 CCR §72527 and 42 CFR §483.10(c)(6), residents have the right to refuse treatment, including bathing, and to participate in scheduling. The CNA should respect the refusal, offer alternatives (partial bath, different time, different staff, shower vs. bath), explore the reason (pain, cold, fear, modesty, cultural), document the refusal verbatim, and notify the nurse. Forcing a bath (a) is battery. Skipping all hygiene (d) is neglect. Threats and coercion (b) violate dignity and the right to choose. The IDT may revise the bathing plan.

Title 22 CCR §72527; 42 CFR §483.10
25. Under Penal Code §11166, a mandated reporter who fails to report KNOWN OR REASONABLY SUSPECTED child abuse or neglect commits:
a.A misdemeanor punishable by up to 6 months in county jail and/or a fine up to $1,000 (or imprisonment up to 1 year and/or up to $5,000 if the abuse resulted in death or great bodily injury)✓
b.A civil infraction handled by the State Bar of California
c.An administrative violation carrying no penalty of any kind
d.A felony punishable by up to five years in state prison

PC §11166(c) makes failure to report by a mandated reporter (PC §11165.7 lists CNAs and other health practitioners) a misdemeanor punishable by up to 6 months in county jail, a fine up to $1,000, or both. If the abuse or neglect resulted in death or great bodily injury, the penalty rises to up to 1 year in county jail and/or up to $5,000 fine. Mandated reporters must telephone a child protective agency immediately or as soon as practicably possible, followed by a written report within 36 hours. Good-faith reporters have civil and criminal immunity under PC §11172.

PC §11166; PC §11165.7
26. A Filipino resident speaks Tagalog as her primary language. Which is the BEST way the facility ensures meaningful communication?
a.Use her teenage grandchild to translate the admission and consent discussions
b.Rely on a phone translation app during the care conference
c.Provide all written materials in English and speak slowly
d.Use a qualified medical interpreter (in-person, telephone, or video), translate vital documents (admission, advance directive, grievance policy) into Tagalog, and document interpreter use in the chart✓

Title VI of the Civil Rights Act (42 USC §2000d) and 42 CFR §483.10(b)(3) require facilities receiving federal funds to provide meaningful language access. Best practice: use a QUALIFIED medical interpreter (in-person preferred, telephone or video acceptable), translate vital documents, and document interpreter ID and language for each encounter. Using minor children (a) is widely discouraged and may breach confidentiality. Machine translation (b) is unreliable for medical content. English-only (c) violates federal civil rights law and may trigger Office for Civil Rights enforcement.

42 CFR §483.10(b)(3); Title VI 42 USC §2000d
27. Which act, if committed by a CNA against a resident and substantiated by CDPH, would result in placement on the CA Nurse Aide Registry as a finding of abuse/neglect/misappropriation, barring future SNF employment?
a.Striking a resident, financial exploitation (stealing resident funds), or willful neglect resulting in harm✓
b.Requesting a reasonable accommodation from the employer for a documented disability under state and federal law
c.Filing a CDPH complaint about unsafe staffing on the unit
d.Reporting suspected abuse to the Long-Term Care Ombudsman

Under HSC §1337.9 and 42 CFR §488.301/§483.156, CDPH maintains the Nurse Aide Registry. Substantiated findings of resident abuse, neglect, or misappropriation of resident property (theft) are entered on the registry permanently; the CNA cannot work in any Medicare/Medicaid certified nursing facility nationwide thereafter. Findings include physical/sexual/verbal abuse, financial exploitation, and willful neglect. The CNA receives notice and a right to a due-process hearing. Reporting abuse (d), complaining about staffing (c), and requesting ADA accommodations (b) are protected acts, not registry violations.

HSC §1337.9; 42 CFR §488.301
28. A CNA discusses a resident's HIV status with another CNA in the elevator where visitors can hear. This is:
a.Allowed, because an elevator counts as a private staff area
b.Allowed, because both people are caregivers for the resident
c.A HIPAA privacy violation; PHI must be discussed only with those who have a need to know and in a secure setting; the facility must train staff on safeguards under 45 CFR §164.530✓
d.Allowed, because the resident is not present to overhear it

45 CFR §164.530 requires covered entities to implement administrative, physical, and technical safeguards to protect PHI from incidental disclosures. Discussing diagnoses (especially sensitive ones like HIV under 42 USC §300ff-25 and CA HSC §120975 confidentiality) in public spaces — elevators, hallways, breakrooms within earshot of others, or social media — is a violation. Status as a coworker (b) does not satisfy 'need to know' for unassigned residents. Resident absence (d) and elevator 'privacy' (a) are not defenses. The CNA self-reports and the privacy officer assesses breach notification under 45 CFR §164.404.

HIPAA 45 CFR §164.530
29. A resident wishes to file a grievance about cold meals. The facility must:
a.Discourage the grievance so that CDPH does not scrutinize the kitchen
b.Refer all complaints to the family and resolve them without resident input
c.Provide a written grievance policy, identify a grievance official, investigate, respond in writing within a reasonable time, and not retaliate; the CNA assists by forwarding the grievance to the appropriate person✓
d.Tell the resident that only the administrator hears grievances, and only in writing

42 CFR §483.10(j) requires SNFs to provide a clear grievance policy, designate a grievance official, allow residents (and representatives) to voice grievances without discrimination or reprisal, investigate promptly, and provide a written decision. CA HSC §1599.2 reinforces resident bill of rights. The CNA forwards grievances, supports the resident, and never retaliates or discourages reporting (a, d). The resident may also contact the LTC Ombudsman, CDPH, or APS. Retaliation is grounds for citations and personnel action.

42 CFR §483.10(j); HSC §1599.2
30. A CNA with a documented back injury asks the employer for a reasonable accommodation (use of a mechanical lift for all transfers). The employer must:
a.Reduce the CNA's pay to match the lighter duties automatically
b.Tell the CNA to work through the pain until the injury resolves
c.Engage in a good-faith interactive process to identify reasonable accommodations that do not cause undue hardship, under ADA Title I (42 USC §12112) and CA FEHA (Gov Code §12940(m)-(n))✓
d.Refuse the request and terminate the CNA for being unable to work

ADA Title I (42 USC §12112) and California's FEHA (Gov Code §12940(m)-(n)) require employers to engage in a timely, good-faith interactive process with employees who have known disabilities to identify reasonable accommodations (modified equipment, schedule changes, job restructuring) that allow the employee to perform essential job functions without undue hardship. Refusal (d), pay cut (a), or requiring the CNA to work through pain (b) violate disability rights laws and may also violate Cal/OSHA safe-patient-handling requirements (Labor Code §6403.5). The CNA may file with DFEH/CRD or EEOC.

ADA 42 USC §12112; FEHA Gov Code §12940
31. A resident with a valid DNR/POLST collapses in the dining room. Bystanders call out for someone to start CPR. The CNA should:
a.Start chest compressions and continue until the family has been contacted
b.Wait until the resident is officially pronounced dead before doing anything
c.Not start CPR (because of the DNR), summon the licensed nurse immediately, stay with the resident, provide privacy and comfort, and follow facility post-arrest protocol✓
d.Ignore the DNR and begin CPR because a bystander insists on it

A valid POLST/DNR (CA Probate §4780 et seq.) is a physician order that must be honored. Initiating CPR against a valid DNR is unwanted treatment, may constitute battery, and violates resident rights under 42 CFR §483.10(c)(6). The CNA's correct steps: do not begin CPR, summon the nurse immediately, provide privacy and dignity (clear bystanders, drape if needed), and follow facility post-arrest protocol (nurse pronouncement or physician notification, family notification, post-mortem care). Bystander pressure (d) does not override a valid medical order.

42 CFR §483.10(c)(6); Probate §4780
32. A facility may transfer or discharge a resident only for SPECIFIC reasons listed in federal regulations. Which is NOT a permissible reason under 42 CFR §483.15?
a.Non-payment after reasonable notice, with limitations under state law
b.The resident or family filed a complaint with CDPH or the Ombudsman✓
c.The resident's clinical needs can no longer be met by this facility's staff
d.The facility ceases to operate and closes all of its units permanently

42 CFR §483.15(c) lists the only permissible reasons for involuntary transfer/discharge: (1) clinical needs cannot be met; (2) health no longer requires SNF services; (3) safety of others endangered; (4) health of others endangered; (5) non-payment after reasonable notice; and (6) facility closure. Filing complaints (b) is a PROTECTED activity (HSC §1432, 42 CFR §483.10(j)(4)); retaliatory discharge is unlawful and grounds for citation, civil penalties, and reinstatement. The resident has the right to 30-day written notice and to appeal to the state hearing office.

42 CFR §483.15; HSC §1599.1
33. A resident's son brings beer to his father's birthday party in the resident's room. The resident has no medical contraindication and the care plan does not restrict alcohol. The MOST appropriate CNA response is to:
a.Notify the charge nurse of the visit; if there is no medical or care-plan contraindication and facility policy permits, allow it; if policy or medical orders restrict alcohol, explain respectfully and offer alternatives✓
b.Confiscate the beer immediately and give it back to the son at the door
c.Join the family and drink one beer with the resident at the party
d.Tell the son that the facility prohibits all alcohol, whatever the care plan says

Title 22 CCR §72527 and the California Resident Bill of Rights (HSC §1599.74-§1599.84) preserve residents' rights to make personal choices, including legal alcohol use, unless contraindicated. The CNA's role: notify the nurse, verify there is no medical/medication contraindication and that facility policy allows, then permit the celebration with dignity. Unilateral confiscation (b) or blanket refusal (d) violate autonomy. Consuming alcohol with residents (c) is gross professional misconduct, grounds for termination and certification revocation under HSC §1337.9, and may constitute abuse if it impairs care.

Title 22 CCR §72527; HSC §1599.74
34. California's 160-hour CNA training requirement under HSC §1337(c)(2) and Title 22 CCR §71835 consists of:
a.A high school diploma alone, with no formal classroom or clinical training
b.Online self-study only, with no supervised clinical hours in a facility
c.A minimum of 60 hours of classroom theory and 100 hours of supervised clinical training, with a state competency examination required for certification✓
d.75 classroom hours in total, matching the federal minimum, with no supervised clinical requirement and no state competency examination before certification

HSC §1337(c)(2) and Title 22 CCR §71835 require California CNAs to complete a CDPH-approved Nurse Assistant Training Program totaling at least 160 hours: a minimum of 60 hours of classroom theory plus 100 hours of supervised clinical training in a long-term care facility. This exceeds the federal minimum of 75 hours under 42 CFR §483.152. Candidates must then pass the state competency examination (written/oral plus skills test administered by D&S Diversified Services), undergo a DOJ/FBI live scan, and submit the application before placement on the CA Nurse Aide Registry. Renewal is every 2 years (HSC §1337.3).

HSC §1337-1338; 42 CFR §483.95; Title 22 CCR §71835
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